Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Oral Biology > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

In regards to bone composition, hydroxyapatite is overlaid on a ____ scaffold

A

Collagen 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What percentage of bone is inorganic, what portion is organic?

A

67% inorganic

33% organic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name 5 noncollagenous proteins found in bone. (Note that these are also found in dentin)

A

Bone sialoprotein

Osteopontin

Osteocalcin

Osteonectin

Matrix extracellular phosphoglycoprotein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name four physiological roles of bone

A

Structural

Calcium homeostasis

Reservoir for growth factors in tissue repair

Contains both hematopoietic and mesenchymal progenitor cell populations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the macrostructure of bone

A

Outer layer of dense compact (cortical) bone with an inner cavity

Inner cavity contains marrow (red or yellow) and cancellous (trabecular) bone

Bone is highly vascular, with a network of blood vessels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 3 organizational units of the macrostructure of compact bone?

A

Circumferential: outer ring of bone tissue

Concentric lamellae: intact osteons

Interstitial lamellae: fill space between concentric lamellae: former concentric lamellae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why are interstitial lamellae half-circle in shape?

A

The bones are constantly being remodeled. Half-circle osteons are osteons that have diminished and are beginning to be replaced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Osteons are formed around ____ canals

A

Haversian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Osteons are the basic functional units of compact bone. They form cylinders running ____ to the long axis of bone. They are formed from ____ lamellae. They are build around a canal called a ___.

A

Parallel

Concentric

Haversian canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

____ canals connect Haversian canals, linking osteons.

A

Volkmann

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cancellous bone is spongy bone, much less densely arranged than compact bone. Where is this bone found? What are its functions?

A

Found at the ends of long bones, in apposition to joints and is associated with the marrow spaces

Functions to provide structural support for marrow tissues and it is the site of blood cell production, also supports mesenchymal and hematopoietic progenitor cell populations

Note that this bone type is highly vascularized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

Connective tissue layer attached to the outer layer surface of bone by sharpey’s fibers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the two layers of the periosteum?

A

Outer fibrous layer and inner layer in apposition to the bone surface. The inner layer is both highly cellular and vascularized.

Note that the inner layer is involved in growth and repair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the endosteum?

A

Loose connective tissue covering the inner surface of both cancellous and compact bone.

Separates the marrow from the bone. Poorly defined histologically.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the three different types of bone cells? Describe them.

A

Osteoblasts: bone forming cells with a mesenchymal origin (form a premineralized matrix)

Osteocytes: bone cells, which are actually encapsulated osteoblasts

Osteoclasts: cells which break down tissue. Hematopoietic in origin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the origin of osteoblasts and osteoclasts

A

Osteoblasts: mesenchymal origin

Osteoclasts: hematopoietic origin (they are kinda like bone macrophages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Osteoblasts are ___-nucleated cells which synthesize ___ matrix. They differentiate in response to a cascade of growth factors and play a role in both bone formation and repair. Osteoblasts do not form complexes, rather they communicate with one another through ___

A

Mono

Osteoid (unmineralized collagen matrix)

Gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How is the osteoid production of osteoblasts similar to odontoblasts?

A

The produce and secrete collagen and non collagenous proteins in vesicles

Also note that they secrete growth factors in osteoid matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

After bone formation, osteoblasts flatten, forming ____ cells

A

Bone lining

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the cells that are osteoblasts which are embedded into the bone matrix and are considered the terminal differentiation of osteoblasts?

A

Osteocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

True or false… osteocytes form interconnected lacunae in the bone tissue. They have cellular processes which interact with surrounding bone tissue: mechano-transduction, coordination of odonto/osteoclast activity and possibly work in conjunction with bone lining cells

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

True or false… osteoclasts are mono nucleated cells that result from fusion of monocytes

A

False. Although they do result from the fusion of monocytes, they are multi-nucleated cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Osteoclasts are responsible for the resorption of bone and are activated in inflammation by ___ and ___

A

IL-1b

TNF-a

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is TRAP and what is it used for? What are TRAP positive cells?

A

Tartrate resistant acid phosphatase

It is a histological marker used to identify osteoclasts

TRAP positive cells are osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe how osteoclasts resorb bone.

A

Osteoclasts attach to the surface of bone by integrin, cytoplasm adjacent to surface is rich in talin, actin, and viniculin (helps form a tight seal).

This creates a ‘ruffled border’ in apposition to bone to form resorption pits (Howship’s lacunae)

Within Howship’s lacunae, osteoclasts secrete hydrogen ions and matrix degrading enzymes to demineralize bone.

The bone matrix undergoes transcytosis through the osteoclast to be released through the opposite side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is lamina limitans?

A

It is the zone between Howship’s lacunae and intact bone. (This is the surface where bone is being degraded by the stuff released from osteoclasts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Osteoblasts and osteoclasts are supplied by ___ cell populations, then differentiate in response to signaling cascades. Bone cell recruitment also results from trigging by ___, ___, and ____.

A

Progenitor

Tissue damage

Inflammation

Repair signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Bone formation is controlled by complex interactions between osteoblasts and osteoclasts through a balance of synthetic and resorptive signals. Osteoblasts regulate osteoclast function through the ____ system. Describe this system.

A

RANK-RANKL-OPG

RANKL- receptor activated nuclear factor kb ligand: osteoblasts

RANK - receptor activated nuclear factor kb: osteoclasts

OPG - osteoprotegerin: produced by osteoblasts, binds RANKL

If RANKL (osteoblasts) binds to RANK (osteoclasts), resorption occurs. If osteoblasts secrete OPG, it binds to RANKL to prevent binding of RANKL to RANK, thus preventing resorption.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

In endochondral formation, bone is formed on a ___ cartilage pattern. It causes ___ cells to condense into ____. When collagen is secreted, it mineralizes and is broken down by ____, allowing penetration of vasculature.

A

Hyaline

Mesenchymal

Chondrocytes

Chondroclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In endochondral formation, once vasculature is formed, ___ cells come which differentiate into ___.

A

Mesenchymal

Osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In endochondral formation, bone matrix surrounds remaining mineralized collagen, forming ____ which make up the ____

A

Mixed spicules

Primary spongiosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In endochondral ossification, osteoclasts gradually remove mineralized cartilage to develop the inner ____. Also, secondary growth centers form in the ___ of some long bones.

A

Marrow cavity

Epiphyses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In intramembranous ossification, mesenchymal cells condense in ____, differentiating into ___ and forming an ossification center. ___ is secreted into the connective tissue matrix and is penetrated by ____, which results of rapid formation of mineralized woven bone. Woven bone is remodeled into mature ___ bone with a collar of cortical bone around it.

A

Fibrous connective tissue

Osteoblasts

Osteoid

Blood vessels

Trabecular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Sutural bone growth is effectively the fusion of skull plates. Sutures are ___ bands between the plates. Inner ___ layer, associated with the ___ ,meets with the outer ___ layer to join the sutures together. The advantage to sutures is that it gives flex to the skull as bone formation proceeds. (Ultimately the sutures are replaced with bone)

A

Fibrous connective tissue

Cambian

Periosteum

Capsular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Bone is continually destroyed and reformed. Children turnover ~___% of their bone per year whereas adults turn over ___% of cortical and ___% trabecular per year

A

30-100

5

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most bone is deposited around the ____ and resorbed from the ____. This allows the marrow cavity to grow in size

A

Periosteum (outside)

Endosteum (inside)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Describe the bone remodeling and repair of cortical bone

A

Primary osteons are replaced by secondary osteons which are replaced by tertiary osteons, allowing bone growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the 4 general phases of tissue repair?

A

Hemostasis: clot formation

Inflammation: infiltration of immune cells and initiation of repair

Reparative phase (proliferation): migration of cells, formation of granulation tissue

Wound contraction and scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is hemostasis? What are its primary and secondary goals?

A

Hemostasis transition of blood from a liquid to a fibrillar gel

Primary goal: stop the bleeding

Secondary goal: initiation of healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

In hemostasis, what leads to the coagulation cascade? Clot unites edges of wound, and the ___ provides a scaffold for future cell migration and repair

A

Disruption of platelets

Fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The clot formed in the oral cavity is different than in other parts of the body. How?

A

It is softer and more easily detached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is primary hemostasis?

A

Vascular constriction and initial platelet plug in a damaged blood vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How is primary hemostasis initiated?

A

Exposure of collagen in ‘subendothelium’ (normally separate from the lumen) to circulate Von Wilebrand Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does Von willebrand factor do in primary hemostasis?

A

Von wilebrand factor causes platelet aggregation by interacting with platelet surface proteins

Note that platelets can also bind collagen directly via GPVI and a2b2 integrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Platelets activate and dump out tons of preformed cytoplasmic vesicles containing ___, ___, ___, and platelet agonists ___ and ___. ___ anchors platelets together

A

More Von willebrand factor

Fibrinogen

Coagulation factors V and XIII

Serotonin

ADP

Fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What does fibrinogen do?

A

Anchors platelets together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

True or false… secondary hemostasis always occurs after primary hemostasis

A

False.. it may occur simultaneously with primary hemostasis or just after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Secondary hemostasis (blood coagulation) is a fairly complex cascade involving extrinsic and intrinsic pathways. Describe each of these pathways

A

Extrinsic: involved tissue factors which are. Not normally found in blood. factor VII and tissue factor interactions (found around(or on) fibroblasts), initiate the cascade.

Intrinsic: involves factors found in the blood. initiated by damaged endothelium (collagen exposure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The ultimate goal of secondary hemostasis is to convert ___ into ___ which in turn converts soluble ___ into insoluble ___. Many of the steps involved in secondary hemostasis involve ___.

A

Prothrombin into thrombin

Fibrinogen into fibrin

Calcium

Fibrin cross-links to form a mesh, trapping red and white cells, resulting in a clot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which, the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway of blood coagulation involves factor VIII?

A

Intrinsic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In the reparative phase of hemostasis, ____ of adjacent cells occurs (epithelium). This will allow epithelial cell migration, which is…

Cell migration under fibrin clot occurs which creates a highly cellular ___ tissue

A

Mobilization

Epithelial cell migration: formation of new basal lamina, redistribution of integrin receptors, and formation of new hemidesmosomes. Eventually this forms a thin cover over the wound

Granulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In the reparative phase, local and recruited ____proliferate in the wound. ___ production begins to fill the defect, forming a scaffold.

A

Fibroblasts

Collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In the reparative phase, endothelial cells proliferate and angiogenesis occurs. This occurs due to what three signaling factors?

A

TGF-b

VEGF

FGF-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are myofibroblasts? What are they involved in?

A

They are specialized fibroblasts with increased actin and myosin that function to close the wound

They align around wound, form cell junctions, and attach to connective tissue fibril around wound and draw wound edges together

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

True or false… generally, there is no scarring of oral mucosa

A

True. But no one really knows why

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In periodontal disease bacteria induce inflammation at gingival margins, causing destruction of connective tissues. The formation of pocket epithelium occurs due to…

A

Apical migration of junctional epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

___ can arrest the spread of infection into periodontal tissues

A

Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

If the source of inflammation in periodontal disease is removed, the ___ stimulates reattachment of connective tissues

A

Fibrin clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Pockets of about __mm or less can regain attachment

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

True or false… the repair mechanism of the PDL is basically the same as skin

A

True, however immediate remodeling of collagen by ligament fibroblasts = no scarring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In guided tissue regeneration, what is the purpose of using a membrane?

A

To prevent epithelial invasion, to allow connective tissue reattachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are the three primary zones of dental caries?

A

1) surface and body: surface zone re-mineralizes, body is the primary zone of demineralization
2) dark zone: zone of increasing demineralization
3) translucent zone: leading edge, caused by micro-pores which form in the enamel rod boundaries.

Note that caries are dynamic: continual de-mineralization and re-mineralization, but a net loss of demineralization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Reactionary dentin is formed due to a ___ stimulus while reparative dentin is formed due to a ___ stimulus

A

Mild

Strong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the dentin bridge?

A

Dentin formed between surviving dentin and restorative material, providing a tighter seal and preventing micro-leakage

65
Q

What is the goal of tissue engineering? What are the 3 key components in tissue engineering?

A

Encourage the restoration of function and structure to a pre-injury state

Cell source

Material

Bioactive component

66
Q

Fibrous joins generally permit very little movement. Name there locations in which fibrous joints are found

A

Sutures (skull)

Tooth socket (gomphosis)

Syndesmosis: immovable connective tissue holding bones together (tibia and fibula)

67
Q

Cartilaginous joints, permit very little movement. Name two types of cartilaginous joints

A

Primary cartilaginous joints (synchondroses): bone and cartilage in direct apposition (sternocostal junction)

Secondary cartilaginous joints (symphysis): fibrous tissue internally in the joint

68
Q

What are synovial joints?

A

Allow movement

Consist of capsule filed with synovial fluid in a synovial membrane

Movement of bones relative to one another facilitated by muscle, takes place within a capsule

69
Q

What kind of a joint is the TMJ?

A

Synovial sliding-ginglymoid joint

70
Q

The TMJ articulation is composed of the ____ of the mandible and the ____ of the ___ bone of the skull.

A

Condyle

Glenoid fossa

Temporal

71
Q

The anterior boundary of the glenoid fossa is the ____ which allows the condyle to slide over in front of it when the jaw opens

A

Articulator eminence

This allows the condyle to rotate and translate in various ways

72
Q

The synovial cavity is divided into two compartments by the ____, forming an upper joint cavity adjacent to the ____, and a lower joint cavity adjacent to the ___

A

Articular disk

Glenoid fossa

Condyle

73
Q

Why is the articular disk not considered a distinct structure?

A

It is effectively an extension of the synovial capsule. The disk runs between two bones, but then flares outwards in sheets, attaching to both the condyle and glenoid fossa, enveloping the joint.

74
Q

The mandible forms by ___ ossification and is associated with ___

A

Intramembranous

Meckel’s cartilage

75
Q

Meckel’s cartilage forms the ___ directly and articulates with the ___. This actually forms a ____, before the development of the condyle and temporal joint. The articulation between the temporal bone forms the TMJ or ___

A

Malleus

Incus

Primary joint (fetus TMJ)

Secondary joint

76
Q

The articular surfaces of the TMJ are covered with ___ as opposed to ___

A

Fibrous connective tissue

Hyaline cartilage

77
Q

What is the lamina splendens?

A

The fibrous covering of the condyle. It is mostly avascular and is composed of type 1 cartilage with smattering of fibroblasts scattered around.

78
Q

Which has a thicker fibrous layer on the surface, the glenoid fossa or articular eminence? Why?

A

The articular eminence is overlaid by a much thicker fibrous layer because the condyle slides over the articular eminence a lot, while the glenoid fossa simply allows the condyle to rest in place

79
Q

True or false… while there is not cartilage associated with the articular surfaces of the joint proper, some is found deeper into the condyle and articular eminence. These layers of cartilage have a proliferative layer of chondroclasts which secrete ECM containing type 2 collagen

A

True

80
Q

Once the chondroblasts are entombed, they form ____ which undergo partial ___ ossification, leaving only a bit of fibrocartilage. Typically the ___ ossifies before the ___

A

Hypertrophic condrocytes

Endochondral

Articular eminence

Condyle

81
Q

For the most part, the mandible is formed by ___ ossification, but the condyle is also formed by ___ ossification. Why is this significant?

A

Intramembranous

Endochondral

This is significant because it allows possible remodeling of the joint during growth to accommodate wear or various pathologies

82
Q

True or false.. in the TMJ the hypertrophic zone of cartilage calcifies overtime to be replaced by bone

A

True

83
Q

The joint capsule has thickened regions which branch out to form the ____ which is the most important for restricting ___ and ___ movement when the joint articulates.

A

Temporomandibular ligament

Lateral

Medial

84
Q

The temporomandibular ligament restricts movement in what three planes?

A

Medial-lateral

Superior-inferior

Posteriorly

85
Q

Name two other ligaments associated with limiting inferior movement of the TMJ during opening

A

Sphenomandibular ligament

Stylomandibular ligament

86
Q

True or false.. the articular disk is totally continuous with the joint capsule. It is simply an inward branch of it

A

True

87
Q

The articular disk is a dense ___ structure, and forms a surface for the head of the condyle to slide along when the jaw opens. A ___ fiber network overlays fibroblasts cells

A

Fibrous

Collagen

88
Q

The articular disk is bound very tightly to the surface of the ___, matching the contour of its surface

A

Condyle

89
Q

The articular disk is thicker ___ and ___, leaving the condyle to rest on the thinner ___ section when the jaw is closed

A

Anteriorly

Posteriorly

Middle

90
Q

True or false… the inner portion of the articular disk is avascular and has no nerves

A

True

91
Q

The joint capsule is lined by the ___ and contains a number of folds which form villi projecting into the joint cavity

A

Synovial membrane

92
Q

What are the two layers of the synovial membrane?

A

Subintima: layer of loose connective tissue containing elastin fibers and supporting vasculature. It contains various cells including macrophages, adipocytes, fibroblasts, and mast cells. It is continous with the fibrous tissue of the capsule

Intima: innermost layer. Contains several layers of synovial cells which are A cells (resemble macrophages) or B cells (resemble fibroblasts, producing proteins found in the synovial fluid)

93
Q

What is synovial fluid?

A

Blood plasma containing extra proteins and proteoglycans

94
Q

What are the four muscles of mastication?

A

Masseter

Medial pterygoid

Lateral pterygoid

Temporalis

95
Q

True or false.. salivary glands can be found in the gingiva

A

False

96
Q

Name three functions of oral mucosa

A

Protection: separates and protects deeper tissue and organs from oral environment

Sensation: temperature, touch, pain, taste. Reflexes such as swallowing and gagging

Secretion: saliva

97
Q

The two layers that make up mucosa are the epithelium and lamina propria. What type of epithelium is found in oral mucosa? What is the tissue called that underlies the epithelium?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

Lamina propria

98
Q

What four things does the oral mucosa line?

A

Oral cavity

Palate

Tongue

Alveolar bone

(It lines all oral surfaces except for the teeth)

99
Q

What are the three variations of keratinaztion in the oral mucosa?

A

Nonkeratinized

Orthokeratinized (no nuclei on surface layer)

Parakeratinized (some nuclei on surface layer)

100
Q

What are the two layers that make up the lamina propria?

A

Papillary

Reticular

101
Q

Complete lack of stratum granulosum indicates it is __-keratinized. A weak stratum granulosum indicates it is __-keratinized. A well defined granulosum indicates it is ___-keratinized

A

Non

Para

Ortho

102
Q

Name three structures found in the oral mucosa

A

Prominent basal lamina separating epithelium and lamina propria

Keratohyaline granules

Virtual lack of langerhans cells (making the mucosa susceptible to potential allergies)

103
Q

What is the function of the lamina propria? Describe its two layers.

A

Functions as mechanical support to the epithelium and carries blood vessels and nerves

Papillary layer - directly under epithelium, loose CT (more cells)

Reticular layer - dense CT fibrous layer located under papillary layer

104
Q

The oral mucosa of the __- has a thinner lamina propria than the outer surface of the ___

A

Cheek

Lip

105
Q

The ___ mucosa has the thinnest epithelium of the oral cavity, making it great for drug delivery

A

Sublingual

106
Q

___ mucosa has small rete pegs whereas the ____ has tall rete pegs

A

Alveolar

Gingiva

107
Q

Name 6 locations in which you will find lining oral mucosa (non-keratinized)

A

Lips

Cheeks

Floor of mouth

Alveolar mucosa

Soft palate

Ventral tongue

108
Q

Name two locations in which you will find masticatory mucosa (keratinized)

A

Gingiva

Hard palate

(Dorsal tongue is considered both masticatory and specialized mucosa)

109
Q

What is the mucocutaneous junction? What are three zones associated with it?

A

A transition area between the skin and the oral mucosa

Vermillion border - line separating vermillion zone and skin

Vermillion zone - thin, keratinized epithelium. Long CT papillae. Numerous capillary loops in papillae

Intermediate zone - between vermillion zone and labial mucosa. Parakeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

110
Q

True or false.. sulcular epithelium has well defined rete pegs and is keratinized

A

False. Sulcular epithelium lining the gingival sulcus is nonkeratinized, thinner, and lacks prominent rete pegs. This explains why it bleeds so easily

111
Q

What are the boundaries of the attached gingiva?

A

Free gingival groove (coronally) to the mucogingival junction (apically)

112
Q

Describe the tissue found in the col.

A

The col is a depression located in the center of the interdental papilla.

It is nonkeratinized*** stratified squamous epithelium

113
Q

True or false… when the gingiva is inflamed, the col appears to have a greater concavity

A

True

114
Q

What is the structure called that is a ridge that runs through the midline of the hard palate?

A

Palatine raphe

115
Q

Where are the fatty areas found in the hard palate?

A

Posterior lateral of the hard palate

Also anterior lateral area

116
Q

What is the mucoperiosteum?

A

Lamina propria attached directly to the underlying bone. No submucosa

117
Q

True or false… rugae of the anterior hard palate can cross the median raphe.

A

False

118
Q

The incisive papilla is made up of dense CT and is remnant of the _____

A

Nasopalatine ducts

119
Q

Where are the minor salivary glands found in the hard palate?

A

Posterolateral

120
Q

What are the four different papillae of the tongue? Describe them

A

Filiform - most numerous, no taste buds, cover entire dorsal tongue

Fungiform - mushroom shaped, scattered over anterior tongue, taste buds found on dorsal surface of papillae

Folate - located on posteriolateral border. Parallel ridges with furrows. Taste buds located within furrows.

Circumvallate - largest in size. Located along sulcus terminalis. Surrounded by a trench (Von ebner’s glands). Taste buds located on lateral surface of papilla

121
Q

How many different types of sensory cells are found within taste buds?

A

4

122
Q

What is the dentogingival junction and what are its two components?

A

Junction between attached gingiva and tooth

Two components: junctional epithelium and epithelial attachement

123
Q

What is the junctional epithelium?

A

Forms floor of gingival sulcus

Extends apically along root to form a seal

Derived from REE

Unique characteristics

124
Q

What is the epithelial attachment?

A

Its the “glue”

Basal lamina-like material

Enamel cuticle from protective ameloblasts

Hemidesmosomes in junctional epithelium attach to this structure

125
Q

What two locations of gingiva is non-keratinized?

A

Col

Junctional epithelium

126
Q

True or false… the inner lining of the gingival sulcus is structurally different than the junctional epithelium

A

True

127
Q

True or false… rete pegs in the sulcus indicate health

A

False!! Healthy sulcus should NOT have rete pegs. Rete pegs indicate inflammation

128
Q

How are cells of the sulcular epithelium joined together?

A

Desmosomes

129
Q

True or false… the connective tissue supporting the junctional epithelium is different than that under gingiva and sulcular epithelium

A

True

This difference allows junctional epithelium to maintain hemidesmosomes on both surfaces

130
Q

Gingival and sulcular epithelium mature due to ___, ___ influences

A

Superficial, instructive

131
Q

Junctional epithelium does not mature because of the ___, ___ influences

A

Deeper, permissive

This allows hemidesmosomes to be maintained on BOTH surfaces of the epithelium

132
Q

True or false… in the gingival epithelium, it is NOT supported by CT, thus does not contain inflammatory cells. However, the sulcular and JE IS supported by CT and contains inflammatory cells

A

True

133
Q

The JE is unable to proliferate without ____ cells. Recruitment of these cells and proliferation results in __ migration of the epithelium to cause ____

A

Inflammatory

Apical

Periodontal pocket formation and recession of attachment level

134
Q

Impetigo is typically caused by what two pathogens?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

Streptococcus pyogenes

135
Q

What pathogens cause tonsillitis and pharyngitis?

A

Majority caused by viruses

Group a beta-hemolytic streptococci, influenza, Epstein Barr virus

136
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of tonsillitis and pharyngitis ?

A

Sore throat

Dysphagia

Tonsillar hyperplasia

Fever, headache, others.

137
Q

What is the best way to diagnose streptococcal pharyngitis? What is its treatment? What are its sequelae (what could happen if you dont treat it)?

A

Throat culture

Penicillin

Scarlet fever, rheumatic fever (rheumatic heart disease and acute glomerulonephritis)

138
Q

What causes scarlet fever? What are its oral features?

A

Disseminated Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection

Oral features: first two days: white strawberry tongue. 4-5 days - red strawberry tongue with hyper plastic fungiform papillae

139
Q

Diphtheria is caused by ____. ___ are the sole reservoir. It affects ___ tissues first. It causes tissue ___ and ___ complications due to a lethal exotoxin produced by the bacteria

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

Humans

Mucosal

Necrosis

Cardiac

140
Q

What is a chanker?

A

Inoculation site of syphilis

141
Q

True or false… syphilis ulcers are typically nonpainful

A

True

142
Q

Syphilis is caused by ____ primarily through __ contact and from mother to fetus. It is 6x more common in ___ and ____.

A

Treponema pallidum (its a spirochete)

Sexual

Men and American americans

143
Q

Chancres are associated with ___ syphilis and develop ___ days after inoculation.

A

Primary

3-90

144
Q

What is gumma?

A

Characteristic; scattered foci of granulomatous inflammation (its a type of necrosis)

Intraoral lesions usually affect the palate or tongue

145
Q

Gonorrhea is caused by ____ due to ___ contact. What are its signs and symptoms?

A

Neisseria gonnorhoeae

Sexual

Purulent discharge, dysuria

146
Q

What is a scrofula? What causes it?

A

Lymphadenopathy of the neck

Usually a result of mycobacterium

147
Q

Multibacillary leprosy can cause collapse of the ___

A

Bridge of the nose

148
Q

Leprosy is caused by ___. It has __ infectivity.

A

Mycobacterium leprae

Low

149
Q

What are the first symptoms of leprosy? What are some symptoms as the disease progresses?

A

First symptoms: numbness and loss of temperature sensation

As the disease progresses: the sensations of touch and pain and deep pressure are decreased or lost

150
Q

What is a host for leprosy?

A

Armadillos

This is why Texas is an endemic area

151
Q

Actinomycosis is caused by ___. Colonization can occur in ___ patients. ___% of cases of actinomycosis are diagnosed in the ___ region. The treatment is ____

A

Actinomyces israelii

Healthy patients

55

Cervicofacial

Long-term, high dose antibiotics

152
Q

Actinomycosis results in a ____ reaction of infection which may result in a discharge of ___ material. This represents colonies of bacteria termed ____

A

Suppurative

Yellow

Sulfur granules

153
Q

What is the histopathology of actinomyces?

A

Club-shaped filaments that form a radiating pattern and are surrounded by neutrophils

154
Q

Cat-scratch disease is caused by ____. It begins in the ___ and classically spreads to adjacent ___. It is the most common cause of chronic regional ___ in children. 80% of cases occur in patients younger than ___

A

Bartonella henselae

Skin

Lymph nodes

Lymphadenopathy

21

155
Q

Candidiasis is caused by ___. It is considered ___ because it exists in two forms: ___ form which is ___, and ___ form which causes ___

A

Candida albicans

Dimorphic

Yeast - innocuous

Hypha - invasion of host tissue

156
Q

What is by far the most common oral fungal infection in human? Up to ___% carry the organism in their mouth with health (rate ___ with age).

A

Candida albicans

50

Increases

Note that mostly opportunistic pathogen, but infections may still develop in healthy patients

157
Q

Aspergillosis noninvasive affects a normal host because it can cause an ___ reaction due to ___

A

Allergic

Mass of fungal hyphae

158
Q

Localized invasive aspergillosis can occur in a ___ host while extensive involvement with a ____ host

A

Normal healthy

Immunocompromised

159
Q

What is the second most common fungal infection to candidiasis? What are the two most common species?

A

Aspergillosis

A. Fumigatus

A. Flavus

Oral Biology (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions