Series 65 Flashcards

1
Q

Investment Act of 1940

A

The Investment Advisers Act of 1940 was enacted to protect the public by requiring those who provide investment advice for compensation to register as advisers with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC).

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2
Q

The 3 criteria that must be present to require registration as an investment adviser

A
  1. Giving advice about securities
  2. Being in the business of giving that advice
  3. Being compensated for that advice
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3
Q

Exemptions from registration as an IA under the Investment Act of 1940

A

Banks, or bank holding companies
Professionals, such as lawyers, accountants, teachers, etc., whose advice is incidental to their profession and who receive no special compensation for making recommendations
Publishers of bona fide newspapers, magazines or financial publications of a general and regular circulation
Government securities advisers
Broker-dealers and their registered representatives whose advisery services are incidental to the securities business and who receive no special compensation for making recommendations
IAs whose clients are all residents of the state of the IA’s principal office and who do not provide advice on securities traded on any national exchange
IAs whose only clients are insurance companies
IAs who qualify for the private-adviser exemption (i.e., less than 15 clients, do not hold themselves out to the public as investment advisers and do not advise registered investment companies)
You can expect at least one question on the “out of state” clients

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4
Q

preferred stock

A

also represents equity ownership in a corporation, but usually does not have the same voting rights or appreciation potential

Normally pays a fixed quarterly dividend

Has priority claims over common stock

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5
Q

Capital appreciation

A

Increase in the market price of securities

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6
Q

dividend yield

A

Annual dividend/stock price

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7
Q

Rights of stockholders

A

Common stockholders have the right to vote for corporate directors

Stock is freely transferable to anyone who wants to buy it or receive it as a gift

A right to limited access to the corporation’s books

The right to receive an audited set of financial statements of the company’s performance each year (annual statement)

Usually have preemptive right to maintain their proportionate share of ownership in the corporation

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8
Q

Limited liability of equity ownership

A

One is personally at risk only for the amount invested

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9
Q

Risks of equity ownership

A

Market risk

Decreased or no income

Low priority at dissolution

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10
Q

Benefits of equity ownership

A

Potential capital appreciation

Income from dividends

Hedge against inflation

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11
Q

Preferred stock

A
Is an equity security because it represents a class of ownership in the issuing corporation
Shares characteristics with a debt security
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12
Q

Rate of return on a preferred stock

A

Is fixed rather than subject to variation as with common stock. As a result, its price tends to fluctuate with changes in interest rates rather with the issuing company’s business prospects unless, dramatic changes occur in the company’s ability to pay dividends (called interest rate or money rate risk)

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13
Q

Voting rights of preferred stock

A

Unlike common stock, most preferred stock is nonvoting.

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14
Q

Benefits of preferred stock

A

Less growth potential than common stocks, but preferred stockholders must be paid prior to common stockholders
Fixed dividend is a key feature for income-oriented investors
Prior claim over common stockholders, but after debt holders in event of bankruptcy
Has no preset maturity date so it functions like a perpetual security

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15
Q

Straight (noncumulative) preferred stock

A

Has no special features beyond the stated dividend payment. Missed dividends are not paid to the holder

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16
Q

Cumulative preferred stock

A

Accrues payments due its shareholders in the event dividends are reduced or suspended
Dividends in arrears must be paid to preferred stockholders before any dividends are paid to common stockholders
Because of this unique feature found only with cumulative preferred stock, an investor seeking steady income would find this to be most suitable type of preferred stock

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17
Q

Callable (or redeemable) preferred stock

A

Company can buy back stock from investors at a stated price after a specified date. The right to call the stock allows the company to replace a relatively high fixed dividend obligation with a lower one when the cost of money has gone down.

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18
Q

Convertible preferred stock

A

Allows the owner to exchange the shares for a fixed number of common stock shares. Because the value of a convertible preferred stock is linked to the value of the common stock, the convertible preferred’ s price tends to fluctuate in line with the common. Generally issued with a lower stated dividend.

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19
Q

Adjustable (variable) rate preferred stock

A

Usually tied to the rates of other interest rate benchmarks (e.g. T-bills and money market rates). Because the payment adjusts to current interest rates, the price of the stock remains relatively stable. For investors looking for income through preferred stocks, this would be their least appropriate choice.

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20
Q

Risks of owning preferred stock

A

As a fixed income security, there is no inflation protection
As a fixed income security, when interest rates rise, the value of preferred shares decline
As an equity security, there is the risk that dividends may be skipped
As an equity security, all creditors except for common stockholders have prior claim

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21
Q

Benefits of preferred stock

A

Fixed income from dividends
Prior claim ahead of common stock
Convertible preferred sacrifices income in exchange for potential appreciation

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22
Q

Preferred stock risks

A

Market risks
Possible loss of purchasing power
Interest rate risk
Business difficulties risk- e.g. bankruptcy

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23
Q

American Depositary Receipts (ADRs)

A

Are negotiable securities that represent a receipt for shares of stock in non-US corporation usually from 1-10 shares. Everything is done in English and in US dollars. Most common stockholder rights apply to ADR owners.

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24
Q

Currency risk for ADR owners

A

In addition to normal stock ownership risks, ADR investors are subject to currency risk. ADRs are issued by domestic branches of American banks and even though they are traded in US dollars, they still bear currency risk

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25
Q

Custodian bank

A

Domestic branch of large US commercial banks issue ADRs. A custodian, typically in the issuer’s country, holds the shares of foreign stock that the ADRs represent. The stock must remain on deposit as long as the ADRs are outstanding because the ADRs are the depositary bank’s guarantee that it holds the stock

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26
Q

Custodian bank

A

Domestic branch of large US commercial banks issue ADRs. A custodian, typically in the issuer’s country, holds the shares of foreign stock that the ADRs represent. The stock must remain on deposit as long as the ADRs are outstanding because the ADRs are the depositary bank’s guarantee that it holds the stock

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27
Q

Registered owner

A

ADRs are registered on the books of the US banks responsible for them. The individual investors in the ADRs are not the stock’s registered owners.

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28
Q

Taxes and ADRS

A

Although portions of ADRs may be withheld to pay local taxes, owners of ADRs can claim a US tax credit for these withholdings.

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29
Q

Emerging Markets

A

Markets in lesser developed countries associated with:

· Low levels of income, as measured by the country’s GDP
· Low levels of equity capitalization
· Questionable market liquidity
· Potential restrictions on currency conversion
· High volatility
· Prospects for economic growth and development
· Stabilizing political and social institutions
· High taxes and commission costs for foreign investor
· Restrictions on foreign ownership and on foreign currency conversion
· Lower regulatory standards resulting in a lack of transparency

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30
Q

Developed markets

A

Highly developed markets with stable political and social institutions that are characterized by:

· Large levels of equity capitalization
· Low commission rates
· Few, if any, currency conversion restrictions
· Highly liquid markets with many brokerage institutions and market makers
· Many large capitalization securities
· Well-defined regulatory schemes leading to transparency similar to that enjoyed by those investing in US securities

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31
Q

Reasons for investing in foreign securities

A

· Expanded potential investment universe
· Foreign securities sometimes outperform domestic ones
· Low correlation with domestic securities which results in a reduction of overall portfolio risk

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32
Q

Unique foreign securities risks

A

Country risk

· Exchange controls

· Withholding, fees, and taxes

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33
Q

Country Risk

A

A composite of all the risks of investing in a particular country. These may include political risks, such as revolutions or military coups, and structural risks such as confiscatory policies toward profits, capital gains, and dividends. Economic policies, interest rates, and inflation are also elements of risk of investing in emerging countries.

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34
Q

Exchange controls

A

Foreign investors can also be subject to restrictions on currency conversion or movement

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35
Q

Withholding, Fees and Taxes

A

Some foreign countries may withhold a portion of dividends and capital gains for taxes. Some also impose heavy fees and taxes on securities that the investor must bear in addition to generally higher brokerage commissions.

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36
Q

Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs)

A

· Normally own commercial property (equity REITs)

· Own mortgages on commercial property (mortgage REITs)

· Do both (hybrid REITs)

REITs are organized as trusts in which investors buy shares of certificates of beneficial interest either on stock exchanges or over the counter.

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37
Q

Subchapter M

A

Under the guidelines of Subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code, a REIT can avoid being taxed as a corporation by receiving 75% or more of its income from real estate and distributing 90% or more of its taxable income to the shareholders.

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38
Q

Four Important points to remember about REITs

A

An owner of REITs holds an undivided interest in a pool of real estate investments

· REITs trade on exchanges and over the counter

· REITS are not investment companies (mutual funds)

· REITs offer dividends and gains to investors but do not pass through losses like limited partnerships are therefore are not considered to be direct participation programs (DPPs)

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39
Q

Advantages of REITs

A

· Opportunity to invest in real estate without the degree of liquidity risk found in direct ownership

· A negative correlation to the general stock market

· Reasonable income and/or capital appreciation

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40
Q

Risks of REITs

A

Because the investor has no control, much of the risk in investing in REITs has to do with the quality of the management

· Problem loans in the portfolio could cause income and/or capital to decrease

· Dividends are not considered qualified for purposes of 15% maximum tax rate and are taxed at full ordinary income rates

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41
Q

Rights and Warrants

A

Rights and warrants allow investors to buy additional shares of stock under defined circumstances. Preferred stockholders do not have the right to subscribe to rights offerings.

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42
Q

Preemptive rights

A

Entitle existing common stockholders to maintain the proportionate ownership shares in a company by buying newly issues shares before the company offers them to the general public. Preferred stockholders do not have the right to subscribe to rights offerings.

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43
Q

Rights offering

A

Allows stockholders to purchase common stock below the current market price. The rights are valued separately from the stock and trade in the secondary market during the subscription period.

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44
Q

Stockholders who receive rights may:

A

· Exercise the rights to buy stock by sending the rights certificates and a check for the required amount to the rights agent

· Sell the rights and profit from their market value (rights certificates are negotiable securities)

· Let the rights expire and lose their value

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45
Q

Warrants

A

Certificates granting its owner the right to purchase securities from the issuer at a specified price, normally higher than the current market price. Unlike a right, a warrant is usually a long-term instrument that gives the investor the option of buying shares at a later date at the exercise price.

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46
Q

Origination of warrants

A

Warrants are usually offered to the public as sweeteners in connection with other securities, such as debentures or preferred stock, to make those securities more attractive. Such offerings are often bundled as units.

Because the value of rights and warrants is dependent upon the value of the underlying stock into which the right or warrant may be exchanged, these are considered derivatives.

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47
Q

Employee stock options

A

Give an employee the right to purchase a specified number of shares of the employer’s common stock at a stated price over a stated time period. For publicly traded stock, the “strike” price is usually the market price of the stock at the time the option is granted. There is usually a vesting period. 2 types of plans: nonqualified stock options & incentive stock options

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48
Q

Nonqualified stock options (NSOs)

A

Most common type of employee stock options. NSOs are treated as compensation. When NSOs are exercise, the difference between the current market price at the time of the exercise and the strike price is reported as wages on the tax returns of the ER and the EE. Therefore, instead of capital gains treatment, the EE is taxed as ordinary income while the ER receives a tax deduction as a salary expense for the difference between the current market price and the strike price.. Because the spread between the market price and the strike price is considered salary, it is subject to payroll taxes as well as income tax.

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49
Q

Incentive stock options (ISOs)

A

Generally no tax consequences for ER. As long as stock purchased through exercise of an ISO is held at least 2 years after the date of grant and one year after the date of exercise, any profits are reported as long-term capital gains. If these time limits are broached, the ISO is taxed like an NSO. There is one other time stipulation- a maximum 1o-year limit for exercise. When and ISO is exercised, the difference between the market value at time of purchase and the strike price is a preference item used in calculating the Alternative Minimum Tax (AMT).

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50
Q

Things to remember about ISOs

A

No income recognized when option is granted

· NO tax due when option is exercised

· Tax is due when stock is sold

o Gain is capital if held at least one year and sold at least two years after grant

o Otherwise-ordinary income

· Difference between option price and the FMV on date of exercise is an add back for AMT purposes

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51
Q

Debt capital

A

Debt capital refers to long term financing. Long term debt (also called funded debt) is money borrowed for a minimum of 5 years.

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52
Q

Municipal bonds

A

Largest issuer of debt securities is the US government. Government bonds usually mean federal government. Municipal bonds usually means state or other municipality.

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53
Q

4 key questions for lender

A

How much am I lending

  1. How safe is my loan and how sure am I that I will get my money back?
  2. How much interest will I be paid for the use of my money?
  3. How and when will I get my money back?
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54
Q

Par value

A

For common stock, par value is of no importance to the investor. With preferred stock, par value is the number on which the dividend is based. Par value is even more important with bonds because not only does it represent what the interest payment is based on, but it also represents the amount of principal to be repaid at maturity.

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55
Q

Mortgage Bonds

A

If the corporation develops financial problems and is unable to pay the interest on the bonds, those real assets pledged as collateral are generally sold to pay off the mortgage bondholders.

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56
Q

Equipment Trust Certificate

A

Similar to car loan. When the corporation has finished paying off the loan it receives clear title to its equipment from the trustee. If the company does not make the payments, the lender repossesses the collateral and sells it for his benefit.

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57
Q

Debenture

A

Is a debt obligation of the corporation backed only by its word and general creditworthiness. Debentures are not secured by any pledge of property. They are sold on the general credit of the company.

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58
Q

Guaranteed bonds

A

Is a bond that is guaranteed as to payment of interest or both principal and interest, by a corporate entity other than the issuer. The value of the guarantee is only as good as the strength of the company making that guarantee.

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59
Q

Senior

A

Means the relative priority of claim of a security. Every preferred stock has a senior claim to common stock. Every debt security has a senior claim to preferred stock. Secured bonds have a senior claim to unsecured bonds. The term senior securities means bonds and preferred stock, because they have a claim senior to common stock. Mortgage and equipment trust certificates have prior claim ahead of unsecured creditors.

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60
Q

Subordinated

A

A subordinated debenture has a claim that is behind (junior to) that of any other creditor. However, no matter how subordinated the debenture, it is still senior to any stockholder.

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61
Q

Liquidation priority

A

Wages earned up to 180 days prior to employer’s declaration of bankruptcy

· Taxes

· Secured creditors (e.g. mortgage bonds, equipment trust certificates, collateral trust bonds)

· Unsecured creditors (e.g. general creditors including debenture holders)

· Subordinated debt holders

· Preferred stockholders

· Common stockholders

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62
Q

Taxation of payment to recipient

A

· Common stock- taxable as dividend in most cases

· Preferred stock- taxable as dividend in most cases

· Bonds- taxable as ordinary income in most cases

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63
Q

General obligation bonds (GOs)

A

Backed by pledge of the issuer’s full faith and credit for prompt payment of principal and interest

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64
Q

Revenue bond

A

Payable from the earnings of a revenue –producing enterprise, such as a water, sewer, electric or gas system, toll bridge, airport, college dormitory, etc.

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65
Q

US Treasury Bills (T-bills)

A

Are the direct debt obligations of the US Treasury with the following characteristics:

· They pay semiannual interest as a percentage of the state par value

· They have intermediate maturities (2,3,4,7,and 10 years)

· They mature at par value

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66
Q

US Treasury Bonds

A

· Pay semiannual interest as a percentage of the state par value

· Have long-term maturities, generally 10-30 years

· Older 30-year bonds are usually callable at par beginning 25 years after issue. However, the last callable 30-yuear bond was issued in November 1984

· They mature at par value

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67
Q

Treasury Inflation Protection Securities (TIPs)

A

Help protect investors against purchasing power risk. These notes are issued with a fixed interest rate, but the principal amount is adjusted semiannually by an amount equal to the Consumer Price Index (CPI). They are issued in maturities of 5, 10, and 30 years.. The investor receives interest payments every six months with the newly adjusted principal reflecting inflation and deflation. Like other Treasury notes, they are subject to federal taxes, but exempt from state and local taxes.

TIPS adjust the principal every 6 months to account for the inflation rate. Therefore, the real rate of return will always be the coupon.

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68
Q

Taxation on federal securities

A

· Subject to federal taxes

· Exempt from state and local taxes

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69
Q

US Federal Securities

A

Are issued by US government agencies that have been authorized by Congress to issue debt securities
Do not have direct Treasury backing
Considered moral obligations of the US government
Most agency bonds are described by their titles
2 principal US government agencies that issue debt securities are the Federal Farm Credit Banks & the Federal Home Loan Bank (FHLB)

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70
Q

Federal Land Banks

A

Are supervised by the Farm Credit Administration. FLBs through Federal Land Bank associations, make loans secured by mortgages to farmers and ranchers

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71
Q

Federal Intermediate Credit Bank

A

The FICB consists of 12 banks authorized to make loans to farmers for expenses, machinery, and livestock. The loans are intermediate term, running no longer than 10 years

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72
Q

Banks for Cooperatives

A

Are operated under the Farn Credir Administration. These banks make loans to farm cooperatives.

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73
Q

Federal Home Loan Banks

A

Operating under the supervision of the Federal Home Loan Bank board, FHLB is the agency that stands behind the nation’s savings & loans. The FHLB lends to members S&Ls to augment the money these S&Ls receive from their regular depositors.

FHLB borrows money in the open market by issuing various debt securities, then relents it to S&Ls who relend it to home buyers

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74
Q

Federal Home Loan Association (FNMA) Fannie Mae

A

Was a government owned corporation that was converted to a private corporation in 1968. Is commons trades on NYSE. FNMA purchases & sells mortgages- primarily those insured by Federal Housing Authority (FHA) or guaranteed by the Veterans Administration.

FNMA issues mortgage-backed bonds that can be purchased by individual investors. Considered to be quite safe.
Issued at par and pay semiannual interest
Like other federal issues, they come out in book entry forms
FNMA interest is subject to state and local taxation

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75
Q

Government National Mortgage Association (GNMA) Ginnie Mae

A

In late 1960s when the FNMA was split into 2 corporations (FNMA- privately owned & GNMA- publicly owned)
GNMAs are known as modified pass-through certificates
They represent an interest in pools of FHA insured mortgages and VA or Farmer Home Administration guaranteed mortgages

Carry a minimum denomination of $25,000

Unlike other agencies, they are backed by full faith and credit of US government
GNMA interest is subject to state and local taxation

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76
Q

Pass-through securities (GNMA)

A

Means that as homeowners make their monthly mortgage payments , these payments are collected in the pool and the shares pass through to the investor.
Payment differs from most other securities in 2 respects
1. Payments are received monthly because mortgages are paid monthly
2. Each payment the investment receives consists partly of principal and partly of interest

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77
Q

Unrated bonds

A

The issuer does not want to pay for the cost of receiving the rating

The issuer does not have a sufficient credit history to enable the rather to make a fair judgment

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78
Q

High-yield bonds

A

Volatility is usually substantially higher

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79
Q

Prime rate

A

The rate charged by major banks to their most creditworthy customers

In order for the bank to enjoy a real rate of return, nominal interest rates must be above the rate of inflation

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80
Q

Yield spread

A

Difference between yields on bonds with the same maturity,, but different quality (rating) to get a sense of the market sentiment.
It tends to widen when economic conditions sour and narrow when conditions improve

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81
Q

Nominal yield (coupon rate)

A

Rate stated on the face of the bond

Also referred to as coupon rate

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82
Q

Current yield (current return)

A

Return (annual interest in dollars)/investment

Also called current return

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83
Q

Bond discount and premium

A

When a bond is selling at a price above par, it is selling at a premium
When a bond is selling at a price below par, it is selling at a discount

If you pay more, you get less
If you pay less, you get more

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84
Q

Yield to maturity or basis

A

Current market price of bond Is determined by supply and demand

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85
Q

Taxability of Municipal bonds

A

Interest is free from federal income taxes, and if the investor resides in the issuer’s state, it is free from state tax as well.

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86
Q

Tax equivalent yield (TEY)

A

Yield/100-tax rate= tax equivalent yield (TEY) for municipal bonds
Coupon/ 100-tax rate

The tax equivalent yield for a municipal bond issued by an entity within a state with a state income tax will have a other equivalent yield to a resident of that state due to the “double” tax exemption

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87
Q

Corporate and municipal bond pricing

A

Corporate & municipal bonds are quoted as a percentage of par
Each bond point represents $10, and the fractions are in eighths

90 1/4 = $902.50

101 3/4 = $1,017.50

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88
Q

Government bond pricing

A

Government bonds are quoted as a percentage of par
Each bond point is $10, and each 0.1 represents 1/32

  1. 8 = $902.50
  2. 24 = $1,017.50
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89
Q

Zero coupon bonds

A

Nominal (coupon) rate is 0
Always issued at a discount
No reinvestment risk because there are no interest payments to reinvest
More volatile than other bonds of similar quality
Even though no periodic interest payments are received, the IRS requires the issuer to send a Form 1099-OID indicating the taxable interest to be reported each year
Useful in college education funds and qualified retirement plans because of tax treatment. Low tax bracket for child & tax deferral in retirement plan
Zero coupon exists in both corporate and municipal

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90
Q

Bond listings

DEF 5s35 @106

A
DEF is the issuer
5 is the nominal or coupon rate
35 is the maturity date of 2035
106 is the price of $1,060
"s" is nothing but the separation between the coupon and the maturity date
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91
Q

Callable bonds

A

Callability is a feature that permits the issuer to redeem the bids (pay off the principal) before maturity if it so desired

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92
Q

Refunding

A

Issuer takes advantage of lower cost of borrowing by issuing new bonds at lower rates prevailing in the market and using those proceeds to Csll in the only bonds with higher coupons

Similar to refinancing a mortgage

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93
Q

Call protection

A

The number of years into the issue before the issuer may exercise the call provision. The best call protection a bond may have is if a bond is noncallable

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94
Q

Convertible bonds

A

Issued by corporations only, it is the option to exchange the bond for shares of the company’s common stock.
Most convertibles are debentures
The conversion is exercisable at the discretion of the investor
The indenture tells you the number of shares into which the bond is convertible
If a $1000 bond converts into 50 shares and the stock is selling at $40, the investor is getting them at $20 ($1000/50)
Bond prices follows the stock’s price
Most convertible bonds are callable
If the bond prices become too high, issuer can force the investors to convert by exercising the Csll provision. It’s I’d called. Forced conversion

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95
Q

Forced conversion

A

For convertible bonds
If the bond prices become too high, issuer can force the investors to convert by exercising the Csll provision. The reason the bond price went up is because the underlying stock went up. If a bond is called at a price significantly lower than its current market, it will be to the bondholder’s advantage to convert the bond into stock. Once that occurs, the issuer owes nothing

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96
Q

Parity

A

Wen two things are equal. If the convertible bond and the common stock we would get upon conversion are worth the same, we osay they are at parity

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97
Q

Advantages of convertible bonds

A

Downside protection- as long as the company’s solvent, investors will be paid
There is a market level to which the bond price will drop and go no further on the basis of its coupon
Convertibles carry a lower interest rate because of the convertibility factor
Upside potential- if the business does well, investor can convert

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98
Q

Disadvantages of convertible bonds

A

Lower interest rate than nonconvertible debt

Possibility that convertible bond may be called away before investor is ready to convert

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99
Q

Anti-dilution protection

A

One concern of any convertible security holder is protection against the potential dilution resulting from a stock split or a stock dividend

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100
Q

Money market

A

Market for buying and selling short-term loanable funds
It is called money market because that is what is traded there, money not cash
The buyer of a money market instrument is the lender of the money; the seller is the borrower
Maturity dates are 1 year or less; most less than 6 months
Safe
Commercial paper less safe than t-bill

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101
Q

Treasury securities

A

T-bills are the bellwether of the money market
T-bills, t-notes, and t-bonds are the treasury securities
Low risk, extremely high liquidity
Exempt from state tax, but not federal
Yields are the lowest in the money market

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102
Q

Negotiable certificates of deposit (CDs)

A

Created in the mid 1960s
Unsecured time deposits
Negotiable CDs can be sold in the open market prior to maturity date
CDs are the only money market instrument that pays interest semiannually
To be a negotiable CD, it must have a value of $100,000, with $1 million being the most common

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103
Q

Commercial paper

A

Short-term paper issued by corporations, primarily I raise working capital. Used for current rather than long-term needs
Commercial paper is exempt from registration as long as the maximum maturity is less than 270 days

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104
Q

Mortgage-backed securities

A

Debt obligations backed by a pool of mortgages and usually have a pass-through feature.
GNMA is an example
Investors have a undivided interest, do not own a specific mortgage, and have a proportionate share in the cash flow
GNMAs have denominations of $25,000
GNMA investors receive monthly payments
GNMAs, FHA- insured, and VA- guaranteed mortgages back by full faith and credit of US government

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105
Q

Freddie Mac participation certificate (PC)

A

Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (FHLMC) is another type of pass-through
It is sometimes called a participation agreement (PC)
Freddie Mac PCs comprise qualifying FHLMC, conventional, residential mortgages on single-family homes.
Fannie Maes and lFreddie Mac PCs are not backed by full faith and credit of the US government.
Freddies and Fannies have higher rates than GNMAs

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106
Q

Collateralized mortgage obligations (CMO)

A

Introduced in June 1983
Bonds that are collateralized by mortgages and mortgage-backed securities
Most of the mortgages are private, not qualified under VA or FHA
CMOs have a stated maturity with loans of varying maturity dates

Complicated and difficult to understand
Prepayment risk leads to mortgages being refinanced when rates drop
Default risk; particularly if the mortgages are subprime
Reinvestment risk
Liquidity risk

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107
Q

Cash flow analysis

A

Difficult to predict a cash flow on a portfolio of mortgage backed securities
Although they do have default risk (other than GNMA), the specific risk is due to prepayment, complicates the computation

When doing cash flow analysis on a mortgage-backed pass-through security, you would want to know the average maturities

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108
Q

Eurodollars

A

Eurodollars are US dollars deposited in banks outside the US; that is, the deposits remain denominated in US dollars rather than the local currency

European are Japanese yen deposited in banks outside Japan.

When a currency is preceded by the prefix euro, it refers to a bank deposit outside of the country’s currency

Time deposits tend to be short-term, ranging from overnight to 180 days

European banks lend Eurodollars to other banks much in the same way US banks lend federal funds.

Interest rate is usually based on LIBOR

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109
Q

Eurobond

A

Any long-term debt instrument issued and sold outside the country of the currency in which it is denominated.
e.g. A US dollar-denominated Eurobond is called eurodollar bond.

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110
Q

Contrasting eurobonds and eurodollar bonds

A

Eurodollar bonds pay in US dollars
Eurobonds pay in foreign currency
These instruments must be issued outside of the US
Eurodollar bonds are issued in bearer form
Interest is paid once per year
Holders are not subject to withholding test

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111
Q

Yankee bond

A

A Yankee bond is a US dollar- denominated bond issued by a non-US entity in the US market

A Eurobond is a US dollar- denominated bond issued by a non-US entity outside of the US

E.g. maple bond- Canada, Matilda bond- Australia

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112
Q

Brady bond

A

Named after former US Treasury Secretary Nicholas Brady were created in 1989 to exchange defaulted bank loans issued in less developed countries with a security that can be carried on the bank’s books as a performing asset

Partners include the IMF and the World Bank

Most are denominated in US$

Maturities range from 10 to 30 years

Can be interest bearing or zero coupon

Safety of Brady bond depends on the pledged collateral

Liquidity of Brady bonds is far superior to that of other debt issues from emerging markets

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113
Q

T-bill issuance

A

T-bills are always issued at a discount, they pay no interest.

The investor receives par value and makes the difference between the discounted purchase price and the par received at maturity.

All government bonds are now book entry

There has not been a T-note or bond issued since July 1986 with interest coupons attached.

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114
Q

Preferred stock

A

Preferred stock carries a fixed dividend that must be paid before any distribution to common stockholders

There is no obligation to pay the dividend

The yield is invariably higher than that on debt issues

Fixed return may not keep up with inflation, regardless of corporate earnings

The dividend will not change so there is no hope of increased income

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115
Q

Pooled investments

A

Because of the way many investors combine their investment capital, investment companies are frequently referred to as “pooled investments

Investment companies = pooled investments

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116
Q

Investment company

A

A corporation or trust path rough which individuals invest in large diversified portfolios of securities by pooling their funds with other investors’ funds

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117
Q

Advantages of investment companies

A

Diversification of investments

Lower transaction costs

Professional management

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118
Q

Securities Act of 1933

A

Investment companies must abide by similar registration and prospectus requirements imposed by Securities Act of 1933

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119
Q

Investment Company Act of 1940

A

The Investment Company Act of 1940 classifies investment companies into three broad types:

Face-amount certificate companies

Unit investment trusts

Management investment companies

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120
Q

Face amount Certificate (FAC) Companies

A

A contract between an investor and an issuer in which the issuer guarantees payment of a stated (or fixed) sum to the investor at some set date in the future. IN return for this future payment, the investor agrees to pay the issuer a set amount of money either as a lump sum or in periodic installments.

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121
Q

Fully paid FAC

A

If the investor pays for the face-amount certificate (FAC) in a lump sum, the investment is known as a fully paid FAC. Issuers of these investments are called FAC companies. Few FAC companies operate today because tax law changes have eliminated their tax advantages

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122
Q

Things to know about face-amount certificates (FACs)

A

· FAC companies pay a fixed rate of return

· FAC companies do not trade in the secondary market; they are redeemed by the issuer

· FAC companies are classified as investment companies

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123
Q

Unit Investment Trusts (UITs)

A

· Is an unmanaged investment company organized under a trust indenture

· Do not have boards of directors

· Do not employ an investment adviser; and

· Do not actively manage their own portfolios (trade securities)

· Trustees typically buy other investment company shares (nonfixed (UIT) or stocks or bonds (fixed UIT) to create the desired portfolio

· Because UITs are not managed, when securities in the portfolio are liquidated or called, the proceeds must be distributed.

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124
Q

Fixed UITs

A

· Typically purchase a portfolio of bonds and terminates when the bonds in the portfolio mature

· When UITs consist of bonds, the UIT terminates when the bonds in the portfolio mature

· When fixed UITs consist of equities, a liquidation date is set in the offering documents

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125
Q

Nonfixed UITs

A

Purchase share of underlying mutual funds

Under Investment Company Act of 1940, the trustees of both fixed and nonfixed UITs must maintain secondary markets in the units thus allowing unit holders the ability to redeem their units.

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126
Q

Exchange traded funds (ETFs

A

Most ETFs are organized as UITs and trade, as the name implies on exchanges or NASDAQ

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127
Q

UITs

A

· Are not actively managed; there is no board of directors (BOD) or investment adviser

· UIT shares (units) must be redeemed by the trust

· UITs are investment companies as defined under the Investment Company Act of 1940

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128
Q

Management Investment Companies

A

· The most familiar type of investment company

· Actively manages a securities portfolio to achieve a stated investment objective

· Is either closed-end or open-end

· Initially both closed- and open-end companies sell shares to the public; the difference between them lies in the type of securities they sell and how investors buy and sell their shares- in the primary of secondary market.

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129
Q

Closed-end companies

A

· Trade upon supply and demand for their shares

· To raise capital, a closed-end investment company conducts a common stock offering.

· For the initial offering, the company registered a fixed number of shares with the SEC and offers them to the public for a limited time through an underwriting group

· The fund’s capitalization is fixed unless an additional public offering is made

· Closed-end companies can also issue bonds and preferred stock

· Closed-end companies are also called publicly traded funds

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130
Q

Closed-end companies

A

· After the stock is distributed, anyone can buy or sell shares in the secondary market either on an exchange or OTC

· As a result, their buying and selling price does not have a direct relationship to the NAV of the shares

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131
Q

Bid price

A

Price at which an investor can sell

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132
Q

Ask price

A

Price at which an investor can buy

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133
Q

Open-end Investment Companies

A

· Does not specify the exact number of shares it intends to issue

· It registers an open offering with the SEC

· Can raise an unlimited amount of investment capital by continuously issuing new shares

· Any person who wants to invest in the company buys shares directly from the company or its underwriters at the public offering price (POP)

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134
Q

Public Offering Price

A

NAV + any applicable sales charges

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135
Q

Net Asset Value (NAV)

A

Fund’s liabilities – total assets

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136
Q

Net Asset Value (NAV) per Share

A

NAV/# of outstanding shares

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137
Q

Country funds (generally closed-end)

A

· Country funds are funds that concentrate their investments in the securities of companies domiciled in foreign countries. Well-known examples are the Korea Fund, the New Germany Fund, and the Mexico Fund.

· Country funds are generally organized as closed-end (rather than open-end) companies because it is often difficult to liquidate the foreign securities to get their value into the United States

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138
Q

Investment Company Capitalization

A

· open-end: unlimited; continuous offering of shares

· closed-end: fixed; single offering of shares

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139
Q

Investment companies can issue

A

· open-end: common stock only; no debt securities; permitted to borrow

· closed-end: may issue common stock, preferred stock, debt securities

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140
Q

Offering and trading of investment company shares

A

open-end:

o sold and redeemed by fund only

o continuous primary offering

o must redeem shares

· closed-end

o initial public offering

o secondary trading OTC or on an exchange

o does not redeem shares

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141
Q

Pricing of investment company shares

A

· Open-end

o NAV + Sales charge

o Selling price determined by formula in the prospectus

· Closed-end

o Current market value + commission

o Price determined by supply and demand

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142
Q

Shareholder rights in investment companies

A

· Open-end: dividends (when declared), voting

· Closed-end: dividends (when declared, voting, preemptive

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143
Q

Computing NAC on closed-end investment companies

A

Because the trading price of closed-end investment company shares is determined by supply and demand, these funds computer their NAV only once per week, rather than daily with open-end companies

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144
Q

Diversified and nondiversified companies

A

· Under the Investment Act of 1940 an investment company qualified as diversified if it meets the 75-5-10 test

· 75% of total assets must be invested in securities issued by companies other than the investment company or its affiliates.

· Cash on hand or cash equivalents count as part of the 75% required investment in outside companies

· Of this 75%, no more than 5% can be invested in any one corporation’s securities

· Of this 75%, this investment company can own no more than 10% of an outside corporation’s voting class securities

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145
Q

Nondiversified investment company

A

· Does not meet the 75-5-10 test

· A company that specializes in one industry is not necessarily nondiversified

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146
Q

Specialized or sector funds

A

Can still be considered diversified if they meet the 75-5-10 test

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147
Q

Open –end investment companies

A

· Investors may purchase fractional shares

· Usually called mutual funds

· Selling price usually includes a sales charge

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148
Q

Open-end investment companies (mutual funds)

A

· Must redeem shares at NAV

· Offer guaranteed marketability

· Investor owns an undivided interest in the entire underlying portfolio

· No investor has preferred status

· Fund issues only one class of common stock

· Investor shares mutually in gains and distributions with other investors

· Investors share in fund’s performance based on number of shares owned

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149
Q

Net redemptions

A

· An excess of shareholder redemptions over new share purchases

· Manager must then decide which assets to liquidate

Mutual fund sales charges

· When buying shares of mutual funds, FINRA sets a maximum sales charge of 8.5% of the POP

· The actual schedule of sales charges is specified in the prospectus

Closed-end funds

Do not carry sales charges. An investor pays a brokerage commission

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150
Q

Open-end funds

A

· All sales commissions are paid from the sales charges collected

· Sales charges include commissions for whole food chain plus advertising, sales lit, etc.

Types of Mutual Fund sales charges

· Front-end loads (difference between POP and net NAV)

· Back-end load (contingent sales charge)

· 12b-1 fees (asset-based fees, technically not a sales charge)

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151
Q

Front-end loads (Class A shares)

A

· Are reflected in a fund’s public offering price (POP)

· The charges are added to the NAV at the time the investor buys shares

· Class A shares have lower operating expense ratios than the other classes

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152
Q

Back-end loads (Class B shares)

A

· Also called a contingent deferred sales charge (CDSC) is charged at the time an investor redeems mutual fund shares

· The sales load is a declining percentage charge that is reduced annually

· Is usually structured so that it drops to 0 after 6 or 8 years at which time they are converted to Class A shares with their lower operating expense ratios

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153
Q

12b-1 asset-based fees

A

· Mutual funds cannot act as distributors for their own fun shares except under Section 12b-1 of the Investment Company Act of 1940.

· Investment Company Act of 1940 Section 12b-1 allows a mutual fund to collect a fee for promotion or sales-related activities in connection with distributing its shares

· Fee is flat dollar amount of % of assets of average total NAV during the year

· Fee is disclosed in the firm’s prospectus

· Fee must reflect the anticipated level of distribution services

· Annual fee cannot exceed 0.75% of net assets

· If fee exceeds 0.25%, fund cannot use the term no-load

· 0.25% is viewed as the fees that would have been paid to an underwriter had sales charges been negotiated

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154
Q

Fund share classes

A

· Class A shares (front-end load): investors pay at the time of purchase; lowest operating costs

· Class B shares (back-end load): declines over time so investors pay the charge at redemption

· Class C shares (level load): no sales charge to purchase, generally a 1% CDSC for one year, with a continuous 12b-1 charge

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155
Q

Reductions in Sales Charges

A

· Breakpoints- a scale of declining sales charges based on the amount invested

· Rights of accumulation

Breakpoints

· Available to any person

· In this case, person means married couples, parents and their minor children, and corporations

· Investment clubs or associations formed for the purpose of investing do not qualify for breakpoints

Breakpoint sales

· Registered reps making higher commissions by selling shares in dollar amounts just below breakpoint levels

· FINRA prohibits reps from doing this

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156
Q

Letter of Intent (LOI)

A

· Person who plans to invest more money with the same mutual fund company may decrease overall sales charges by singing a letter of intent (LOI)

· LOI informs the investment company that he intends to invest the additional funds necessary to reach the breakpoint within 13 months

· Each deposit is charged the reduced sales charge at the time of purchase

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157
Q

Letter of Intent (LOI)

A

· Is a one-sided contract binding on the fund only.

· The customer must complete the intended investment to qualify for the reduced sales charge.
· Fund holds the extra shares purchased as a result of the reduced sales charge in escrow
· When investor deposits sufficient money to complete the LOI, he receives the escrowed shares
· Appreciation and reinvested dividends do not count toward the LOI

· If the customer has not completed the investment within 13 months, he will be given the choice of sending a check for the difference in sales charges or cashing in escrowed shares to pay the difference

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158
Q

Backdating LOIs

A

· Funds often permit customer to sign an LOI as late as 90 days after an initial purchase

· The LOI still cannot exceed 13 months to complete the transaction

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159
Q

Rights of Accumulation

A

· Allow an investor to qualify for reduce sales charges

· Unlike LOIs, they are available only for subsequent investment and do not apply to initial transactions

· Allow the investor to use prior share appreciation to qualify for breakpoints

o Customer may qualify for reduced charges when the total value of shares previously purchased and shares currently being purchased exceeds a breakpoint amount

· Do not impose time limits

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160
Q

Rights of Accumulation

A

· For the purpose of qualifying customers for breakpoints, the mutual fund bases the quantity of securities owned on:

o The current level of the securities at either NAV or POP

o Total purchases of the securities at the actual offering price; or

o The higher of current NAV or the total of purchases made to date

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161
Q

Combination privilege

A

Mutual fund company offers more than one fun and refers to these multiple offerings as its family of funds. Investors can get a reduced sales charge by combined separate investments within the same family to reach a breakpoint

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162
Q

Exchange within a family of funds

A

· Exchange privileges allow an investor to convert an investment in one fun for an equal investment in another fun in the same family at net asset value without incurring an additional sales charge.

· Any exchange of funds is considered a sale for tax purposes. Any gains or losses are fully reportable at the time of the exchange

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163
Q

Mutual fund characteristics

A

· A professional investment adviser manages the portfolio for investors

· Mutual funds provide diversification by investing in many different companies

· A custodian holds a mutual fund’s shares to ensure safekeeping

· Most funds allow a low minimum investment, often 4500 or less, to open an account and allow an additional investment for as little as $25

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164
Q

Mutual fund characteristics

A

· An investment company may allow investments at the reduced sales charges by offering breakpoints, for instance, through a letter of intent and/or rights of accumulation

· An investor retains voting rights, such as the right to vote for changes in the board of directors of the investment company, approval of the investment adviser, changes in the fund’s investment objective, changes in sales charges, and liquidation of the fund

· By FINRA rules, all funds created after 4/1/2000 offer automatic reinvestment of capital gains and dividend distributions without a sales charge. To remain competitive, almost all of the old funds do so as well. This has the effect of compounding the investment

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165
Q

Mutual fund characteristics

A

· An investor can liquidate of apportion of his holding without having to select a specific security- the fund generally has enough cash on hand to process redemption requests.

· Tax liabilities for an investor are simplified because each year the fund distributes a 1099 form explaining taxability of distributions

· A mutual fund may offer various withdrawal plans that allow different payment methods at redemption

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166
Q

Investment Objective

A

The objective must be clearly stated in the prospectus and can be changed only by a majority vote of the fund’s outstanding shares

Growth funds

· Companies tend to reinvest all or most of their profits for research and development rather than pay dividends

· A growth fund with a high dividend has not followed its investment objective

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167
Q

Income funds

A

Stresses current income over growth

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168
Q

Combination funds (growth and income)

A

· Combines objectives of growth and income

· Specialized (sector) funds

· Specialize in particular economic sectors or industries. Some specialize in geographic areas. These funds have 25% - 100% invested in their specialties and are more likely than other funds to stick to a relatively fixed allocation

· Offer higher appreciation potential, but also pose higher risks

Special Situation Funds

Buy securities of companies that may benefit from a change within the corporations or in the economy. Takeover candidates and turnaround situations are common investments

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169
Q

Index Funds

A

· Invest in securities to mirror a market index. Performance tracks the underlying index’s performance

· This approach reflects the pass style of portfolio management

· Lower management costs

· Minimal turnover (for investors seeking minimal capital gains)

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170
Q

Foreign Stock funds

A

· Invest in the securities of companies that have their principal business activities outside of the US

· Long term capital appreciation is their primary objective although some funds seek current income

· Involve foreign currency risks as well as usual equity risks

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171
Q

Two types of foreign funds

A

· International funds- have their entire portfolio invested in securities issued outside of the US

· Global funds have portfolio invested around the globe which includes US

Tax-free (Tax-exempt) Bond Funds

Invest in municipal bonds or notes that produce income exempt from federal income tax. Note that any capital gains distributions from the fund are taxable just as with any other fund

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172
Q

US Government and Agency Security Funds

A

Buys US treasuries, GNMAs, etc. Investors in these funds seek current income and maximum safety

Asset Allocation Funds

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173
Q

Balanced Funds

A

Invest in stocks for appreciation and bonds for income, and different types of securities are purchased according to a formula

e.g. – a balanced fund’s portfolio might contact 60% stocks and 40% bonds

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174
Q

Asset allocation funds

A

· Split investments between stocks for growth, bonds for income, and money market instruments (cash) for stability.

· The fund adviser switches the percentages of holdings in each asset category to the expected performance of that group.

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175
Q

Money market funds

A

· No-load, peon-end mutual fund that serves as temporary holding accounts for investors’ money

· The term no-load means that investors pay no sales or liquidation fees

· Most suitable for investors who financial goals require liquidity above all

· Dividend rates are neither fixed nor guaranteed

· Interest the fund distributes as dividends is computed daily and credited to accounts monthly

· NAV is fixed at $1

· $1 Price is not guaranteed, but the fund is managed not to “break the buck”

· Price does not fluctuate much in response to interest rate changes

· Generally offer check-writing privileges

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176
Q

Investors should select review fund information regarding

A

· Performance

· Costs

· Taxation

· Portfolio turnover

· Services offered

· Suitability

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177
Q

Performance

A

· Securities law requires that each fund disclose the average annual total returns for 1,5, and 10 years or since inception

· A manager’s track record in keeping with the fund’s objectives, as stated in the prospectus, is important as well

· Returns must be expressed assuming maximum sales loads applied

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178
Q

Expense ratio

A

· Expresses the management fees and operating expenses as a percentage of the fund’s net assets.

· All mutual funds, load or no-load, have expense ratios.

· Calculated by dividing a fund’s expenses by its average net assets

· The sales charge is not generally considered an expense when calculating a fund’s expense ratio

· Typically more aggressive funds have higher expense ratios- more trading in the fund’s portfolio

· Stocks funds generally have expense ratios between 1% and !.5% of a fund’s average net assets

· Bond funds typically have expense ratios between 0.5% and 1.0%

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179
Q

Mutual Fund Taxation

A

· Mutual fund investors pay taxes on income and capital gains distributed by the fund.

· Dividends that qualify are taxed at 15%; for test purposes, all capital gains distributions are from the fund’s long term gains, so they are taxed at 15% to the investor

· Dividends and capital gains distributions are currently taxable to investors whether they are taken in cash or reinvested to purchase additional shares

· Dividends must be reported as dividend income and will be taxed either as ordinary income or as a qualifying dividend with a maximum rate of 15%

· Capital gains distributions must be report as a long-term capital gain

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180
Q

Portfolio turnover rate

A

· Reflects the fund’s holding period. If a fund has a turnover rate of 100%, it holds its securities, on average, for less than one year & therefore, all gains are likely to be short term and subject to the maximum tax rate

· A fund with portfolio turnover rate of 25% has an average holding period of 4 years & most gains are taxes at the long-term rate

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181
Q

Services offered by mutual fund companies include:

A

· Retirement accounts

· Investment plans

· Check-writing privileges

· Phone transfers

· Conversion privileges

· Combination investment plans,

· withdrawal plans, etc.

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182
Q

Advantages of mutual funds

A

· The #1 advantage is the diversification offered

· Professional management, convenience, liquidity, and minimum initial investment are also important

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183
Q

Disadvantages of mutual funds

A

· Market risks

· Fees and expenses

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184
Q

Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs)

A

· This type of fund invests in a specific index

· Any class of asset that has a specific index around it and is liquid can be made into an ETF

· Differs from an index fund in that it is closed-in and trades like a stock

· Price changes are due to the market, rather than the underlying value of the portfolio

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185
Q

Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs)

A

· ETFs can be purchased on margin

· ETFs can be sold short

· Expenses are lower than mutual funds

· Because there are brokerage fees, ETFs are generally not competitive with no-load index funds for the small investor

· ETFs are included in the term “pooled investments”

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186
Q

Hedge Funds

A

· Does not currently have to register with SEC, although portfolio managers are generally required to register as investment advisers

· Pending legislation that would require all hedge funds to register

· Free to adopt far riskier investment strategies than those open to ordinary mutual funds

o Arbitrage strategies

o Massive short positions during bearish markets

· Use leverage and derivatives such as options and futures

· Considered to be in the asset class of alternative investments

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187
Q

Hedge funds

A

· Primary aim of most hedge funds is to reduce volatility and risk while attempting to preserve capital and deliver positive returns under all market conditions

· Management fees tend to be much, much higher than with other investments

· Almost all hedge funds charge performance-based fees. The typical fee structure is known by the vernacular “2&20- most funds take a 2% management fee and 20% of the profits

· Because of the risk, investments are limited to institutional clients and wealthy individuals, known as accredited investors

· Most hedge funds are organized as limited partnerships with the portfolio managers investing along with the investors. So they have a greater motivation to succeed. The partnership is the issuer of the ownership units

· Hedge funds are indirectly available to ordinary investors through mutual funds called funds of hedge funds

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188
Q

Why to include hedge funds in a portfolio

A

· Designed strategy of many hedge funds is to generate positive returns in both rising and falling markets

· With a large variety of available investment styles, investors have a plethora of choices to assist them in meeting their objectives

· A part of an asset allocation class, hedge funds may reduce overall portfolio risk and volatility and increase returns

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189
Q

A proper selection of hedge funds can create

A

Uncorrelated returns, adding a level of diversification. In doing so, the client would be incurring the following risks:

· Expenses can be quite high

· The risky strategies can backfire leading to significant loss of capital

· There is limited liquidity because there is no active secondary market (they’re not listed on exchanges)

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190
Q

firm quote

A

Market maker’s current bid and offer on a security

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191
Q

Current bid

A

Highest price at which the dealer will buy

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192
Q

Current offer

A

Lowest price at which the dealer will sell

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193
Q

Spread

A

Difference the bid and the as,

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194
Q

Inside quote

A

The best and the best offer selected among all the market makers of a security

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195
Q

Market order

A

Order executed immediately at the market price with no restrictions

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196
Q

Limit order

A

Limits the amount paid or received for securities
Not guaranteed to execute.
Can only be filled if the stock’s market price reaches the limit price
Ensures that an investor does not pay more than a predetermined amount for a stock

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197
Q

Stop order

A

Becomes a market order if the stock reaches or goes through the stop price

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198
Q

Stop limit order

A

Entered as a stop order and changed to a limit order if the rock hits or goes through the trigger price

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199
Q

Day order

A

Expires if not filled by the end of the day

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200
Q

Good till cancelled

A

Does not expire until filled cancelled

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201
Q

Good till canceled order

A

Does not expire until filled or canceled

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202
Q

Fill or kill order

A

Must be executed immediately in full or be canceled

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203
Q

Immediate or cancel order

A

Must be executed immediately in full or in part; any part of the order that remains unfilled is canceled

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204
Q

UPIA (Uniform Prudent Investor Act)

A

All though the UPIA permits the delegation of portfolio management decisions, trustees cannot delegate certain fiduciary duties, such as determining the amount and timing of distributions.

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205
Q

Prudent Expert Rule

A

Fiduciary must act with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent professional would use.

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206
Q

Fiduciaries

A

Under ERISA provisions, the fiduciary must be as prudent as the average expert, not the average person. To act with care, skill, prudence, and caution, the fiduciary must:

Diversify plan assets
Make investment decisions under the prudent expert standard
Monitor investment performance
Control investment expenses; and not engage in prohibited transactions

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207
Q

Fiduciary- transaction costs

A

Transaction cost is not a determining factor in security selection. That I, when the fiduciary is deciding what security will fit the needs of the portfolio, the amount of commission involved in the purchase is not consider when determining if that security is an appropriate selection.

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208
Q

Investment Policy Statement

A

Not specifically mandated under ERISA
Each plan should have one, preferably in writing
Guideline for plan’s fiduciary

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209
Q

Investment Policy Statement (IPS)

A

A typical IPS includes:

Investment objectives for the plan
Determination of cash flow needs
Investment philosophy including asset allocation style
Investment selection criteria
Methods for monitoring procedures and performance

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210
Q

Prohibited Transactions by the plan fiduciary

A

Fiduciary is strictly prohibited from any conflicts of interest
Self dealing with plan assets in his own interests
Acting in transactions on behalf of a party with interests averse to the plan
Receiving compensation for his personal account ini connection to the plan

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211
Q

ERISA Section 407

A

A plan may not acquire any security or real property of the ER, if immediately after such acquisition the aggregate fair market value of ER securities and ER real property held by the plan is > 10% of the fair market value of the assets of the plan

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212
Q

Party in interest

A

Anyone who has an impact on an EB plan including those who render advice to the plan. All transactions involving parties in interest to an ERISA- covered plan are prohibited, unless there is an exemption for them

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213
Q

Loans from the plan

A

Trustees may not use plan assets to make loan to the ER, even if failure to do so could lead to the ER suffering a financial failure.

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214
Q

ERISA Section 404(c)- Safe Harbor Provisions

A

Diversification provision
Deals with 401(k) plans
Trustee is safe from liability as long as certain conditions are met
A participant must have for his own account:

Investment selection
Investment control
Have required communication of information

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215
Q

Investment selection- 404(c)

A

A plan participant must be able to:

materially affect portfolio return potential and risk level

Choose between at least 3 investment alternatives; and

Diversify his investment to minimize the risk of large losses

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216
Q

Trustee reducing liability

A

The trustee of a 401(k) would be able to reduce his ERISA fiduciary exposure and meet the safe harbor provisions of 404(c) if the plan offered a broad index fund, a medium term bond fund, and a cash equivalent fund.

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217
Q

404(c)- investment control

A

Allowing EEs to exercise independent control over the assets by letting them make their own investment selections (at least 3 options)
Informing EEs they can change allocations at least quarterly
Fiduciaries must still monitor performance

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218
Q

404(c) - Communicating required information

A

Making info available upon request (prospectuses, financial statements, reports, annual operating expenses

Statement that the plan is intended to constitute an ERISA 404(c) & that plan fiduciaries may be relieved of liability for investment losses
Explanation of how to give investment instructions
Real time access to accounts via telephone or Internet

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219
Q

Summary Plan Description

A

Plan administrator provided to participants free of charge

Important description of how plan works

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220
Q

Defined benefit plan

A

Contributions to a DB plan are not affected by the participant’s gender

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221
Q

ER Contributions

A

ER contributions to DB & DC pension plans are mandatory. Although profit sharing & 401(k) plans are DC plans, they are not pension plans & ER plans are not mandatory

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222
Q

Exchange market

A

Is composed of the NYSE and other exchanges on which listed securities as traded

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223
Q

Location

A

Listed markets, such as NYSE and AMEX, maintain central marketplaces and trading floors

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224
Q

Pricing system

A

Listed markets operate as double-auction markets. Floor brokers compete to execute trades at favorable prices

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225
Q

Plus tick

A

When a floor broker representing a buyer executes a trade by purchasing stock at a current offer price higher than the last sale, a plus tick occurs (market up)

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226
Q

Minus tick

A

When a selling broker accepts a current bid price below the last sale price, a minus ticket occurs (market down).

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227
Q

Specialist (also known as DMM- designated market maker)

A

Maintains an orderly market and provides price continuity. He fills limit and market orders for the public and trades for his own account to either stabilize or facilitate trading when imbalances in supply and demand occur

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228
Q

Specialist (also known as DMM- designated market maker)

A

Chief function is to maintain a fair and orderly market in the stocks for which he is responsible.

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229
Q

Specialist

A

Minimizes price disparities that may occur at the opening of daily trading by buying and selling, as a dealer, stock from his own inventory only when a need for such intervention exists.

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230
Q

Over-the counter (OTC) Market

A

· Interdealer market
· Unlisted securities
· No central marketplace

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231
Q

OTC pricing system

A

Interdealer network. Registered market makers compete to post the best bid and ask price. The OTC market is a negotiated market.

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232
Q

Market makers

A

Broker/dealer who stand ready to buy and sell the minimum trading unit, usually 100 shares (or any larger amount that they have indicated), in each stock in which they have published bid and ask quotes.

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233
Q

Market makers acting in a principal capacity

A

Sell from their inventory at their asking price and buy for their inventory at the bid price
Price dynamics
When a market maker raises its bid price to attract sellers, the stock price rises; when a market maker lowers its ask price to attract buyers, the stock price declines

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234
Q

OTC market

A

· Securities prices determined through negotiation
· Regulated by FINRA
· Broker/dealers must register with both SEC and FINRA
· Trade at many locations across the country

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235
Q

NYSE market

A

· Securities prices determined through auction bidding
· Regulated by the NYSE
· Broker/dealers must be registered with the SEC and Exchange members
· Traded only on the NYSE floor

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236
Q

Exchange

A

Listed securities + prices determined by auction

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237
Q

OTC

A

Unlisted securities = prices determined by negotiation

Government and municipal and unlisted corporate stocks and bonds trade in the OTC market

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238
Q

Broker/dealers

A

Most securities firms act as both brokers and dealers, but NEVER in the same transaction

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239
Q

Brokers

A

Agents that arrange trades for clients and charge commissions. Brokers do not buy share for inventory, but facilitate trades between buyers and sellers

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240
Q

Dealers (or principals)

A

Buy and sell securities for their own accounts. This practice is called position trading.

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241
Q

Dealers (or principals)

A

When selling from their inventories, dealers charge the buying customers a markup rather than a commission. A markup is the difference between the current interdealer offering and the actual price charged the client. When a price to a client includes a dealer’s markup, it is called a net price.

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242
Q

Principal

A

A broker/dealer acts as a principal in a dealer transaction.

A firm CANNOT act as both a broker and a dealer in the same transaction

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243
Q

Principal

A

A principal of a firm is a person who acts in a supervisory capacity

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244
Q

Principal

A

Face value of a bond or asset in a trust

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245
Q

Making a hidden profit

A

When a firm makes a market in a stock, marks up that stock, and then adds an agency commission. If the firm acts as a broker, it may charge a commission. If it acts as a dealer, it may charge a markup or markdown.

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246
Q

Broker

A

Acts as an agent, transacting orders on the client’s behalf

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247
Q

Broker

A

Charges a commission

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248
Q

Broker

A

Is not a market maker

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249
Q

Broker

A

Must disclose its role and the amount of its commission to the client

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250
Q

Dealer

A

Acts as a principal, dealing in securities for its own account and at its own risk

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251
Q

Dealer

A

Charges a markup or markdown

Makes markets and/or takes positions (long or short) in securities

Must disclose its role to the client, but not necessarily the amount or source of the markup or markdown

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252
Q

Markup

A

The difference between the lowest current offering price among dealers and the higher price a dealer charges a customer

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253
Q

BACC/DPP

A

Brokers act as agents for commissions/ dealer act as principals for profits

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254
Q

Market order

A

An order sent immediately to the floor for execution without restrictions or limits. It is executed immediately at the current market price and has priority over all other types of orders

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255
Q

Market order

A

A market order to buy is executed at the lowest offering price available

A market order to sell is executed at the highest bid price available

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256
Q

Limit order

A

A customer limits the acceptable purchase or selling price. A limit order can be executed only at the specified price or better (lower in a buy order, higher in a sell order)

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257
Q

Limit order

A

If the limit order cannot be executed at the market, the commission house broker leaves the order with the specialist who records the trade in the order book and executes the order if and when the market price meets the limit order price

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258
Q

Limit order

A

A customer who enters a limit order risks missing the chance to buy or sell if the market moves away from the limit price.

The market may never go as low as the buy limit price or as high as the sell limit price

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259
Q

Limit order

A

Sometimes limit orders are not executed, even if a limit price is met. The most common explanation for this is stock ahead

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260
Q

Stock ahead

A

Limit orders on the specialist’s book for the same price are arranged according to when they were received. If a limit order at a specific price was not filled, chances are that another order at the same price took precedence, that is, there was stock ahead.

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261
Q

Limit order

A

If any part of an order can be filled at the limit price, it is done. All that can be is executed before the market closes, that sale is confirmed and the order for the balance is cancelled.

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262
Q

Selling short (short sales)

A

The short seller borrows stock from a broker/dealer to sell at the market.

The investor expects the stock to decline enough to allow him to buy shares at a lower price and replace the borrowed stock at a later date.

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263
Q

Selling short (short sales)

A

Unless the stock declines to zero, the short seller is obligated to buy the stock and replace the borrowed shares to close the short position

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264
Q

Selling short (short sales)

A

Is risky because if stock price rises instead of falls, an investor still must buy the shares to replace the borrowed stock- and the stock price can rise without limit- therefore, unlimited risk

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265
Q

Stop orders (stop loss order)

A

May be entered to protect a profit or prevent a loss if the stock begins to move in the wrong direction

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266
Q

Stop orders (stop loss order)

A

Becomes a market order once the stock trades at or moves through a certain price, known as the stop price.

There is no assurance of any specific price

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267
Q

Stop orders (stop loss order)

A

Stop orders for listed stocks are usually left with and executed by the specialist.

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268
Q

Stop orders (stop loss order)

A

A stop order takes two trades to execute

  1. Trigger- the trigger transaction at or through the stop price activates the trade
  2. Execution- the stop order becomes a market order and is executed at the market price completing the trade
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269
Q

Stop limit order

A

Is a top order that, once triggered, becomes a limit order instead of a market order

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270
Q

Buy stop orders

A

· Protect against loss in a short stock position

· Protect a gain from a short stock position

· Establish a long position when a breakout occurs above the line of resistance

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271
Q

Sell stop orders

A

· Protect against loss in a long stock position

· Protect a gain from a long stock position

· Establish a short position when a breakout occurs below the line of support

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272
Q

Mechanics of a stop order

A

· 2 steps- trigger- when security moves through the stop price & the execution

· Buy- moves through at a higher price; sell moves through at a lower price

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273
Q

Difference between a stop order different from a stop limit order

A

Once the order has been triggered, enter a limit order do not pay any more than $X for the stock, while the stop order will buy the stock at the next lowest price . With limit you can’t pay more than $X

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274
Q

Stop orders (stop loss orders)

A

Danger in using stop orders is that once they are triggered, the marketplace receives an increase of sell orders in a falling market and buy orders in a rising market. This can have the tendency to accelerate the direction of the market; sell stops in a bearish market, buy stops in a bullish one

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275
Q

Block trade

A

10,000 or more shares of a stock

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276
Q

Dividend Disbursing Process (4 dates)

A
  1. Declaration (announcement) date- date the announcement of a forthcoming dividend is made known
  2. Record date- date that a list will be made of owners and only those owners will receive the dividend
  3. Payable date- date payment is made
  4. Ex-dividend date- the SRO decides- the date that purchasers will not receive the dividend
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277
Q

Ex-dividend date

A

The last day an investor can purchase a stock and still receive a previously declared cash dividend

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278
Q

Traditional IRA limits

A

$5000 for individual

$10,000 for couple

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279
Q

Traditional IRA limits

A

For those covered by qualified employer plans, the tax deductibility of contributions to traditional IRAs is phased out as income increases over a specified level.

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280
Q

Traditional IRAs

A

Not eligible after age 70 ½

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281
Q

Compensation for IRA purposes

A

· Wages, tips, and salaries

· Commissions and bonuses

· Self-employment income

· Alimony

· Nontaxable combat pay

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282
Q

Not compensation for IRA purposes

A

· Capital gains

· Interest and dividend income

· Pension or annuity income

· Child support

· Passive income from DPPs

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283
Q

IRA contribution limits

A

The contribution limits for IRAs is subject to increase based on the inflation rate. These limits will also apply to the total combined contribution that might be made to a traditional IRA and a Roth IRA

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284
Q

Catch up contributions for older IRA owners

A

The Economic Growth and Tax Relief Reconciliation Act of 2001 (EGTRRA) was the source of the legislation permitting certain individuals to make additional contributions to their IRAs. Individuals aged 50 and older are allowed to make catch-up contributions to the IRAs above the scheduled maximum annual contribution limit. These catch-up payments can go either to a traditional IRA or a Roth IRA

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285
Q

Roth IRA

A

The Taxpayer Relief Act of 1997 created the Roth IRA.

Contributions to Roth IRAs are not tax deductible

Regular contributions can be withdrawn tax free because they are made with nondeductible contributions

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286
Q

Roth IRA withdrawals

A
  1. Earnings accumulated may be withdrawn tax free following the initial deposit provided the:
  2. Account holder is 59 ½ or older
  3. Money withdrawn is used for the first-time purchase of a principal residence (up to $10,000)
  4. Account holder has died or become disabled
  5. Money is used to pay for authorized higher education expenses; or
  6. Money is used to pay for certain medical expenses or medical insurance premiums
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287
Q

Roth IRA Contribution limits

A

Same as those for traditional IRAs

Lesser of $5000 or 100% of earned income

Contributions can be made past age 70 ½ as long as individual has earned income

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288
Q

Roth IRA Eligibility Requirements

A

Single person with an AGI of $110,000 or less may contribute the full amount to Roth IRA

Phased out after $125,000

Married person who file jointly _ $173,000; phased out after $183,000

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289
Q

Deductible to determine AGI

A

Traditional IRA payments

Alimony paid

Self-employment tax and

Penalties paid on early withdrawal from savings account

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290
Q

Key points to remember about the Roth IRA

A

Maximum (current) contribution is $5000/year/individual

Contributions are not tax deductible

Distributions tax free if taken > 59 ½ & if account open for at least 5 yrs.

Distributions not required to begin at 70 ½

No 10% early distribution penalty for death, disability and first time home purchase

Minor can be named as beneficiary

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291
Q

SEPs

A

· Offer self-employed persons and small businesses easy-to0 administer pension plans.

· A qualified plan that allows an employee to contribute money directly to an IRA set up for each EE

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292
Q

SEP eligibility

A

· EE must be at least 21 years of age

· EE must have performed services for the ER during at least 3 of the past 5 yrs.

· EE must receive at least $550 (indexed for inflation) in compensation from ER

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293
Q

SEP participation

A

ER must allow all eligible EEs to participate

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294
Q

SEP funding

A

SEP allows ER to contribute up to 24% of an EE’s salary each year up to a maximum of $50,000 per EE per year

ER must contribute the same % for each EE & ER

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295
Q

SEP IRA vesting

A

Immediate full vesting

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296
Q

SEP IRA taxation

A

ER contributions deductible

$ Not taxable until withdrawn

$ accumulate tax deferred

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297
Q

Traditional IRA & SEP withdrawals

A

Without penalty at age 59 ½

Must begin by 4/1 of the year following attainment of age 70 ½

(If you reach 70 ½ on 1/1/2010, you must begin receiving distributions by 4/1/2011)

Subsequent payments by 12/31

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298
Q

Required minimum distribution (RMD)

A

Must begin by 4/1 of the year following attainment of age 70 ½

(If you reach 70 ½ on 1/1/2010, you must begin receiving distributions by 4/1/2011)

Penalty is 50% of amount not withdrawn

Roth IRAs have no RMD

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299
Q

Substantially equal periodic payment exception

A

Under IRS rule 72t, you can receive IRA payments at least annually based on your life expectancy (or joint life expectancies of you & beneficiary) with withdrawals NOT subject to 10% penalty

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300
Q

You can postpone beginning distributions until the later of:

A

4/1 of the calendar year after you turn 70 ½ or

4/1 of the calendar following your retirement (only for qualified plans, not an IRA)

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301
Q

IRA penalty waivers

A

Early withdrawal penalties for all IRAs are waived in the event of death or disability

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302
Q

Spousal IRA

A

If one spouse has little or no earned income and a joint tax return is filed, a spousal IRA may be opened for that person

Contributions limits are the same as for any other IRA

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303
Q

IRA custodians

A

Can be securities firms, banks, S&Ls, insurance companies, credit unions, mutual funds,

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304
Q

IRA deductibility

A

Deductibility is reduced or eliminated if individual participates in an ER-sponsored retirement plan and earns more than a specified amount

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305
Q

IRA contribution deadline

A

4/15 of the filing year- not even if you get an extension

Contributions exceeding the maximum are subject to a 6% penalty until the $ is withdrawn

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306
Q

IRA Ineligible Investments & Practices

A

· Collectibles

· Whole life insurance

· Term life insurance

· Short sales of stock

· Speculative option strategies

· Margin account trading

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307
Q

Real estate in a qualified plan

A

Permissible, but problematic

Needs to be a hands-off investment

Prohibited person cannot use the property or benefit from it

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308
Q

Prohibited persons

A

People who can’t benefit from real estate held in an IRA or qualified plan

Includes spouses, descendants, ancestors, but not siblings

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309
Q

IRA rollovers

A

Account owner can take temporary possession of funds to move to another custodian

Can do this only once per 12 month period

100% of $ must be rolled over or unrolled balance subject to taxes & penalties

Rollover must be completed in 60 calendar days

Rollovers have 20% withholding

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310
Q

Rollovers by non-spouse beneficiaries of certain retirement plan distributions

A

Effective 1/1/2007, Pension Protection Act of 2006 amended the IRC 1986 to allow non-spouse beneficiaries to roll over qualified retirement plan distributions to an inherited traditional IRA

Transfer must be trustee to trustee

Checks made out to beneficiary not eligible for rollover

IRA must be set up as an inherited IRA

RMD rules apply to beneficiaries

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311
Q

Direct rollovers from retirement plans to Roth IRAs

A

Effective 1/1/2008, the Pension Protection Act of 2006 amended the IRC 1986 to allow rollover from qualified plans directly to Roth IRAs, providing the clients meets the requirements for converting

Main requirement is that the client must report the entire amount converted into the Roth as ordinary income in the year of the conversion (or rollover)

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312
Q

IRA transfer

A

· Direct custodian to custodian, unlike IRA rollover

· Owner never takes possession

· Number of IRA transfers owner may make per year is unlimited

· Rollovers have 20% withholding

· No 60 day requirement

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313
Q

Earnings Limitations for Tax Benefits for IRAs

A

AGI limits increase every year

Individuals who are ineligible to participate in qualified plans may deduct IRA contributions regardless of income level

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314
Q

Inheriting an IRA

A

Rules differ between spouses and non-spouses

Beneficiaries do not have to be relatives

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315
Q

Spouse Beneficiaries of Inherited IRAs

A

Can be rolled over into spouse’s own IRA

Can continue to own IRA as beneficiary

If spouses roll over to own IRA, their age and rules apply

If left in inherited (or beneficiary IRA), decedent’s age applies (no 59 ½, but sooner RMD

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316
Q

Non-spouse IRA

A

· 10% penalty at age 59 ½ does not apply

· RMD must begin the year after the death of the account owner, but the payment is based on the life expectancy of the beneficiary, not the decedent

· Non-spouse beneficiaries can distribute the entire amount over 5 years

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317
Q

Disclaiming IRAs

A

When an individual disclaims an IRA proceeds pass to the contingent beneficiary

Person disclaiming cannot decide were the $ goes

If no contingent beneficiary, proceeds follow the provisions of the will

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318
Q

Roth IRAs

A

Do NOT have RMDs

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319
Q

Keogh (HR-10) Plans

A

ERISA- qualified plans intended for self-employed individuals and owner-employees of unincorporated business concerns or professional practices.

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320
Q

Keogh (HR-10) Plans

A

Included self-employed individuals include” independent contractors, consultants, freelancers, and anyone else who files and pays self-employment Social security taxes

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321
Q

Owner-employee

A

The term owner-employee means sole proprietor

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322
Q

Keogh contributions

A

Only earnings for from self-employment count towards determining the maximum that can be contributed.

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323
Q

Keogh contributions

A

A Keogh plan participant may also make non non-deductible contributions.

If voluntary contribution results in a total contribution that exceeds the annual maximum, the excess may be subject to a penalty tax

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324
Q

Keogh eligibility

A

Full time EEs who work 1000 hours

Tenured EEs who have complete 1 or more years of continuous service

Adult EEs who are 21 or over

Cannot be over 70 ½

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325
Q

Keoghs & IRAs Contrasted

A

IRAs do not involve ER contributions, Keoghs do

IRA not qualified by ERISA, Keoghs are

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326
Q

Keogh & IRA Comparisons

A

Taxes deferred on contributions until distributed

Investment income and capital gains deferred until distribution, then ordinary income taxes

Only cash may be contributed

Distributions can begin without penalty at age 59 ½; same penalties & exemptions apply

Same payout options

Same beneficiary options

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327
Q

403(b) tax advantages

A

Contributions (which come from salary reduction) are excluded from participant’s gross income

Participant’s earnings accumulate tax free until withdrawn

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328
Q

Income exclusion

A

If an EE contributes to a 403(b), the contributions are excluded from RR’s gross income for that year. The contribution is not counted as income, resulting in lower current income taxes

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329
Q

403(b) investments

A

Usual investments

GICs (guaranteed insurance contracts)

NOT life insurance

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330
Q

403(b) eligibility

A

EEs of qualified institutions must be 21 and have completed 1 year of service

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331
Q

403(b) plan requirements

A

Plan must be in writing and made through a plan instrument, a trust agreement , or both

ER must remit plan contributions to an annuity contract, mutual fund, or another approved investment

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332
Q

403(b) limit

A

For 2012, limit is $17,500 with a $5,500 catch-up provision

For ER contributions, maximum is the lesser of 100% of EE’s compensation or $50,000 per year

Same distribution rules as other qualified plans

ERISA guidelines for the regulation of all retirement plans

Eligibility- if a company offers a plan, all EEs must be covered if:

  1. They work 1000 hrs./yr.
  2. they are 21 or older
  3. have 1 yr. of service
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333
Q

ERISA guidelines for the regulation of all retirement plans

A

· Funds contributed to the plan must be segregated from other corporate assets

· Trustees have a fiduciary responsibility to invest prudently

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334
Q

ERISA vesting

A

EEs must be entitled to their entire retirement benefit amounts within a certain time, even if they no longer work for the ER

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335
Q

ERISA communication

A

Plan must be in writing

EEs must be kept informed of plan benefits, availability, account status, & vesting annually

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336
Q

ERISA nondiscrimination

A

A uniformly applied formula determines EE benefits and contributions

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337
Q

ERISA

A

Also known as Pension Reform Act

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338
Q

ERISA

A

ERISA regulations apply to private sector plans only. Plans for federal or state government works are not subject to ERISA

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339
Q

Uniform Prudent Investor Act (UPIA) of 1994

A

Was an attempt to update trust investment laws
Growing acceptance of modern portfolio theory
Standard of prudence is applied to any investment as part of the total portfolio, rather than just to individual investments

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340
Q

UPIA

A

Risk-return trade-off in all investments is considered
All categorical restrictions on types of investments have been removed
Diversification has been integrated into the definition of prudent investing
Investment functions can be delegated

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341
Q

UPIA

A

· Trustee must invest & manage trust assets as a prudent investor considering everything
· Decisions must be evaluated in the context of the total portfolio & overall strategy
· Examines economic conditions, inflation or deflation, tax consequences, role that each asset plays, expected total return, other resources of beneficiaries

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342
Q

UPIA

A

Trustee who has special skills or expertise and is named trustee is held to the stringent prudent expert standard for one acting as a professional money manager

Trustees may delegate investment and management functions, but must do so with care selecting adviser, establishing scope of delegation, monitoring performance, etc.

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343
Q

ERISA Section 404

A

For each person who acts as a fiduciary has to perform duties as specified in plan document
Trustees cannot delegate fiduciary duties, but can delegate investment management to a qualified manager

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344
Q

ERISA 404

A

Fiduciaries must:

  1. Act solely in the interest of plan participants and beneficiaries
  2. Other standard items
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345
Q

Noncontributory plan

A

Only the ER contributed

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346
Q

Annual review

A

it is highly recommended that advisors perform annual reviews with their clients to ensure that all recommendations remain suitable

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347
Q

investment policy statements: objectives – return requirements

A

· minimum annual income requirements;

· accumulation amount needed to meet financial goals, and so forth

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348
Q

Investment policy statements: objectives – risk tolerance

A

investors risk tolerance based on self-evaluation, objective questionnaire, and past experience

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349
Q

Investment policy statements: constraints – time horizon

A

timeframe in which goals must be obtained

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350
Q

Investment policy statements: constraints – liquidity

A

what is cash need?
For defined benefit plans, this may be high;
for individual retirement plans, this may be low

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351
Q

Investment policy statements: constraints – taxes

A

tax characteristics event investor and desired level of tax management

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352
Q

Investment policy statements: constraints – laws and regulations

A

any legal prohibitions on types of investments or transactions

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353
Q

Investment policy statements: constraints – unique circumstances and/or preferences

A

investor preferences or desires to avoid particular types of assets

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354
Q

Trust accounts

A

a trust is a legal entity that offers flexibility to an individual who wishes to transfer property
trust may be established for a variety of personal and charitable property transfers
trusts are also establish as the legal entity for corporate retirement plan
the prudent investor rule is an outgrowth of defining trustee responsibilities

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355
Q

Trust parties

A

for trust to be valid, three parties must be specified in the trust document
these parties are a settlor, a trustee, and a beneficiary
under certain circumstances the settlor, trustee, and beneficiary may be the same individual
for trust to be valid and the trustee must be competent parties
however, the beneficiary may be a minor or a legally incompetent adult

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356
Q

The settlor

A

· the settlor is the person who supplies the property for the trust
· trust property is also referred to as its principal or corpus
· settlor is also known as the maker, grantor, trustor, or donor

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357
Q

trustee

A

· the trustee is an individual or other party holding legal title to property held for the benefit of another person
· the trustee must administer the trust by following directions in a trust document or in a will
· the trustee must perform certain duties relative to the trust property

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358
Q

trustee

A

· the trustee is a fiduciary and is obliged to perform in the interests of the beneficiaries
· the trustee may be one or more adult individuals or entity in the business of trusteeship that is responsible for investing administering and distributing trust assets for the benefit of the beneficiary

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359
Q

trustee

A

· in many ways a trustee’s duties are like those of an executor for an estate
· however I trustee’s duties generally continue for more time than a typical estate settlement, and the trustee is charged with greater duty of investing trust assets

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360
Q

beneficiary

A

a person for whose benefit property is held in trust
a beneficiary is one who receives or is designated to receive benefits from property transferred by trustor
there is no requirement that the beneficiary hold legal capacity

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361
Q

beneficiary

A

thus the beneficiary of a trust may be one or more minors or an adult individual declared legally incompetent
although it does not happen often, the grantor of the trust can also be the trustee and/or the beneficiary

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362
Q

contingent beneficiary

A

an individual whose benefit depends on the occurrence of an event usually someone’s death

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363
Q

remainderman

A

what a trust is run its course and all expenses and distributions have been made, the person who receives the remaining balance is call the remainderman
the most common case involves real estate

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364
Q

Simple trusts

A

all income earned on assets placed into a simple trust must be distributed during the year it is receive
if the trust does not distribute all of its net income at least annually, the trust is a complex trust the trustee is not empowered to distribute the trust principal from a simple trust

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365
Q

Complex trust

A

a complex trust may accumulate income
at complex trust is permitted deductions for distributions of net income or principal
capital gains are deemed part of the distributable net income of a complex trust unless reinvested
furthermore the trustee may distribute trust principal according to trust terms

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366
Q

Complex trust versus simple trust

A

the key difference between a simple and a complex trust is that the simple trust must distribute all of its annual income, whereas a complex trust is not obligated to do so

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367
Q

Living trust

A

a living trust, also known as an inter-vivos trust, is established during the maker’s lifetime
a testamentary trust is established according to the instructions of a will – that is, not with the death of the maker

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368
Q

testamentary trust

A

· the settlor retains control over the assets until he dies
· the individuals will specifies that, at death, the testator’s property is to be placed in trust for the benefit of one or more beneficiaries
· the testamentary trust does not reduce the grantor’s income or estate tax exposure
· furthermore assets that passed to a testamentary trust to not avoid probate because the validity of the wills instructions to pass property to the trust must be substantiated probate court

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369
Q

Revocable trusts

A

· a revocable trust must be a living trust because only the living grantor has the power to change or revoke the trust
· at the grantor’s death, the trust becomes irrevocable because the individual with the power to change or revoke the trust no longer lives
· no estate tax benefit is available for revocable living trust
· the value of any trust assets in which the grantor retains power to revoke the trust and again own the trust property out right is includable in the grantor’s gross estate

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370
Q

Irrevocable trust

A

for trust to be considered irrevocable the settlor must give up all ownership and property transferred into the trust
property placed in in a revocable trust is usually not includable in the trustor’s estate for federal estate tax purposes
certain exceptions to the general rule can jeopardize the effectiveness of an irrevocable trust to reduce estate taxes

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371
Q

Exceptions to the general rules of irrevocable trusts

A

the grantor retains a life interest, or life income
the grantor retained a reversionary interest in the trust that is considered more than incidental. Reversionary interest means, without getting overly complicated that the grantor may receive property back from the trust. Under tax law the grantor is treated as the owner of any portion of a trust in which he has a reversionary interest in either the corpus or the income if the value of the interest exceeds 5% of the value of that portion.
The grantor retained general power to direct to home trust property will pass.
The grantor transfers one or more life insurance policies into an irrevocable trust while retaining certain incidents of ownership including the ability to make loans from policy cash values and or beneficiaries

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372
Q

Grantor

A

the grantor retains a life interest, or life income

the grantor retained a reversionary interest in the trust that is considered more than incidental. Reversionary interest means, without getting overly complicated that the grantor may receive property back from the trust. Under tax law the grantor is treated as the owner of any portion of a trust in which he has a reversionary interest in either the corpus or the income if the value of the interest exceeds 5% of the value of that portion.

The grantor retained general power to direct to home trust property will pass.

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373
Q

Grantor

A

The grantor transfers one or more life insurance policies into an irrevocable trust while retaining certain incidents of ownership including the ability to make loans from policy cash values and or beneficiaries

designed to pass assets to beneficiaries – usually children in a way to minimize gift and/or estate taxes

the grantor transfers property into a trust (a GRAT) that provides that the grantor will receive each year a fixed annuity usually for term of years

at the end of the term the remainder beneficiaries will get whatever’s left the gift involves equals the theoretical value of the remainder determined by using the discount rate specified in IRS tables

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374
Q

Grantor

A

if the assets of the trust earn more than the IRS rate, any earnings in excess of that rate could go to the beneficiary free of estate and gift taxes

however the grantor dies during the term of the trust the remaining assets are considered part of the deceased estate

even though this is technically in a revocable trust because the guarantor has a retained interest the tax liability of the trust income falls on the grantor

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375
Q

Distributable net income (DNI)

A

because of the onerous tax implications, most trusts and estates distribute their income

taxable income is known as distributable net income

DNI determines the amount of income that may be taxable to beneficiaries or the grantor in the case of a living trust, whereas the balance may be taxed to the trust as indicated above

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376
Q

Bypass Trust

A

Is an estate planning tool used to take advantage of the lifetime estate tax exclusion

It is commonly used between two spouses

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377
Q

Unified credit

A

The first 3.5 million of estate does not incur an estate tax

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378
Q

Generation Skipping Trust (GST)

A

$ goes to grandchildren or great-grandchildren without estate tax

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379
Q

Direct skip

A

When the assets, either directly, through an estate, or through a trust, are left to a beneficiary at least two generations below the transferor

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380
Q

Direct skip

A

with the direct skip, the donor or the donor’s estate, the executor pays a generation skipping transfer tax (GSTT)

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381
Q

taxable termination

A

applies when a trust is terminated and pays out the remainder of its funds

under a taxable termination, the trustee is responsible for paying the GSTT

a termination is just reviewed the principal and, if applicable accumulate income to a trust beneficiary who is a skip person, the most common case of this is when a skip person is the contingent beneficiary of someone in the generation above who is now passed away typically that persons parent

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382
Q

taxable distribution

A

means any distribution from the trust to person (other than a taxable termination or direct skip).

With a taxable distribution, the recipient is required to pay the GSTT

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383
Q

GRAT

A

One of the risks in setting up a GRAT is that if the grantor dies during the term of the trust (usually 3-10 years), the assets put in the GRAT, plus any appreciation are included in her estate

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384
Q

Estate account

A

a custodial account that, like a trust account, is directed by an executive or on behalf of the beneficiary or beneficiaries of an estate

if intestate, these functions are performed by a court appointed administrator

the executor or administrator makes the investment, management, and distribution decisions for the account

the taxation on undistributed income of an estate is the same as that of trusts and the tax is computed on form 1041

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385
Q

per stirpes

A

Latin for per branch

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386
Q

trust suitability issues

A

the trust document will usually spell out the trust objectives, and these must be followed

in the case of an estate, the will must be followed

tax considerations conflicts between the grantor and the beneficiary may exist

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387
Q

Partnerships

A

is a business formed under a partnership agreement that identifies the goals and purpose of the partnership

partnerships are easy to form an easy to dissolve, but are generally not suited for raising large sums of capital

partnerships allow the business’s profits and losses to flow directly through to the investors for tax purposes, thus avoiding double taxation of profits at the business and individual levels

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388
Q

Limited partnership

A

the management (a liability) is assigned to the general partner while the limited partners are passive and have liability limited to their investment

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389
Q

limited liability company (LLC)

A

is a business structure that combines the benefits of incorporation (limited liability) with the tax advantages of a partnership (flow-through of taxable earnings)

the LLC owners are members (not shareholders) and are not personally liable for the debts of the LLC

the objectives and financial constraints of the individual members must be considered from a suitability standpoint

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390
Q

S corporations

A

although taxed like a partnership, S corporations offer investors the limited liabilities associated with corporations in general

profits and losses are passed through directly to shareholders in proportion to their ownership in the S Corporation

unlike in LLC which can have unlimited number of members, an S corporation may not have more than 100 shareholders, none of whom may be a nonresident alien, or more than one class of stock (presumably common)

losses on S corporation stock may be claimed only to the extent of investor’s basis shares

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391
Q

S corporations

A

loss is limited to the amount of the investor’s basis

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392
Q

C corporations

A

a business structure that distinguishes the company as a separate entity from its owners

officers and directors are shielded from personal liability for the corporation’s debts and losses in most circumstances

creditors cannot reach the shareholders assets to satisfy the corporation’s debts

income tax applies to the corporation as an entity rather than being passed through to the shareholder

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393
Q

C corporations

A

earnings are subject to double taxation

before distribution, earnings are taxable to the corporation and then are taxed again to the shareholder when they are paid out as dividends

distributions from LLCs and S corporations are taxed only once because there is no taxation at the business entity level

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394
Q

Sole proprietorship

A

the easiest business to set up, especially if you don’t expect much liability

because the business and the owner are inseparable, there is unlimited liability

no limits to the amount of loss that may be claimed on the proprietor’s tax return

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395
Q

Business structures

A

Partnerships and LLC’s are generally easier to form and dissolve than a C Corporation

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396
Q

Partnerships, LLCs, and S corporations

A

Benefits of structuring a business as a general partnership, and LLC, or an S corporation would include no double taxation as is the case with the C Corporation

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397
Q

C corporations

A

A company that expects to be very profitable should be a C corporation instead of a partnership, and LLC, or an S corporation because in those three all earnings passed through to owners – nothing can be retained

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398
Q

C corporations

A

the only logical choice were a large amount of capital is to be raised is a C corporation

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399
Q

Business structures

A

only the sulfur partnership in the C Corporation are taxed on their income

the sole proprietorship on his personal income tax and the Corporation on a Form 1120

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400
Q

Business structures

A

it is a limited liability owners as well as low income or loss are the limited partnership, LLC, an S corporation.

The C Corporation has limited liability but no flow-through

the sole proprietorship and general partnership have flow-through but unlimited liability

Corporations (including LLCs) survive the death of their owners (even if there’s only one shareholder in an S Corporation or C Corporation, or one member of the LLC)

when it comes to transferability of ownership, the corporate form, especially the C Corporation, is the preferred choice (selling shares is usually pretty straightforward).

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401
Q

Sole proprietors

A

file their tax returns and business information on a Schedule C

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402
Q

LLCs and shareholders of S corporations

A

receive a Form K – 1 to report their income

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403
Q

C corporations

A

report their income on a Form 1120

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404
Q

Negotiable jumbo CDs

A

trade in the money market

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405
Q

Capital appreciation

A

Large cap stocks

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406
Q

Growth

A

Balance/moderate growth- large cap stocks, defensive stocks

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407
Q

Aggressive growth

A

Technology stocks, sector funds, or cyclical stocks

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408
Q

Bank Insured CDs

A

Eliminate interest rate risk (their value remains constant, even when interest rates change)

They are not savings accounts with a maturity date

They would be included as an asset on a family balance sheet

The preferred answer when a client wants capital preservation with no risk of loss

FDIC- insured

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409
Q

1st choice for preservation of capital

A

Bank insured CDs

They are not marketable and therefore have no interest rate risk

Their value is fixed and you can always redeem them at face value, regardless of direction of interest rates

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410
Q

For current income, investors typically want:

A

Government bonds- greatest safety

Corporate bonds and notes and funds- high yield income

Municipal bonds and funds- tax free income

Preferred stock and utility stocks- from a stock portfolio

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411
Q

Speculation

A

Highly volatile stocks;

High-yield (junk bonds);

Stock or index options;

Commodity futures

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412
Q

College tuition

A

Zero coupon bonds in 529s or Coverdell ESAs

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413
Q

Term insurance

A

Younger people are better off purchasing term insurance because the lower premiums offer them significantly more protection

For those 60 and older, the rates are generally prohibitive

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414
Q

Life insurance tax implications

A

Premiums are non-deductible

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415
Q

Municipal bonds

A

Income is tax-free

Capital gains are fully taxable

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416
Q

Liquidity

A

Money market funds

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417
Q

Asset allocation

A

Spreading of portfolio funds among different asset classes

Proponents feel that the mix of assets within a portfolio is the primary factor underlying the variability of returns in portfolio performance

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418
Q

Asset allocation

A

Three major asset classes:

Stocks (with subclasses based on market capitalization, value vs. growth, and foreign equity)

Bonds (with subclasses based on maturity (intermediate vs. long term) and issuer

Cash (focusing mainly on the standard risk-free investment- the 90-day T-bill, & other short term investments)

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419
Q

Strategic asset allocation

A

proportion of various types of investments composing a long-term portfolio

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420
Q

Standard asset allocation model

A

standard asset allocation model suggests subtracting a person’s age from 100 to determine the percentage of the portfolio to be invested in stacks. According to this map, a 30 year-old would be 70% invested in stocks and 30% in bonds and cash; a 70 year old would be invested 30% in stock’s with the remainder in bonds and cash.

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421
Q

Constant ratio plan (strategic asset allocation)

A

investment plan that attempts to maintain the type of relationship between debt and equity (or other asset classes)

periodically, the account is rebalanced to bring it back to the desired ratio

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422
Q

Constant dollar plan (strategic asset allocation)

A

under this investment plan, the goal is to maintain a constant dollar amount in stacks moving money in and out of the money market fund when necessary

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423
Q

tactical asset allocation

A

tactical asset allocation refers to short-term portfolio adjustments that adjust the portfolio mix between asset classes in consideration of current market conditions

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424
Q

Tactical asset case

A

tactical asset allocation refers to short term portfolio adjustments that adjust the portfolio mix between asset classes in consideration of current market conditions

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425
Q

Active management style

A

active management relies on the manager’s stock picking and market timing ability to outperform market indexes

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426
Q

Passive management style

A

a passive portfolio manager believes that no particular management style consistently outperform market averages and therefore constructs a portfolio that mirrors a market index

passive portfolio management seeks low-cost means of generating consistent, long-term returns with minimal turnover

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427
Q

Passive management style

A

passive portfolio management is very similar to strategic asset allocation

the same could be said about the relationship between active management and tactical asset allocation

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428
Q

growth

A

Growth portfolio manager is using the gross style of management focus on stocks of companies whose earnings are growing faster than most other stocks and are expected to continue to do so

because rapid growth in earnings is often priced into the stock’s, growth investment managers are likely to buy stocks that are at the high end of their 52-week price range

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429
Q

value

A

· portfolio managers using the value style of management concentrate on undervalued or out-of-favor securities whose price is low relative to the company’s earnings or book value

· and whose earnings prospects are believed to be unattractive by investors in securities analysts

430
Q

growth versus value

A

growth managers expect to see high P/E ratios with little or no dividends

value managers expect to see low P/E ratios and dividends offering a reasonable yield

another sign of a value stock is a large cash surplus sometimes referred to as a rainy day fund

431
Q

Market capitalization

A

large cap – more than $10 billion

mid-cap – $2 billion-$10 billion

small-cap - $300 million – $2 billion

microcap – less than $300 million

432
Q

Economics

A

in a strong economy, small, fast-moving companies with concentrated product line in a fast-growing sector can dramatically outperform larger, more bureaucratic companies

433
Q

Buy and hold technique

A

can be used with any investment style

rarely trades in the portfolio, which results in lower transaction costs and lower long-term capital gains

low expense ratios in the mutual fund

classic passive strategy

easiest to implement and follow

434
Q

Indexing

A

constructed to mirror the components of a particular stock index

costs of managing the portfolio a relatively low

tend to be more tax efficient

with the advent of index funds and ETF’s this is become very popular strategy

435
Q

Portfolio diversification

A

reduces unsystematic risk, such as business risk, and enhances returns

436
Q

Contrarian

A

a contrarian is an investment manager who takes positions opposite that of other managers or in opposition to general market beliefs

437
Q

Bond strategies

A

the goal is to mitigate the effects of interest rate fluctuations on the value of the principal, the income received, or both

three strategies are: the barbell strategy, the bullet strategy, and the laddering strategy

All three are considered active rather than passive

438
Q

Dollar cost averaging

A

reduces timing risk

in a fluctuating market the average cost per share is lower than the average price per share

439
Q

Timing risk

A

the risk that all of your money will be invested at a market top

440
Q

Dollar cost averaging

A

is designed to reduce the investors average cost to choir a security over the buying. Relative to its average price

441
Q

Income reinvestment

A

mutual funds normally allowed dividends, interest, and capital gains to be automatically reinvested in fund shares at the net asset value per share

442
Q

Dividend reinvestment plans

A

some corporations offer the shareholders the opportunity to purchase additional stop using their cash dividend

under most dividend reinvestment plans (DRIPs), the shareholder is entitled to purchase the additional shares directly from the issuer and little or no commission and often at a discount to the market price

443
Q

Taxation of reinvested distributions

A

distributions are taxable to shareholders whether the distributions are taken cash or reinvested

the issuer must disclose whether each distribution comes from income or realized capital gains

form 1099s which is sent to shareholders after the close of the year details tax information related to distributions for the

444
Q

Effect of reinvestments on cost basis

A

the taxes have already been paid on any income reinvested, when the investor sells the asset cost basis is increased so that the income is not taxed again

445
Q

Sole proprietorships

A

the simplest business for, but offer no liability protection for the owner

the only form of business where the potential losses on limited because the personal assets of the owner are at risk in addition to any assets owned by the business

the owner computes the earnings of the business on schedule C of her form 1047 anything made or lost by the business is reflected directly on her tax return

446
Q

Partnerships

A

relatively easy to form and dissolve

two types: both offer low through her income in taxes, the difference being in the degree of liability

Gen. partnerships provide no liability protection to the partners

limited partner’s maximum loss is what has already been invested plus any funds committed for but not yet contributed

447
Q

Gen. partnerships

A

provide no liability protection to the partners

if the business fails, they, collectively and separate are liable for any losses

448
Q

Limited partnerships

A

the liability is limited

maximum loss is what has already been invested plus any funds committed for not yet contributed

449
Q

Partnerships in taxes

A

partnerships do not pay taxes

they file an information return, a form 1065, and attach to that (and send a copy to each partner) a Form K-1 indicating the amount of income (or loss to be inserted on the investor’s personal Form 1040

450
Q

Limited liability company (LLC)

A

somewhat of a hybrid between the partnership and the Corporation

federal government does not recognize an LLC as a classification for tax purposes

most file as a Corporation, a partnership, or so partnership

one member LLC will use the schedule C, just as if they were so partnership

those with two or more members invariably filed partnerships using the form 1065 to provide the IRS with the information in the form K – one for each member’s share of income or loss

the following is a Corporation, they will generally five as an S Corporation

451
Q

Corporations

A

C Corporation

S Corporation

452
Q

C Corporation

A

the only entity that actually files a tax return on which it must pay income tax

the files on form 1120 and pays taxes at a rate that generally does not exceed 35%

its dividends are paid out after paying income taxes and then that dividend is taxable to the shareholder

hence the term “double- taxation”

453
Q

S Corporation (Subchapter S corporation)

A

is treated for tax purposes the same as a partnership except that the returned file is the form 1120S

shareholders receive a form K – one indicating their share of income or loss

just as with the LLC in partnership, the business entities not tax; everything flows through to the
is treated for tax purposes the same as a partnership except that the returned file is the form 1120S

454
Q

Dividend exclusion rule

A

.

455
Q

Dividend exclusion rule

A

dividends paid from one corporation to another are 70% exempt from taxation

a corporation that receives dividends on stocks of other domestic and certain qualified foreign corporations, therefore pay taxes only on 30% of the dividends received this avoids triple taxation to invest

456
Q

Municipal securities

A

like individual taxpayers, corporations do not pay federal taxes on interest received from this

457
Q

Individual income taxes

A

function as either regressive progressive

458
Q

Regressive taxes

A

sales, excise, payroll, property, and gasoline taxes

are levied at the same rate regardless of income

represent a small percentage of income for wealthy taxpayers than poor ones

consume a larger fraction of the income of the poor

459
Q

Progressive taxes

A

estate and income taxes

increase the tax rate as income increases

costly to people with high incomes and people with low incomes

460
Q

Earned income

A

salary, bonuses, and income derived from active participation in a trade or business

461
Q

Alimony

A

payment made under a divorce court order or under a legal separation agreement to an ex-spouse

maybe paid directly to the ex-spouse or to a third party on the ex-spouses behalf (spouse’s IRA or life insurance policy, etc.)

alimony payments, within limits, generally deductible to the spouse making the payments and includable in income for tax purposes by the spouse receiving

462
Q

Child support

A

a legal obligation of the parent to provide financial support for child

not deductible by the parent who pays in

not includable as income by the recipient

463
Q

Child support

A

for purposes of an IRA contribution, alimony is considered eligible income while child support is not

464
Q

Passive income

A

passive income and losses come from rental property, limited partnerships, and enterprises in which an individual does not actively participate

for the general partner, income from a limited partnership is earned income;

for the limited partner, the income is passive

passive income is netted against passive losses to determine net taxable income

passive losses may be used to offset only passive income

465
Q

Personal use of a vacation property

A

you’re considered to use a dwelling unit is a home and not as a business if you use it for personal purposes during the tax year for more than the greater of 14 days or 10% of the total days is rented to others at a fair rental price

466
Q

Portfolio income

A

includes dividends, interest, and net capital gains derived from the sale of securities

no matter what the source of the income, is taxable year in which it is received

467
Q

Dividend income

A

if the dividend qualifies, the tax rate is a maximum of 15%

otherwise the dividend is taxed at ordinary income tax rates

468
Q

Interest income

A

is always taxed at ordinary income tax rates

469
Q

Alternative minimum tax

A

insurers that high income taxpayers did not escape federal income taxes

certain items that receive favorable tax treatment must be added back into taxable income for the AMT and include the following:

accelerated depreciation on property placed in service before 1986

certain costs associated with limited partnership programs, such as research and development costs in excess intangible drilling costs

local tax and interest on investments that do not generate income

tax exempt interest on private purpose municipal bonds issued after August 7, 1986

incentive stock options to the extent that fair market value of employer stock is in excess of the strike price of the

470
Q

Margin expenses

A

margin interest is a tax-deductible expense

the one exception is interest expenses incurred in the purchase of municipal securities

because musical interest income is federally tax-exempt, the IRS does not allow taxpayers to deduct the margin interest expenses for municipal securities

investors can deduct interest expenses for other securities, including margin account interest, to the extent they do not exceed their net investment income, which includes interest income, dividends, and all capital gain

471
Q

AMT computation

A

items that must be added back in for the purpose of the AMT computation are sometimes called tax preference items

if the tax liability computed under the AMT computation is greater than the taxpayer’s regular tax application, the taxpayer must pay the AMT amount

472
Q

Effective tax rate vs. marginal tax rate

A

the marginal tax rate is the rate you pay on each additional dollar you receive in income

the effective tax rate, however is the overall rate of tax you pay on your total taxable income

473
Q

Tax filing status

A

the choice of filing status one makes as a major impact on the amount of taxes levied

there are five different filing statuses:

single

married filing jointly

married filing separately

head of household

qualifying widow(er) with dependent child

474
Q

Tax filing status

A

filing status is determined by your marital status as of the last day of the year

if more than one filing status applies the tax payer, the IRS suggests using the one resulting in the lowest tax obligation

generally that will be for married filing jointly

for those who are not married, if qualifying, the lowest rate is usually obtained by filing his pedophiles (?). This must be wrong!

475
Q

Tax filing status

A

in the case of a single parent with dependent children, it would generally be most advantageous to use the filing status and of household

476
Q

Adjusting cost basis

A

IRS requires the cost basis to be adjusted for stock splits and stock dividends

Stock dividends reduce the cost basis

477
Q

Net capital gains and losses

A

Capital losses that exceed capital gains are deductible against earned income up to a maximum of $3,000 per year

Any capital losses not deducted in a taxable year may be carried forward indefinitely as a deduction to offset capital gains in future years

478
Q

Determining which shares to sell

A

If the investor fails to choose, the IRS chooses FIFO

479
Q

Share identification Method

A

Investor keeps track of each share purchased & uses the info to liquidate shares that would provide the lowest capital gain

480
Q

Average cost basis method

A

Investor calculates the average basis by dividing the total cost of all shares owned by the total number of shares

The investor may not change the decision to use the average basis method without IRS permission

481
Q

Share identification method

A

Share identification may result in a more advantageous tax treatment, but most accountants prefer the convenience of the average method for mutual fund shares

Share identification is most commonly used with stock shares

482
Q

Wash sale

A

An investor may not use capital losses to offset gains or income if the taxpayer sells a security at a loss and purchases the same or a substantially identical security within 30 days before or after the trade date establishing the loss.

The sale at a loss and the repurchase within this period is called a wash sale

483
Q

Substantially identical securities- equity

A

Include stock rights, call options, warrants, and convertible securities of the same issue

484
Q

Substantially identical securities- debt

A

Maturity, coupon, and issuer

After selling a bond, an investor can buy another bond with a different maturity, coupon, or issuer without violating the wash sale rule

485
Q

Wash sale rule

A

Applies only to realized losses- not realized gains

486
Q

Wash sale- bonds

A

An investor could sell an ABC 8% bonds that matures in 2030 at a loss and buy back and ABC 8% bond that matures in 2031 and claim the loss

This is called tax-swapping

487
Q

Carryover basis

A

When a donor makes a gift of securities or virtually any asset, the cost basis to the recipient (donee) is the donor’s cost basis. This describes carryover basis

488
Q

Inherited securities

A

When a person dies and leaves securities to heirs, the cost basis to the recipients is usually the fair market value on the date of the owner’s death

In other words, the cost basis steps up to the date of death value

489
Q

Step up cost basis

A

Step up provision does not apply when inheriting an annuity

490
Q

Sale of a primary residence

A

If you have lived in home for at least 2 of the past 5 years, 1st $500,000 of gain is excluded

For singles, 1st $250,000 is excluded

491
Q

Marital deduction

A

An individual may transfer an unlimited amount to a spouse who is a US citizen without the imposition of federal estate tax

492
Q

Estate tax

A

An individual may transfer unlimited amounts of $ and other property to eligible charity with no federal income tax

493
Q

Estate tax

A

For heirs other than spouses, an estate tax credit will offset estate tax on transfers up to $5 million

494
Q

Gross estate

A

All interests in property held by an individual at the time of death

Amounts transferred to a spouse or charity not subject to federal tax, but still included in calculating the gross estate

495
Q

Adjusted Gross Estate (AGE)

A

Certain expenses are deducted from the gross estate to arrive at the adjusted gross estate

Includes funeral expenses, charitable contributions, and debts of the decedent

496
Q

Taxable estate

A

Adjusted gross income (AGE) – unlimited marital and charitable deductions = taxable estate

497
Q

Alternative valuation date

A

IRC provides that the executor of the estate may decide to value the assets in the estate as of the date or death or, alternatively, six months later

498
Q

Fair market value

A

The price at which property will change hands between a willing buyer and a willing seller, neither being under any compulsion to buy or to sell and both having reasonable knowledge of relevant facts

499
Q

Estate tax filing due date

A

Regardless of whether the date of death or alternative valuation method is used, estate taxes are due no later than 9 months after the date of death

You can file an extension, but interest will be charged

500
Q

IRS Form 706

A

Estate tax form

From gross assets, certain expenses are deducted and taxes are levied on the remaining taxable estate

501
Q

Gift tax

A

A federal tax imposed on the transfer of property during the lifetime of the donor

$5 million can be transferred without incurring gift tax

Individuals can give up to $13,000 per year to any number of individuals without generating gift tax

$26,000 per year per couple

This is not the same as the cost basis of a gift

502
Q

Gift to a non-citizen spouse

A

Maximum gift for tax exclusion is $139,000

503
Q

Gift tax

A

Responsibility of the owner, not the receiver

504
Q

Gift tax

A

Filed on Form 709

505
Q

Gift tax

A

Return must be filed whenever a gift in excess of $13,000 (or whatever the annual exclusion is at the time of the gift) is made to any individual (other than a spouse)

Filed on Form 709

506
Q

Taxation on foreign securities

A

Dividend and interest income received from foreign securities are normally subject to 15% withholding by issuer’s country of domicile

Can generally take the tax withheld and use as a credit on US income tax due

507
Q

AMT

A

Only accelerated depreciation is a tax preference item for calculating AMT

Straight line deprecation is not a tax preference item for not calculating AMT

Accelerated depreciation on items placed in service after 1986

508
Q

Dividend income

A

Considered portfolio income, not passive income by the IRS

509
Q

Family balance sheet

A

Balance sheet contains assets and liabilities at a specific point in time

Not expense items

510
Q

Distributable net income (DNI)

A

Dividends + interest + capital gains that have not been reinvested back into the trust

511
Q

New account approval

A

A partner or principal of the firm must approve every new account in writing on the account form before or promptly after the completion of the first transaction in the account

512
Q

New account form information

A

Required by the USA Patriot Act of 2001

· Full name

· DOB

· Address and telephone numbers

· SSN

513
Q

Suitability- Incomplete information

A

· A broker/dealer’s only response to incomplete information is to open the account, but only accept unsolicited orders. It does not have enough information to make recommendations. Function of a B/D is to execute transactions

· An investment adviser must refuse the account because it is its function to provide advice which it cannot do without the requisite suitability information

514
Q

Signature Cards

A

Not legally required to complete one, but the card provides protection & convenience allowing the customer to send written orders to the rep who can verify the order’s accuracy.

515
Q

Power of attorney (discretionary power)

A

Allows a party other than the owner to make investment decisions for the account without consulting the account owner. A signed copy of the document must be kept on file

516
Q

Mailing instructions

A

Customers must give specific mailing instructions when opening an account

517
Q

Account records

A

IARs must maintain records for each customer’s account in each securities holding.

All customer transactions are posted daily and kept in the branch.

518
Q

Account records

A

Required information includes the following:

· the customer’s name, address, and telephone number

· the type of account and account number

· the customer’s investment objective

· a list of all securities deposited with the firm

· a list of all transactions

519
Q

Cash accounts

A

Customers pay the full purchase price of securities by the transaction settlement date

520
Q

Margin accounts

A

Customers may borrow part of the securities purchase price from the broker-dealer.

521
Q

Cash accounts

A

A cash account is the basic investment account, and anyone eligible to open an investment account can open one.

In a cash account a customer must pay in full for any securities purchased

522
Q

Certain accounts may only be opened as cash accounts

A

· personal retirement accounts, such as IRAs, Keoghs, and TSAs;

· corporate retirement accounts; and

· custodial accounts, such as UGMAs

523
Q

Margin accounts

A

The term margin refers to the minimum amount of cash or margin of all securities a customer must deposit to buy securities

524
Q

Margin accounts

A

If a customer has fully paid securities in an account and needs cash, a broker-dealer is permitted to lend money against those securities up to the margin limit that the Federal Reserve Board (FRB) has set.

525
Q

Margin accounts

A

Customers who open margin accounts must meet certain minimal suitability requirements. The customer may then buy securities on margin and pay interest on the borrowed funds. The securities purchased are held in street name as collateral for the margin loan.

526
Q

Margin accounts

A

Margin accounts when buying on margin, investors are using financial leverage, increasing the potential for gain or loss by using borrowed funds.

527
Q

Documenting a margin account

A

The customer signs a margin agreement, which includes:

· the required credit agreement

· hypothecation agreement

· and an optional loan consent

528
Q

Documenting a margin account

A

Under NASAA policies it is unethical to execute any margin transaction without securing from the customer a properly executed written margin agreement promptly after the initial transaction in the account

529
Q

Margin account agreements/credit agreement

A

Discloses the terms under which credit is extended.

SEC rule 10 B – 16 requires firms to disclose the method of computing interest and the conditions under which interest rates and charges will be changed

Firms must send customers and insurance that statements accounting for interest charges will be sent at least quarterly

530
Q

Margin account agreements/hypothecation agreement

A

Gives the firm permission to pledge (hypothecate) securities held on margin

A mandatory part of a margin agreement

531
Q

Margin account agreements/loan consent (optional)

A

Gives the firm permission to lend securities held in the margin account to other brokers, usually for short sales

It is not mandatory for customers to sign the loan consent agreement

532
Q

Margin call

A

The initial call for funds when making a margin transaction

The margin requirements of Regulation T have been 50% since 1974

533
Q

Maintenance

A

SROs have established minimum levels of equity in a margin account below which a call will go out for additional funds

This is referred to as margin maintenance or a maintenance call

Current SRO levels are 25% for long margin accounts

534
Q

Maintenance call/margin call

A

If the maintenance call is not met, the broker-dealer will liquidate enough securities in the account to bring the equity back to the maintenance level

If there is more than one security in the account the firm can select which to sell

It does not have to be one whose decline triggered the call

535
Q

House maintenance

A

The term used to describe stricter limits imposed by the broker-dealers themselves

Instead of relying on the SRO maintenance level of 25%, the individual firm may require a minimum of 35% or even higher

536
Q

Short sales

A

Short sales must take place in a margin account

537
Q

Mixed margin account

A

When the margin account contains both long and short positions, it is said to be a mixed margin account

538
Q

Net equity

A

computing the equity, sometimes called net equity, in mixed margin accounts is done by calculating the equity for both the Longs and the shorts and combining them

539
Q

Net equity (long)

A

In the long account, the equity is what you own minus which show

CMV long- debit balance = Long equity

540
Q

Net equity (short)

A

In the case of the short position, it is basically the same except the terms are different

What you owe in a short position is the cost to buy back the stock you borrowed

Which you own is the credit balance representing what you received when you sold the stock in the first place

So the equity in a short account is the credit balance minus the current market value of the short stack

Credit balance – CMV = Short equity

541
Q

Margin loan consent

A

A signed loan consent agreement permits the firm to lend the customer’s margin securities. Firms must keep customer margin securities segregated from firm securities- commingling is prohibited

542
Q

Individual account

A

Has one beneficial owner who can:

Control the investments within the account; or request distribution of cash or securities from the account

543
Q

Joint account

A

Owned by two or more adults

Each is allowed some form of control over the account

Generally, suitability information is required on all of the tenants in the account

544
Q

Forms for joint accounts

A

In addition to the new account form, a joint account agreement must be signed, and the account must be designated as either tenants in common (TIC) or joint tenants with right of survivorship (JTWROS)

545
Q

Forms for joint accounts

A

Account forms for joint accounts require the signatures of all owners

Joint account agreements provide that any and all tenants may transact business in the accounts

546
Q

Checks for joint accounts

A

Checks must be made payable to the names in which the account is registered

Checks must be endorsed for deposit by all tenants

Male need only be sent to a single address

547
Q

Joint tenants- good delivery form

A

To be in good delivery form, security soul from a joint account must be signed by all tenants

548
Q

Tenants in common (TIC)

A

Ownership of a TIC account may be divided equally

At the death of an account owner that persons proportionate share is distributed according to the instructions in the decedents will

The TIC agreement may be used by more than two individuals

549
Q

Joint tenants with right of survivorship (JTWROS)

A

Stipulates that a deceased tenants interest in the account passes to the surviving tenant

Regardless of contributions, each JTWROS account owner has an equal and undivided interest in the account

550
Q

Transfer-on-death accounts (TODs)

A

Using a transfer on death account is the simplest way to keep assets held in brokerage accounts from becoming subject to probate upon the client’s death

However the TOD account does not avoid estate taxes if applicable

551
Q

Transfer-on-death accounts (TODs)

A

TOD accounts are available for most types of paper assets such as savings and checking accounts in banks and credit unions certificates of deposit stocks bonds and other securities

The owner, while alive, is the only person with any rights to the property

Upon the owner’s death, the property is immediately transferred for the named beneficiaries, usually without any added cost

552
Q

Transfer-on-death accounts (TODs)

A

The owner has the right to change beneficiaries at any time

Caution: the clients will does not control who inherits the assets in a TOD account so without proper coordination, it could be very difficult to predict who would receive what share of the estate

553
Q

Transfer-on-death accounts (TODs)

A

The only types of accounts that may be opened with a TOD designation are individual accounts and JTWROS accounts

554
Q

Transfer-on-death accounts (TODs)

A

Are sometimes called pay on death (PODs)

555
Q

Partnership accounts

A

Is an unincorporated association of two or more individuals. Partnerships frequently open cash, margin, retirement, and other accounts necessary to conduct business

Partnership must fill out the new account form and provide a partnership agreement stating which of the parties can trade in the account

556
Q

Partnership and corporate accounts on margin

A

If the partnership opens a margin account, the partnership must disclose any investment limitations

Margin account trading is only permissible in partnership and corporate accounts if such trading is expressly stated in the partnership agreement or corporate charter

557
Q

Corporate accounts

A

· a corporate resolution is needed to open a corporate account

· if a company wants to trade on margin the corporate charter must state that margin account trading is permissible

558
Q

Corporate accounts

A

· a member must obtain a copy of the corporate charter and a corporate resolution(with the corporate seal) signed by the Sec. of the Corporation, identifying which officers may trade in the account

· the charter is proof that the corporation exists, and the resolution authorizes both the opening of the account and the officers designated to enter orders

559
Q

Wrap accounts

A

· in a wrap account, a firm charges a fixed fee expressed as an annual percentage for portfolio management and related services

· because a portion of the fee is specifically for investment advice, firms offering wrap accounts must register as investment advisers

· registered Representatives handling these accounts must have either a series 65 or 66 registration/license as an investment advisor representative

560
Q

Third-party accounts

A

Accounts cannot be opened for third parties

However a person can open an account for himself and grant power of attorney to someone else

561
Q

Third-party accounts

A

An adult can open an account for minor with the minor as beneficial owner

An adult cannot open an account for another adult or trade for the account of another adult even a spouse without power of attorney

562
Q

Fiduciary accounts

A

In a fiduciary account, individual grand fiduciary responsibility interest rates for the account, makes all of the investment, management, and distribution decisions, and must manage the account in owner’s best interests

563
Q

Examples of fiduciaries

A

· trustee designated to administer a trust

· executor designated in a decedents will to manage the estate’s affairs

· administrator appointed by the courts to liquidate the estate of a person who died intestate, known as an administrator and intestacy

· Guardian (conservator) designated by the courts to handle a minor’s affairs

· custodian of an UGMA account

· receiver in a bankruptcy

· conservator for an incompetent person

564
Q

Fiduciary trading

A

Any trades the fiduciary enters must be consistent with the trust’s investment objectives

565
Q

State laws and fiduciaries

A

State law often places limits on the actions of the fiduciary

Most states are prudent investor states, which means the fiduciary must act prudently

Other states are legal list dates, which means that the only securities of fiduciary can purchase are those on the state’s legal list

566
Q

Legal list securities

A

Generally, legal list securities must be of investment grade

567
Q

Opening a fiduciary account

A

May require a court certification of the individual’s appointment and authority

And account for a trustee must include a trust agreement detailing the limitations placed on the fiduciary

No documentation of custodial rights or court certification is required for an individual to open a UGMA or UTMA account

568
Q

The two most common fiduciary accounts

A

Trust accounts

Guardian/conservator accounts

569
Q

Trust accounts

A

A copy of the trust agreement is required

Such agreements are usually precise about how the account must be operated

Unless specifically authorized in the agreement margin accounts may not be open for trust accounts

Only cash accounts are permitted

570
Q

Guardian/conservator accounts

A

A copy of the court appointing the Guardian must be obtained

The Guardian is often appointed to oversee and protect the assets of an orphaned child or an incompetent person

571
Q

The principal in representative for fiduciary account must know the following:

A

Proper authorization must be given (1.e., the necessary court documents must be filed with and verified by the broker/dealer).

Speculative transactions are generally not prohibited

Margin accounts are permitted only if the legal documents establishing the fiduciary accounts authorized them

The prudent investor rule requires fiduciaries to make wise and safe investments

A fiduciary may not share any counts profits but may charge a reasonable fee for services

572
Q

Power of attorney

A

If a person was not named on an account is to have trading authority, the customer must have written authorization with the broker/dealer giving that person access to the account

Without this power in writing, no matter how tempting the answer on the exam, activity in the account cannot be created by anyone other than the account owner.

Trading authorization usually takes place in the form of the power of attorney

573
Q

Full power of attorney

A

Allows an individual who is not the owner of the account to:

Deposit or withdraw cash or securities; and/or

Make investment decisions for the account owner

574
Q

Limited power of attorney

A

Limited power of attorney allows an individual to have some, but not total, control over an account

The document specifies the level of access the person may exercise

575
Q

Limited power of attorney

A

Also call limited trading authorization

Allows entering of buy and sell orders but not the withdrawal of funds entry of orders and withdrawal of funds is allowed to full power of attorney is granted new paragraph durable power of attorney

A Fuller limited power may be made “durable” by the grantor of the power

It is designed to provide that a specifically designated person maintains power over the account even upon the grantors incapacitation, whether due to physical or mental causes

Its most common use is when providing for aging parents

However upon the death of either principal to the durable power of attorney, the power is terminated

576
Q

Durable power of attorney

A

Survives the physical or mental incompetence of the grantor but not the death of either party

This means that orders received after the time of death of the grantor, even if the purchase or sale was decided upon prior to death, are not accept

577
Q

Custodial accounts

A

In a custodial account, the custodian for the beneficial owner enters all trades

UGMA and UTMA accounts require an adult or trustee to act as custodian for a minor (the beneficial owner)

Any kind of security or cash may be gifted to the account without limitation

578
Q

UGMA

A

Adopted in 1956 as a convenient way to make gifts of money and securities to minors

579
Q

UTMA

A

Uniform transfer to minors act was adopted in 1986 because a more flexible law than UGMA was desirable

Expands the types of property you can transfer to a minor and provides you can make other types of transfers beside gifts

Nearly all states have adopted UTMA, but people still tend to refer to UGMA out of habit

580
Q

Custodians of UGMA/UTMA accounts

A

Have full control over the minors account and can:

Buy or sell securities;

Exercise rights or warrants: and

Liquidate, trade, or hold securities

The account is not normally used to pay expenses associated with raising a child

581
Q

UGMA/UTMA accounts

A

Accounts may be opened in manage as cash accounts only

A custodian may never purchase securities on margin or pledge them as collateral for a loan

The custodian must reinvest the cash proceeds, dividends, and interest within a reasonable period of time

Cash proceeds may be held in interest-bearing custodial account for reasonable time

Investment decisions must consider minors age custodial relationship examples of inappropriate investments are commodities futures, naked options, and high risk securities

Options may not be bought in a custodial account because no evidence of ownership is issued to an options buyer

Covered call writing is normally allowed

Stock subscription rights or warrants must be either exercise or sell

Custodians may be reimbursed for reasonable expenses incurred in managing the account compensation may be pay to the custodian unless the custodian is also the owner

582
Q

Donating securities

A

When a person makes a gift to securities to a minor under the UGMA/UTMA laws, that person is the securities donor

583
Q

Indefeasible title

A

A gift under the UGMA/UTMA conveys in indefeasible title/that is, the donor may not take the gift back

Nor may the minor return the gift until the minor has reached the age of majority

Once a gift is donated the donor gives up all rights to the property

When the minor reaches the specified age, the property and the count is transferred into the minor’s name

584
Q

UGMA/UTMA rules

A

All rules are irrevocable. Gifts may be in the form of cash or fully paid securities

And account may only have one custodian and one minor or beneficial owner

A donor of securities can act as custodian or a point someone to do so

Unless they are acting as custodians, parents have no legal control over an UGMA/UTMA account or the securities in its

A minor can be the beneficiary of more than one account and a person may serve as custodian for more than one UGMA/UTMA, provided each account benefits only one minor

The minor has the right to sue the custodian for improper actions

585
Q

UGMA/UTMA

A

Although an investment advisor representative is not responsible for determining whether an appointment is valid or custodian’s activities are appropriate, he should always be sensitive to the appearance of unethical behavior

586
Q

Registration of UGMA/UTMA securities

A

Any securities in an UGMA/UTMA account are registered in the custodians name for the benefit of the minor and cannot be in bearer form or registered in street name.

Securities bought in a custodial manner much for you register so that the custodial relationship is evident

587
Q

UGMA/UTMA

A

When the minor reaches the age of maturity, all of securities in the account are registered in her name

588
Q

UGMA/UTMA taxation

A

The minor Social Security number appears on the account

the minor must file an annual income tax return and pay taxes on any income exceeding $1900 produced by the account at the parents’ top marginal tax rate, regardless of the source of the gift, until the minor reaches age 19, unless the individual is a full-time student, in which case under 24 (referred to as the Kiddie Tax)

589
Q

UGMA/UTMA- Death of a minor or custodian

A

If the beneficiary dies, the securities in the account past the minor’s estate, not the parents of the custodian

If the custodian dies or resigns, either a court of law or the donor must appoint a new custodian

590
Q

Differences between UGMA and UTMA

A

UGMA accounts may not hold real estate and UTMA accounts can

UTMA may accounts offer greater investment choice

In many states, UTMA account assets are not required to be transferred upon age of majority

They allow you to transfer assets at age 21 or 25 depending on the state

591
Q

Discretionary accounts

A

Set up with preapproved authority foreign agent or investment advisor to make transactions without having to ask for specific approval

Direction is defined as the authority to decide:

Which security;

The number of shares or units; or

Whether to buy or sell

592
Q

Discretionary accounts

A

Discretion does not apply to decisions regarding the timing of an investment or the price at which it is acquired

593
Q

Discretionary accounts

A

In order from a customer worded “by 100 shares of ABC for my account whenever you think the price is right” is not considered a discretionary order (it is a market not held order).

594
Q

Discretionary authority

A

customers can get discretionary power over their accounts only by filing a written trading authorization or a limited power of attorney with the broker/dealer or investment advisor

no discretionary actions can take place without this document on file

595
Q

discretionary authority

A

once authorization is given the customer is legally bound to accept the representative’s decisions, although the customer may continue to enter orders

596
Q

discretionary authority

A

the customer may only give discretion to a specific individual.

If that person leaves the firm or stops working with the account, discretionary authority ends immediately

597
Q

Discretionary accounts

A

discretionary accounts are subject to the following rules:

· each discretionary order must be identified as such when it is entered for execution

· an officer partner of the firm must approve each order promptly and in writing, not necessarily before order entry

· a record must be kept of all transactions

· no excessive trading may occur in the account, relative to the size of the account and the customer’s objectives

· to safeguard against the possibility of turning a designated supervisor or manager must review all trading activity frequently and systematically

598
Q

discretionary orders

A

to identify discretionary order, try this method: an order is discretionary if any of the three A’s is missing. The three A’s are:

activity;

amount; and

asset

599
Q

Discretionary orders

A

if a customer asks an agent to sell 1000 shares of XYZ stock, the order is not discretionary even though the customer did not specifically say when or at what price

Activity = sell; Amount = 1,000; Asset = XYZ

600
Q

Discretionary orders

A

if a customer asks an agent to buy 1000 shares of the best computer company stock available, the order is discretionary

Activity = buy’ Amount = 1,000 shares; Asset + ? That makes it discretionary

601
Q

Discretionary orders

A

Omitting time or price does not make an order discretionary

remember that time and/or price are not discretion

although there are special requirements for advisors to exercise discretion, do not confuse those rules is applicable when the advisor is given the power to decide time and price

602
Q

Partnership account

A

An unincorporated interest of two or more individuals

An annual agreement specifies which individuals can trade the account

individual who is been declared legally incompetent wants to open an account. Which of the following actions must the firm take?

Court documents appointing a guardian must be on file before and account can be opened for person declared legally incompetent.

The Guardian will be the nominal owner of the account.

603
Q

2 types of investment analysis

A

Fundamental analysis

Technical analysis

604
Q

Fundamental analysis

A

Takes into consideration the financial statements and historical performance of the investment, as well as economic conditions (such as the business cycle)

605
Q

Technical analysis

A

Focuses on pricing patterns revealed in the market rather than on fundamental economic and financial data

606
Q

Microeconomics

A

focuses on behavior of narrowly defined units such as households or business firms

607
Q

macroeconomics

A

analyzes aggregates, such as rate of growth in national economic output (GDP), rate of inflation, and unemployment

608
Q

Keynesian economics

A

Strategy to recover from a recession is for government to run deficits to stimulate demand and employment
Higher levels of taxation
More government spending

609
Q

Classical economics

A

Adam Smith- hands off approach to government

Market wages and prices will decline quickly enough during a recession to bring about an economic recovery

610
Q

Supply side economics

A

Lower taxes and less government regulation benefit consumers through a greater supply of goods and services at lower costs
Creates demand by providing jobs and wages
the prices of goods of which there is excess supply will fall
the prices of goods in demand will rise
deficient demand can never be a problem because the production of good will always generate through employment sufficient demand to purchase the goods produced
markets will always adjust quickly to direct the economy to full employment
if unemployment is temporarily high, wages will fall, which will reduce costs and prices
reduce prices will increase product demand, which will increase the demand for labor until the excess supply of labor is eliminated

611
Q

Monetarist policy

A

Milton Friedman
the quantity of money, or money supply, determines overall price levels and economic activity
too many dollars chasing too few goods leads to inflation
too few dollars chasing too many goods leads to deflation

612
Q

Federal Reserve Board

A

monitors the money supply and makes adjustments when necessary

613
Q

Monetarist theory

A

a well-controlled moderately increasing money supply leads to price stability
price stability allows business managers were more efficient allocators of resources than the government, to plan and invest
this keeps the economy from experiencing extremes in the business cycle

614
Q

Federal Reserve Board

A

determines how much money is available for businesses and consumers to spend
its decisions are critical to the US economy
three primary tools to affect the money supply:
changing reserve requirements
changes in the discount rate
open market operations

615
Q

Changes in reserve requirements

A

by raising the amount of funds commercial banks must leave on deposit with the Fed, the amount of money available for these banks to lend out is decreased
the shrinkage of the money supply generally translates into higher interest rates
the reverse is true when reserve requirements are eased

616
Q

Changes in the discount rate

A

the rate the Fed charges member banks when lending the money
higher rates discourage borrowing, reducing the money supply
lower rates have an opposite effect

617
Q

Open market operations

A

the Fed buys and sells U.S. Treasury securities in the open market under the direction of the Federal open market committee (FOMC)
when treasuries are purchased, it adds to the money supply
this is because the FOMC is purchasing these securities from commercial banks causing the banks to have greater reserves
when the FOMC sells treasuries the money supply is reduced because the funds are pulled out of the bank’s reserves to pay for the securities

618
Q

Business cycles

A

expansion
peak
contraction
trough

619
Q

Expansion

A

Expansion increasing business activity – in sales, manufacturing, and wages- throughout the economy

620
Q

Peak

A

when GDP reaches its productive capacity in the nation’s economy cannot expand further

621
Q

Contraction

A

when business activity declined from its peak

622
Q

Recessions

A

mild short-term contractions

623
Q

Depressions

A

longer, more severe can contractions are depressions

624
Q

Trough

A

when business activity steps declining and levels off

625
Q

Recession

A

when a decline in real output of goods and services – the GDP – continues for two or more consecutive quarters

626
Q

Depression

A

a decrease in GDP for six consecutive quarters

627
Q

Expansions

A
increasing consumer demand for goods and services;
increasing industrial production;
falling inventories;
rising stock market;
rising property values;
increasing GDP
628
Q

Contractions

A

rising numbers of bankruptcies and bond defaults;
falling stock markets;
rising inventories (a sign of slackening consumer demand); and
decreasing GDP

629
Q

Inflation

A

the general increase in prices as measured by an index such as the consumer price index

630
Q

Consumer Price Index (CPI)

A

Average cost of goods and services (market basket)

CPI statistics are published monthly

631
Q

Inflation

A

Decrease in the value of the monetary unit
mild inflation can encourage economic growth
high inflation can reduce demand for goods and services

632
Q

Inflation inertia

A

the rate of inflation does not immediately react to unexpected changes in economic conditions
it takes a pronounced change in the reality before there is an effect

633
Q

Causes of inflation

A

excessive demand – occurs when aggregate demand exceeds the aggregate supply and prices rise
monetary expansion – is a rapid increase in the nation’s money stock in excess of the nation’s growth rate
increased inflation drives interest rates higher and drives bond prices lower
decreases in the inflation rate have the opposite effect: bond yields decline and bond prices rise

634
Q

excessive demand (1 cause of inflation)

A

occurs when aggregate demand exceeds the aggregate supply and prices rise

635
Q

monetary expansion (1 cause of inflation)

A

is a rapid increase in the nation’s money stock in excess of the nation’s growth rate

636
Q

deflation

A

the rare, deflation is a general decline in prices

deflation usually occurs during severe recessions when unemployment is on the rise

637
Q

Causes of deflation

A

deflation is caused by conditions opposite those that cause inflation
when demand for goods and services is substantially below the supply of those goods or services, the prices must spiral downward to encourage an increased demand

638
Q

If inflation increases

A

Interest rates go up , bond prices go down, and bond yields go up

639
Q

If inflation decreases

A

Interest rates go down, bond prices go up, bond yields down

640
Q

Recession

A

High consumer debt is a characteristic of a downturn in the business cycle

641
Q

Top down analysis

A

inverted isosceles triangle: brought on top and narrow on the bottom
start with the broadest measure of the overall economy and then successively narrow it down to finally select the company or companies that best fit the objectives

642
Q

Bottom of the analysis

A

opposite of top-down analysis
start with a specific company
work her way up through the industry
and then the economy

643
Q

Interest rates and yield curves

A

interest rates in general reflect investor expectations about inflation

644
Q

Short-term rates

A

reflect the policy decisions of the Fed as it implements the nation’s monetary policy

645
Q

Interest rate

A

the cost of borrowing money determined by:
the supply and demand for loanable funds
the credit quality of the borrower
the length of time for which the monies borrowed
current and expected inflation
overall supply and demand for funds in the economy

646
Q

Nominal interest rate

A

the money rate of interest or the actual amount of borrower pays for loanable funds
if inflation is expected, the nominal rate of interest will exceed the real rate of interest on the loan to compensate the lender for the decline in purchasing power

647
Q

Real interest rate

A

the nominal rate of interest plus the expected rate of inflation

648
Q

Federal funds rate

A

the rate banks that are members of the Fed charge each other for overnight loans of $1 million or more
considered a barometer of the direction of short-term interest rates
listed in daily newspapers
is the most volatile rate; it can fluctuate drastically under certain market conditions

649
Q

Prime rate

A

the rates that large US money center commercial banks charge their most credit worthy corporate borrowers for unsecured loans
each bank sets its own prime rate, with larger banks generally setting the rate that other banks follow
banks lower their prime rates when the Fed eases the money supply and raises rates when the Fed contracts the money supply

650
Q

Discount rate

A

the rate the New York Federal Reserve Bank charges for short-term loans to member banks

651
Q

discount rate

A

the Federal Reserve Board establishes the discount rate
unlike the federal funds rate the discount rate is a managed rate
it is one of the tools of monetary policy
in contrast, the federal funds rate is a market rate determined by the demand for bank reserves on the part of deposit based financial institutions

652
Q

Federal funds rate

A

a market rate determined by the demand for bank reserves on the part of deposit based financial institutions

653
Q

Broker call loan rate

A

the interest rates bank charge broker dealers on money they borrow to lend to margin account customers
also known as the call loan rate or call money rate
slightly higher than other short-term rates
broker call loans are callable on 24-hour notice

654
Q

Normal yield curve –

A

an upward sloping curve, also called appositive curve
when the yield curve is normal, long-term interest rates are higher than short-term interest rates
on a graph, the normal yield curve is upward sloping

655
Q

Long-term interest rates

A

Long-term interest rates are normally higher than short-term rates
time value of money
reduce buying power of money resulting from inflation
increase risk of default over long periods
loss of liquidity associated with long-term investments

656
Q

Yield curve

A

a reflection of investor expectations about inflation
investors expect high inflation rates, they’ll require higher rates of interest to compensate for the reduction in purchasing power over time

657
Q

Inverted yield curves

A

yield curve is downward sloping
can be the result of high current demand for money relative to the available supply
short-term interest rates tend to be more sensitive to Fed policy that longer-term rates
an inverted yield curve may occur because of a sharp increase in short-term rates
when you notice a negative yield curve, you expect that interest rates have rapidly risen and, they will soon retreat

658
Q

Flat yield curve

A

when short-term and long-term rates are the same

659
Q

Yield curve

A

X axis = yield
Y axis = years to maturity

The shape of the yield curve varies with changes in the economic cycle

660
Q

Normal yield curve

A

a normal, or sending yield curve occurs during periods of economic expansion
it generally predicts that interest rates will rise in the future
flat yield curve
a flat yield curve occurs when the economy is peaking and no change in interest rates is expected

661
Q

Inverted yield curve

A

an inverted, or descending, yield curve occurs when the Federal Reserve Board has tightened credit in an overheated economy;
it predicts that rates will fall in the future

662
Q

Yield curves for issuers with different risk levels can be compared to make economic predictions

A

· if the yield curve spread between corporate bonds and government bonds is widening a recession is expected
· investors have chosen the safety of government bonds over higher corporate yields, which occurs when the economy slows down
· in the yield curve between corporate bonds and government bonds is narrowing, and economic expansion is expected in investors are willing to take risks
· they will sell bonds to buy higher-yielding corporates

663
Q

most common yield curve

A

US treasuries- starting with the 90 day T-bill and ending with the 30 year bond

664
Q

GDP

A
Includes personal consumption
Government spending
Gross private product
Foreign investment
Total value of exports
Measures a country’s output within its borders regardless of who generated it
665
Q

GNP

A

GNP = GDP + income a country’s citizens earned abroad – income foreigners earned domestically
GNP measures the output generated by the country’s citizens regardless of where they did so
Today virtually all measurements are in GDP, rather than GNP

666
Q

Full employment

A

4% unemployment rate- the point at which wage pressures do not create undue inflation

667
Q

CPI

A

Measure of the general retail price level
Compares the cost of buying a basket of goods with the cost of buying the same basket a year ago
Food, housing, transportation, medical care, clothing, electricity, entertainment, services
Published monthly by the Bureau of Labor Statistics
The most commonly used measurement of the rate of inflation

668
Q

Core CPI

A

CPI – food and energy

Term created by the media, not the Bureau of Labor Statistics (BLS)

669
Q

Balance of payments

A

Measures all the nation’s import an export transactions with those of other countries for the year

670
Q

ADRs

A

1 way an investor can protect against a weakening US dollar is to invest in foreign securities
the simplest way to do that is through ADRs
of course of the dollar strengthens, the value of a year probably

671
Q

Trade deficit

A

an excess of one country’s imports over its exports
as reported as part of the balance of payment figures
over time an excessive trade deficit only to the devaluation of the country’s currency because the country will be converting, reselling, it’s currency to obtain foreign currency to pay for its increasing

672
Q

Barometers of economic activity

A

also called indicators of business cycle phases

Three broad categories of economic indicators
leading indicators
coincident indicators
lagging indicators
these indicators are published on a monthly basis by the Conference Board, nongovernmental not-for-profit research organization

673
Q

Leading indicators

A

· economic activities that won’t fall down before the beginning of a recession or turn up for the beginning of the business expansion
· used by economists to predict the future direction of economic activity for six months hence

674
Q

Examples of leading indicators

A

· Money supply
· building permits (housing starts)
· average weekly initial claims for unemployment insurance
· average weekly hours, manufacturing
· Manufacturers’ new orders for consumer goods
· Manufacturers’ new orders for nondefense capital goods
· index of supplier deliveries – vendor performance
· interest rate spread between 10 year treasury and the federal funds rate
· set prices for example S&P 500
· index of consumer expectations

675
Q

Leading indicators

A

not all leading indicators move in tandem
positive changes in the majority of leading indicators point to increase spending, production, and employment
negative changes in the majority indicators can forecast a recession

676
Q

Coincident (or current) indicators

A

Coincident indicators and measurement change directly and simultaneously with the business cycle

677
Q

Widely use coincident indicators

A

· nonagricultural employment
· personal income, minus Social Security, veterans benefits, welfare and
· industrial production
· manufacturing and trade sales in constant dollars

678
Q

Lagging indicators

A

measurements the chance for six months after the economy has become long-term answer to confirm
lagging indicators help analysts differentiate long-term trends from short-term reversals that occur in any trend

679
Q

Examples of lagging indicators

A

· average duration of unemployment
· ratio of consumer installment credit personal income
· ratio of manufacturing and trade inventories to sales
· average prime rate
· change in the CPI for services
· total amount of Marshall and industrial loans outstanding
· change in the index of labor cost per unit of output (manufacturing)

680
Q

GDP

A

Example of a coincident indicator

681
Q

New orders for consumer goods

A

Example of a leading indicator

682
Q

Manufacturing inventories

A

Example of a lagging indicator

683
Q

Fundamental analysts evaluate:

A

broad-based economic trends
current business conditions within an industry
quality of a particular corporation’s business, finances, and management

684
Q

Technical analysts

A

Attempt to predict the direction of prices on the basis of historic price and trading volume patterns

685
Q

Alpha

A

The extent to which an asset’s or portfolio’s actual return exceeds or falls short of its expected returns
A positive alpha rather than a negative one is desirable

686
Q

Arbitrage

A

a strategy that generates a guaranteed profit from a transaction
the simultaneous purchase and sale of the same security in different markets different prices to lock in a profit

687
Q

Benchmark portfolio

A

a model portfolio of a large number of assets, such as the S&P 500, against which the performance of the fund or portfolio was measured

688
Q

Beta coefficient (beta)

A

a measure of volatility in relation to the overall market
a security or portfolio with the beta greater than one is generally going to be more volatile than the overall market
the reverse is true when the beta is less than one

689
Q

Capital asset pricing model (CAPM)

A

a securities market investment theory that attempts to derive the expected return on an asset on the basis of the asset systematic risk

690
Q

Completely diversified portfolio

A

a portfolio in which the specific risk of each asset in the portfolio has been diversified away

691
Q

Earnings multiplier (PE ratio)

A

another term for the price to earnings (PE) ratio

the earnings multiplier is the price of the stock divided by its earnings per share

692
Q

efficient market theory

A

prices of securities rapidly reflects simultaneous access to all information

693
Q

Eurobond

A

a bond denominated in a currency other than the currency of the country in which it is issued
the most tested form of Eurobond is the euro dollar bond
these bonds are most commonly issued by an overseas company outside of the US, as well as the issuer’s home country
these bonds are not limited to European issuers (that’s just where they originated)

694
Q

Eurobond

A

the primary reason for issuing these bonds is if they are free from the requirement to register with the SEC resulting in lower issuance costs
because liquidity is not as great as with domestic issues and because the political and social risks tend to be higher, yields are generally higher
a bond issued in France denominated in British pounds is a Eurobond

695
Q

Three advantages of Eurodollar bonds to investors are:

A
  1. because they are US dollar denominated, they bear no currency risk to US investors;
  2. they are rated by US rating agencies so the risk is clear; and
  3. they may offer higher yields than domestic bonds from the same issuer
696
Q

Disadvantages of Eurodollar bonds (as with foreign bonds in general) are:

A
  1. since they are not register with the SEC, there may be a lack of transparency;
  2. they have political and social risks (take into consideration by the rating agencies); and
  3. they have less liquidity and domestic issues
697
Q

Monte Carlo simulation

A

a statistical method to determine the return profile of the security or portfolio that re-creates potential outcomes by generating random values on the basis of the risk and return characteristics of the securities themselves

698
Q

Optimal portfolio

A

a portfolio that provides the highest expected returns for a given level of risk

699
Q

Risk free rate

A

generally refers to the interest rate of 90 day U.S. Treasury bills

700
Q

R squared (R2)

A

another of the statistical measures in the beta family
used to reference what percentage of a portfolio’s performance can be tied to a standard benchmark
the range of our squared values is from a low of zero to a high of 100
if the our squared is 100, you can expect that the security (or portfolio) moves right in line with the index

701
Q

R squared (R2)

A

R2 < 50% does not have much in common with the index
Higher R2 value will indicate a more useful beta figure
Low R2 means that you should ignore the beta

702
Q

Sharpe ratio

A

· a measure of the portfolios (or individual securities) risk in comparison to its expected return
· the Sharpe ratio of a portfolio is calculated as the portfolio’s average return that is in excess of the risk free rate divided by the standard deviation of the portfolio
· the higher the Sharpe ratio, the more attractive investment becomes

703
Q

Systematic risk (sometimes called market risk)

A

· the risk in the return of an investment that is associated with the macroeconomic factors that affect all risky assets
· systematic plus unsystematic risk equals the total risk of an investment

704
Q

unsystematic risk

A

the specific risk associated with an investment

it is not related to macroeconomic factors

705
Q

Fundamental investment analysis

A

the study of the business prospects of an individual company within the context of its industry and the overall economy
analysts look for companies in industries that offer better-than-average opportunities within the current business cycle

706
Q

Defensive industries

A

Industries least affected by normal business cycles

707
Q

Examples of defensive industries

A

food, pharmaceuticals, tobacco, and energy

public consumption of such goods remains fairly steady throughout the business cycle

708
Q

Cyclical industries

A

highly sensitive to business cycles and inflation trends
most cyclical industries produce durable goods such as heavy machinery and automobiles as well as raw materials such as steel
during recessions the demand for durable goods declines as manufacturers postpone investments in new capital goods and consumers postpone purchases

709
Q

Countercyclical industries

A

tend to turn down as the economy heats up and rise when the economy turns down
gold-mining has historically been a countercyclical industry

710
Q

Four phases of growth in an industry

A
  1. introduction
  2. growth
  3. maturity
  4. decline
711
Q

Growth industries

A

computers in bioengineering our current growth industries
because many growth companies retain nearly all of their earnings to finance their business expansion, growth stocks usually pay little or no dividends

712
Q

Special situations stocks

A

stocks of the company with unusual profit potential resulting from nonrecurring circumstances, such as new management, the discovery of a valuable natural resource on corporate property, or introduction of a new product

713
Q

Balance sheet

A

provides a snapshot of a company’s financial position at a specific point in time
it identifies the value of a company’s assets and liabilities

714
Q

balance sheet

A

assets = liabilities + owner’s equity

assets – liabilities = owner’s equity

715
Q

Assets

A

assets appear on the balance sheet in order of liquidity

balance sheets commonly identified three types of assets: current assets, fixed assets, and other assets

716
Q

Current assets

A

include all cash and short-term safe investments, such as money market instruments they can readily be sold, as well as other marketable securities

717
Q

Accounts Receivable

A

include amounts due from customers for goods delivered or services rendered, reduced by the allowance for bad debts

718
Q

Inventory

A

cost of raw materials, work in progress, and finished goods ready for sale

719
Q

Prepaid expenses

A

items company is already paid for but is not yet benefited from, such as prepaid advertising, rents, taxes, and operating supplies

720
Q

Fixed assets

A

fixed assets or property, plant, and equipment
unlike current assets, they are not easily converted into cash
their costs can often be depreciated over time or deductible from taxable income in annual installments to compensate for loss in value

721
Q

Intangible assets

A

nonphysical properties, such as formulas, brand names, contract rights, and trademarks
goodwill, also in intangible assets, reflects the corporation’s reputation and relationship with its clients
although intangible assets may have great value to the corporation owning them, they generally carry little value to other entities

722
Q

Liabilities

A

total liabilities on a balance sheet represent all financial claims by creditors against the corporation’s assets
balance sheets usually include two main types of liabilities: current liabilities and long-term liabilities

723
Q

Current liabilities

A

corporate debt obligations due for payment within the next 12 months
these include the following:
1. Accounts Payable – amounts owed to suppliers of materials and other business costs
2. accrued wages payable – unpaid wages, salaries, commissions, and interest
3. current long-term debt – any portion of long-term debt due within 12 months
4. Notes payable – the balance due on equipment purchased on credit or cash borrowed
5. accrued taxes – unpaid federal, state, and local taxes

724
Q

Long-term liabilities

A

· long-term debts or financial obligations due for payment after 12 months
· long-term debts includes mortgages on real property, long-term promissory notes, and outstanding corporate bonds

725
Q

Shareholder equity (net worth or owner’s equity)

A

the stockholder claims on a company’s assets after all of its creditors have been paid
on a balance sheet three types of shareholder equity are identified:
1. capital stock at par
2. capital in excess of par
3. retained earnings

726
Q

Capital stock at par value

A

includes preferred and common stock listed at par value
par value is the total dollar value assigned to stock certificates when a corporation’s owners first contributed capital
par value of common stock is an arbitrary value with no relationship to market price

727
Q

capital in excess of par

A

often called additional paid in capital or paid-in surplus

this is the amount of money over par value that a company received for selling stock

728
Q

Retained earnings (sometimes called earned surplus)

A

profits that have not been paid out as dividends
retained earnings represent the total of all earnings held since the corporation was formed less dividends paid to stockholders
operating losses in any year reduce the retained earnings from prior years

729
Q

Capitalization

A

the combined sum of its long-term debt and equity accounts

730
Q

Capital structure

A

the relative amounts of debt and equity that compose the companies capitalize a ship
some companies finance their business with a large proportion of borrowed funds
others finance growth with retained earnings from normal operations and little or no debt

731
Q

Working capital

A

the amount of capital or cash the company has available
working capital is a measure of a firm’s liquidity which is its ability to quickly turn assets into cash to meet its short-term obligations

732
Q

Working capital

A

the formula for working capital is:

current assets - current liabilities = working capital

733
Q

Factors that affect working capital include:

A

increases in working capital, such as profits, sale of securities (long-term debt or equity), and the sale of noncurrent assets; and
decreases in working capital, such as dividends declared, paying off long-term debt, and net loss

734
Q

Current ratio

A

current asset/ current liabilities

735
Q

quick ratio (acid test ratio)

A
quick ratio (acid ratio) = quick assets/current liabilities
quick assets = current assets – liabilities
736
Q

Liquidity

A

measures a company’s ability to pay the expenses associated with running the business

737
Q

Double entry bookkeeping

A

every financial charge in a business requires to offsetting changes on the company books

738
Q

Depreciation

A

compare with straight line, ask accelerated depreciation generates larger deductions (lower taxable income) during their early years in smaller deductions (higher taxable income) during the later years

739
Q

Capital structure

A

a corporation builds its capital structure with the following four elements

  1. long-term debt
  2. capital stock (common and preferred)
  3. capital in excess of par
  4. retained earnings (earned surplus)
740
Q

Capital structure

A

Capital stock + capital in excess of par + retained earnings = shareholder’s equity (net worth)
if a company changes its capitalization by issuing stock or bonds, the effects will show up on the balance sheet

741
Q

issuing securities

A

shareholder’s equity will increase by the additional capital raised, and the amount of cash on the asset side of the balance sheet will increase

742
Q

convertible securities

A

when investor converts a convertible bond into shares of common stock, the amount of liabilities decreases, and the owners’ equity increases
the changes on the same side of the balance sheet so there is no change to the assets

743
Q

Bond redemption

A

· when bonds are redeemed, liabilities on the balance sheet are reduced
· offsetting change would be a decrease in cash on the asset side of the balance sheet
· the company would have less debt outstanding, but would also have less cash
· since there would not be semiannual interest payments any more, this would improve future cash flow

744
Q

Distribution of cash dividends

A

when a dividend is declared, retained earnings are lowered and current liabilities are increased
the declaration of the cash dividend establishes a current liability until it is paid
once paid it reduces the cash and current assets and also reduces current liabilities

745
Q

Distribution of stock dividends

A

has no effect on corporate assets or liabilities

does not change the stockholders’ proportionate equity in the corporation

746
Q

Stock splits

A

Does not affect shareholders’ equity,

only the par value per share and the number of outstanding shares change

747
Q

Financial leverage

A

the company’s ability to use long-term debt to increase its return on equity
a company with a high ratio of long-term debt to equity is said to be highly leveraged
stockholders benefit from leverage if the return on borrowed money exceeds the debt service costs

748
Q

Financial leverage

A

leverage is risky because excessive increases in debt raise the possibility of default and a business turned out
in general, industrial companies with debt to equity ratios of 50% or higher are considered highly leveraged

749
Q

Financial leverage

A

utilities, with a relatively stable earnings and cash flows, can be more highly leverage without subjecting stockholders to undue risk
if a company is highly leveraged, it is also more effective by changes in interest rates

750
Q

debt to equity ratio

A

should be called debt-to-total capitalization ratio

debt/total capitalization

751
Q

book value per share

A

the liquidation value of the enterprise
if we sold off all assets, paid off all liabilities, gave preferred shareholders back their par value and the rest belongs to the common stockholders
analysts use only the tangible assets when calculating book value
tangible assets – liabilities – par value of preferred / shares of common stock outstanding = book value per share

752
Q

balance sheet

A

reports what resources (assets) a company owns and how it has funded them
how the firm has financed the assets is revealed by the capital structure (e.g. long-term debt, owner’s equity (preferred stock, common stock, and retained earnings)

753
Q

income statement (profit and loss statement)

A

summarizes a company’s revenues and expenses for a period, usually quarterly
fundamental analysts use the income statement to judge the efficiency and profitability of a company’s operation

754
Q

components of the income statement

A

revenues – total sales
costs of goods (COGS) sold- cost of labor, material, and production used to create finished goods
LIFO normally results in higher COGS than FIFO

755
Q

Pre-tax margin

A

Revenues (sales) – COGS and other operating costs (such as depreciation) = gross operating profit

756
Q

Total pre-tax earnings (EBIT)

A

Gross operating profit + income from non-operating activities

757
Q

3 primary components of the income statement

A
  1. revenues (sales)
  2. cost of goods sold (COGS)
  3. pre-tax income
758
Q

income statement shows:

A
  1. what came in
  2. what went out
  3. how much is left (before taxes)
759
Q

Income statement

A

Interest payments on debt is not considered an operating expense
However, interest payments reduce the company’s taxable income
Pre-tax income, the amount of the taxable income, is operating income minus interest payment expenses

760
Q

Income statement – dividends

A

If dividends are paid to stockholders, they are paid out of net income after taxes
After dividends are paid, the remaining income (earnings) is available to invest in the business

761
Q

Interest payments vs. dividends

A

Interest payments reduce a corporation’s taxable income
Dividend payments to stockholders are paid from after-tax dollars
Because they are taxable as income to stockholders, dividends are taxed twice
Interest payments are taxed once as income to the recipient

762
Q

Earnings per share (EPS)

A

Indicate what remains after payment of interest, taxes, and preferred dividends

763
Q

Earnings per share (EPS)

A

Dividing net income after taxes, interest, and payment of preferred dividends by the number of common shares outstanding

764
Q

Straight line depreciation

A

Writes off the value of an asset evenly over its useful life
the accumulated depreciation is charged against the asset value on the balance sheet to reflect the net depreciated value

765
Q

accelerated depreciation

A

allows for depreciating the value of an asset at a higher rate in earlier years of the asset’s life and at a lower rate in later years

766
Q

Earnings per share (EPS)

A

Measures the value of a company’s earnings for each common share
EPS = earnings available to common/ number of shares outstanding

767
Q

Earnings available to common

A

The remaining earnings after the preferred dividend has been paid.
Earnings per share relates to common stock only
Preferred stockholders have no claims to earnings beyond the stipulated preferred stock dividends

768
Q

Earnings per share

A

Sometimes called primary earnings per share

Sometimes called basic earnings per share

769
Q

Earnings per share after dilution

A

Assumes that all convertible securities have been converted into the common
Because of tax adjustments, the calculations for figuring EPS after dilatation can be complicated

770
Q

Dividends per share

A

The dollar amount of cash dividends paid on each common share during the year
Dividends per share = annual cash dividends/ number of common shares outstanding

771
Q

Current yield (dividend yield)

A

Current yield = annual dividends per common share/ Market value per common share

772
Q

Dividend payout ratio

A

Measures the proportion of earnings paid to stockholders as dividends
Dividend payout ratio = annual dividends per common share/ earnings per share
In general, older companies pay out larger percentages of earnings as dividends
Utilities have especially high payout rates

773
Q

Price-to-earnings ratio (P/E)

A

Provides investors with a rough idea of the relationship between the prices of different common stocks compared with the earnings that accrue to one share of stock
PE ration = current market price of common share/earnings per share

774
Q

P/E ratios

A

Growth companies usually have higher PE ratios than do cyclical companies
Cyclical companies sell at lower PEs
Declining industries sell at still lower PEs
Speculative companies sell at extremely high or low PEs

775
Q

EPS

A

EPS = current market price of common stock/ PE ratio

776
Q

Sales to earnings ratio

A

Some fundamental analysts feel that the company’s sales to earnings ratio is more valuable that the PE ratio

777
Q

Price-to-book ratio

A

Reflects the market price of the stock relative to its book value per share
Book value is the theoretical value of a company (stated in $ per share) in the event of liquidation

778
Q

Valuation ratios

A

Speculative companies typically have very high or very PE ratios
Growth companies have higher PE ratios than do cyclical companies
Earnings per share relates only to common stock ; it assumes preferred dividends were paid

779
Q

Statement of cash flow

A

Reports a business’s sources and uses of cash and the beginning and ending values for cash and cash equivalents each year

780
Q

Statement of cash flow

A

3 components generating cash flow:

  1. operating activities;
  2. investing activities; and
  3. financing activities
781
Q

Statement of cash flow

A

does not reflect accounting changes

782
Q

Cash flow from operating activities

A

includes cash receipts, (money coming in), from selling goods or providing services, as well as income from items such as interest and dividends
operating activities also include cash payments, 9money going out), such as cost of inventory, payroll, taxes, interest, utilities, and rent
the net amount of cash provided (or use) by operating activities is the key figures on the statement of cash flows

783
Q

Cash flow from investing activities

A

include transactions and events involving the purchase and sale of securities, land, buildings, equipment, and other assets not generally held for resale as a product of the business
it covers the making and collecting loans
investing activities in a classified as operating activities that they have an indirect relationship is central, ongoing operation of the business

784
Q

Cash flow from financing activities

A

all financing activities deal with the flow of cash to or from the business owners (equity financing) and creditors (debt financing)

785
Q

Corporate SEC filings

A

Great source of financial information is found in the reports required to be filed with the SEC by publicly traded companies
information is available at the SEC’s website
location is at the EDGAR(Electronic Data Gathering Analysis and Retrieval of SEC filings)

786
Q

Three most important SEC forms

A

Form 8-K
Form 10-K
Form 10-Q

787
Q

Form 8-K

A

use report newsworthy events to the SEC, thereby making them available to the public
event driven
included are items such as change management, change the company’s name, mergers or acquisitions, bankruptcy filings, and major new product introductions or sale of a product line
of form 8K even has to be filed when a member of the Board of Directors resigns over disagreement

788
Q

Form 8-K

A

the 8-K is filed within four days of the occurrence this form is used only by domestic issuers
foreign issuers are exempt
although ADRs are registered with the SEC, the two are exempt because the underlying securities is a foreign issue

789
Q

Form 10-K

A

most domestic issuers must file an annual work on form 10-K for the report is a comprehensive overview of the company’s business and financial condition and includes financial statements that have been audited by independent
this is not the annual report which also contains an audited statement and Accenture
10K will generally contain more detailed financial information in the annual report
the annual port will have much more detail about the company itself and its future plans

790
Q

Form 10-Q

A

is filed quarterly
contained on audited financial statements
for all of the companies with the public float of the of less than $75 million must be filed within 40 days of the end of each of the first three fiscal quarters of the year
no 10-Q is filed at the end of the fourth quarter – that information is taken care of by the filing of the 10–K
though smaller firms file views within 45 days of the end of the quarter

791
Q

Annual report

A

Other than EDGAR, it has the most detailed information on the company’s financial position
unlike the form 10-K is usually a professionally prepared marketing piece
SEC rules provide the company may provide shareholders with a copy of the form 10-K stack of sending manual for

792
Q

Technical Investment Analysis

A

Fundamental analysis looks at the company

Technical analysis looks at the market

793
Q

Technical analysis

A

a method of attempting to predict stock price trends over the near-term, generally 4 to 6 weeks
the prediction is based on current stock price trends and the relationship of the present trend prior trends
these trends are measured through charts of price movements; therefore be correct to say that a technician uses charts to attempt to predict future price movements in an effort to reduce timing risk

794
Q

Overbought

A

there’s been an extended period of vigorous vine in the market
with no more buyers to provide demand for the security, it is likely that future prices will head downward remain on a horizontal level to more buyers into the market

795
Q

Oversold

A

there’s been some selling that the sellers have run out of securities to sell and hands the prices would stabilize or perhaps begin to increase

796
Q

Consolidation

A

during the period of rapidly rising stock prices, the market pauses to consolidate the gains
if not it may be, overbought

797
Q

Trendlines

A

an attempt to determine from this chart with the trend has been by drawing a trend line

798
Q

Head and shoulders

A

head and shoulders bottom is when the price breaks through the trendline and you have two support levels but one in between that’s lower than the other two the two that are so low are called the shoulders and the longest one is the head

799
Q

Head and shoulders top

A

A head and shoulders top indicates the likelihood that the market has topped in the future trend of the price will be downward

800
Q

head and shoulders bottom

A

A head and shoulders bottom indicates that the market is likely bottom trend is up

801
Q

Saucer pattern

A

standard saucer pattern indicates that the bottom has been reached and is therefore bullish
inverted saucer pattern is sometimes referred to as an umbrella pattern is considered bearish

802
Q

Trendlines

A

the more times the trendline has been touched, the greater the validity
the longer the trend exists, the more significant is the penetration of the line

803
Q

support level

A

the level at which the price does not seem to want to go

804
Q

breakout

A

when the price movement penetrates the support or resistance level

805
Q

breakout

A
  1. confirmed as valid when the movement is at least 3% penetration
  2. the volume during a breakout is higher than normal during the charted period
  3. there will be rapid price movement in the direction of the break until a new support or resistance has been established
806
Q

support and resistance

A

· technicians believe that stock should be bought as the trendline is moving up from support to resistance
· technicians believe that stock should be sold as the trendline begins moving down resistance toward support

807
Q

Moving averages

A

attempts to modify the fluctuation of stock prices into a smooth trend
the distortions are reduced to a minimum

808
Q

Fundamental analysis versus technical analysis

A

fundamental – concerned more with what stocks to buy or sell

technical – when to buy or sell

809
Q

Technical analysis

A

if one can identify future price movement of an index, one will be able to make profits trading those securities performance tends to mirror that the index

810
Q

Beta

A

assets with the negative beta can be an important component when diversified portfolio because of proper mix would create a portfolio was zero beta (without systematic risk)

811
Q

Standard & Poor’s 500

A

includes four main groups of securities:

  1. 400 industrials
  2. 20 transportation companies
  3. 40 public utilities
  4. 40 financial institutions
812
Q

S&P 500

A

· is a cap-weighted index using a base period of 1941-1943 equal to 10
· although most of the stocks listed in the S&P 500 are listed on the NYSE, some are found on the AMEX and NASDAQ

813
Q

NYSE Index

A

· A composite index that covers all of the common stocks listed on the NYSE
· More than 3000 different companies
· The index provides the most comprehensive measure of market activity on the NYSE
· NYSE index is cap weighted, similar to the S&P 500, but the base is 12/31/1965 and the index for the base is 50

814
Q

DJIA

A

30 stocks
Price weighted
3 Dow indices- industrials (30), transportations (20), utilities (15) and the composite (65)

815
Q

Nasdaq

A

Covers more than 3,000 over the counter companies
Calculated like S&P and NYSE
Base period of 2/5/1971
Index number of 100

816
Q

EAFE (MSCI EAFE)

A

Morgan Stanley Capital International (MSCI)
Europe Australasia Far East
Stocks from 21 developed countries outside of the US and Canada
Calculated since 1969

817
Q

Wilshire 5000

A

Cap-weighted
Created in 1974
Used to be 5000, but now > 6,000 companies
Broadest range of the US stock markets

818
Q

Short interest theory

A

· refers to the number of shares sold short
· because short positions must be repurchased eventually, some analysts believe that short interest reflects mandatory that creates a support level stock prices
· high short interest is a bullish indicator
· low short interest is a bearish indicator

819
Q

odd-lot theory

A

small investors trade in odd- lot (< 100 shares) trading
small investors invariably buy and sell at the wrong times
when odd-lot traders buy, odd-lot analysts are bearish
when odd-lot traders sell, odd-lot analysts are bullish

820
Q

advance/decline theory

A

the number of issues closing up or down on a specific day reflects market breadth
number of advances/declines can indicate the market’s relative strength
when declines outnumber advances, it is bearish
when advances outnumber declines, it is bullish
analysts plot advance/decline lines on graphs

821
Q

Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH)

A

security prices adjust rapidly to new information with security prices fully reflecting all available information
markets are efficiently priced as a result
believes technical analysis is useless

822
Q

random walk theory

A

throwing darts at the stock exchange listings is as good a method as any for selecting stocks for investment
a passive strategy is probably the most suitable for investment success

823
Q

weak form of EMH

A

assumes that current asset prices already reflect all past information relating to price and volume- you can use some tools
it is possible to use fundamental analysis, but not technical

824
Q

Semi-strong form of EMH

A

Stronger than weak because the date reported here includes not only price and volume, but also the information reported in a company’s financial statements, company’s announcement, economic factors, and others- you can use fewer tools
Technical and fundamental analysis don’t work, but inside info works

825
Q

Strong form of EMH

A

Nothing works- all knowledge is priced into the stock

826
Q

Modern portfolio theory (MPT)

A

Attempts to quantify and control portfolio risk
Emphasizes determining relationship between risk and reward in the total portfolio rather than analyzing specific securities
Derived from CAPM which states that the pricing of a stock must take into account two types of risk: systematic and unsystematic

827
Q

Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)

A

Is used to provide an expected return on a security or portfolio based on level of risk

828
Q

Modern portfolio theory (MPT)

A

Goal of MPT is to construct the most efficient portfolio
One selects the efficient set from the feasible set
The feasible set of portfolios represents all portfolios that can be constructed from a given set of equities

829
Q

An efficient portfolio offers:

A

The most return for a given amount of risk; or

The least risk for a given amount of return

830
Q

Efficient frontier

A

The collection of efficient portfolios is called the efficient set or efficient frontier
The efficient frontier is plotted as a curve
The objective for the portfolio is to lie on the curve
A portfolio that is not on the curve is taking too much risk for too little return

831
Q

The collection of efficient portfolios is called the efficient set or efficient frontier

A

The efficient frontier is plotted as a curve
The objective for the portfolio is to lie on the curve
A portfolio that is not on the curve is taking too much risk for too little return

832
Q

Efficient frontier

A

Provides an expected return based on the level of risk

833
Q

The equation for the CML uses the:

A
  • Expected return of the portfolio
  • Risk-free rate
  • Return on the market
  • Standard deviation of the market, and
  • Standard deviation of the portfolio
834
Q

Capital market line (CML)

A

Alpha and beta are not used in the CML equation while standard deviation is

835
Q

Security market line (SML)

A

Derived from CML, allows us to evaluable individual securities for us in a diversified portfolio
In focusing on a specific asset, the SML uses the following:
- Expected return of the portfolio
- Risk-free rate
- Return on the market
- The beta of the asset

836
Q

Security market line (SML)

A

Determines the expected return for a security on the basis of its basis
And the expectations about the market and the risk free rate
We want to determine how much over the risk-free rate we should earn for taking the investment risk

837
Q

Security market line (SML)

A

If ABC’s beta is 1.2; market return is expected to be 13% with a risk-free rate of 3%
3% + 1.2(13% - 3%) = 3% + 1.2(10%) = 3% + 12% = 15%

838
Q

Alpha

A

Important to generate positive alpha which means that their investment performance is better than was has been anticipated, given the risk in terms of volatility that was taken

839
Q

Quantitative valuation

A

statistical concepts used to analyze investments

840
Q

time value of money

A

the difference between the value of money today (its present value) and its value sometime in the future (its future value)

841
Q

future value

A

the formal term that indicates what an amount invested today at a given rate will be worth at some point in the future
the future value of a dollar invested today depends on the:
rate of return it earns (r)
time period over which it has invested (t)
FV = PV * (1 + r)

842
Q

The present value

A

the formal term for a value today of the future cash flows of an investment discounted at a specified interest rate to determine the present worth of those future cash flows
PV = FV ÷ (1 + r)t

843
Q

Discount factor

A

(1 + r)t

To the t power

844
Q

Nominal yield (coupon yield)

A

Fixed percentage of the bond’s par value

845
Q

Current yield

A

Determined by dividing the coupon yield by the current price of the investment
Measures current income as a measure of price much like dividend yield of a common stock
CY excludes capital gains and losses and is not a measure of total return
Coupon payment ÷ market price = current yield

846
Q

Yield to maturity

A

Annual interest – (premium years to maturity

Average price of the bond

847
Q

Yield to maturity (YTM)

A

Also called the market-driven yield because it reflects the internal rate of return (IRR) from the bond investment

848
Q

Yields from lowest to highest – discounts

A
  • Nominal
  • CY
  • YTM
    YTC
849
Q

Yields from lowest to highest – premium

A
  • YTC
  • YTN
  • CY
  • Nominal
850
Q

Total return

A

Includes the income from dividends or interest plus any capital appreciation (or less any capital depreciation) over a given time period, usually 1 year

851
Q

Holding period

A

Length of time an investor owns an investment

852
Q

Holding period return (HPR)

A

Is the total return over the holding period
Holding period return is not an annualized return
It is the percentage return over a defined period

853
Q

Annualized return

A

The return an investor would have received had he held an investment for 1 year

854
Q

After-tax return/yield (adjusted return)

A

Determined by reducing the investment’s return by the client’s tax rate

855
Q

Inflation-adjusted return (real return)

A

Reduce the nominal return by the CPI

856
Q

Expected return (?)

A

Estimates of the probable returns an investment may yield
To determine the expected return of an investment, the adviser assigns a probability to each return that investment is likely to earn and then multiplies that return by the probability of it occurring

857
Q

Net Present Value (NPV)

A

Difference between an investment’s present value and its cost
NPV is expressed in dollars and is not a rate of return
An analytical concept used by corporations to evaluate a client’s investment in any investment vehicle with a projected income stream

858
Q

Internal rate of return (IRR)

A

Is the discount rate ® that makes the future value of an investment equal to its present value
IRR is the r in the PV and FV calculations
Difficult to calculate directly- done by a trial and error process called iteration

859
Q

YTM

A

The YTM of a bond is its IRR

860
Q

NPV and IRR- the most difficult mathematical concepts

A

IRR is the method of computing long-term returns that takes into consideration time value of money
YTM of a bond reflects its IRR
Investment is good if it has a positive NPV; bad if NPV is negative
NPV is generally considered more important than IRR

861
Q

Time-weighted returns (TWR)

A

Method of determining IRR by evaluating the performance of portfolio managers without the influence of additional investor deposit or withdrawals to or from the portfolio
Used to evaluate the performance of portfolio managers separate from the influence of additional investor deposits or withdrawals

862
Q

Dollar-weighted returns (DWR)

A

Method of determining IRR that an individual investor earned on the basis of the investor’s particular cash flow into and out of the portfolio
Used to determine IRR an individual investor earned on the basis of the investor’s particular cash flows into and out of the portfolio

863
Q

Dividend discount model

A

Value of a stock should be equal to the PV of all future dividends
Dividend ÷ required rate of return in marketplace = stock price

864
Q

Dividend growth model

A

Assumes that the amount of annual dividend will grow at a constant rate
Dividend + growth factor
Much higher stock price than a stock with constant dividend payments

865
Q

Measures of central tendency

A

Mean (arithmetic mean) – average
Median – midpoint
Mode – most common value in the distribution of numbers
Geometric mean - multiplies all the numbers together and take the nth root of them
Range – difference between the highest and the lowest numbers

866
Q

Income in perpetuity

A

When recipient is paid annual income forever
Exhausting the principal
Beginning of year (BOY) calculations
End of the year (EOY) calculations

867
Q

Risk

A

Uncertainty that an investment will earn its expected rate of return
Systematic risk- associated with the market in general
Unsystematic risk- risk specific to a stock

868
Q

Beta

A

High beta stocks – aggressive

Low beta stocks – conservative

869
Q

Correlation

A

Means that securities move in the same direction

Strong or perfect correlation means two securities prices move in a perfect positive linear relationship with each other

870
Q

Correlation coefficient

A

A number that ranges from -1 to 1
Perfect correlation is 1
Unrelated correlation is 0
Negatively correlated is -1

871
Q

Standard deviation

A

Measure of the volatility of an investment’s projected returns, computed by using historical performance data
a statistical term that measures the amount of variability or dispersion around an average
the larger this dispersion or variability is, the higher the standard deviation
the higher the standard deviation, the larger the securities returns are expected to deviate from its average return, enhance, the greater the risk

872
Q

Standard deviation

A

is expressed in terms of percentage
a security will vary within one standard deviation about two thirds of the time
within two standard deviations, about 95% of the time
a standard deviation of 7.5 means that the return of the stock for a given. May vary by 7.5% above or below its predicted return about two thirds of the time and within 15% about 95% of the time

873
Q

Standard deviation

A

an investor can you standard deviation to compare the risk/reward between investments

874
Q

Beta versus standard deviation

A

beta is a volatility measure of the security compared with the overall market measuring only systematic (market) risk
standard deviation is a volatility measure of the security compared with its expected performance and includes both systematic and unsystematic risk

875
Q

Sharpe ratio

A

Measures risk-adjusted return
calculated by using the risk-free rate (the 90 day treasury bill rate) from the overall return of the portfolio
the ratio measures the amount of return per unit of risk taken
the higher the ratio, the better or more return per unit of risk taken

876
Q

Sharpe ratio

A
consists of three components:
1.       the actual return minus
2.       the risk-free rate (the 90 day T-bill rate) divided by
3.       standard deviation
beta is not part of this ratio
877
Q

Risk premium

A

in order to have a positive Sharpe ratio, our actual return on an investment must exceed the risk-free return

878
Q

Internal risk factors

A

our diversified will and include business risk, credit risk, liquidity risk, currency risk, and country risk

879
Q

External risk factors

A

include market risk and interest rate risk
our macroeconomic by nature and are non-diversifiable
the required rate of return on any investment is a combination of the risk-free rate plus a risk premium for equity investments, the risk premium can be determined by reference to a risk premium curve or by using the capital asset pricing model (CAPM)

880
Q

Duration

A

the term duration is used to measure the potential volatility of the debt security when faced with changes in interest rates
the longer the duration, the greater the volatility, and vice versa
there are two components to the computation: the interest rate in the maturity date

881
Q

duration

A
  • the lower the coupon rate, the longer a bond’s duration; the higher the coupon rate, the shorter the duration
  • the longer a bond’s maturity, the longer the bonds duration
  • for coupon bonds, duration is always less than the bonds maturity
  • duration 40 coupon bond is always equal to its maturity
  • the longer a bonds duration, the more its value will change for 1% change in interest rates; the shorter the duration, the less it will change
882
Q

Duration

A
  • the duration of a bond with coupon payments is always shorter than the maturity of the bond by the same token, the duration of the zero coupon bond is equal to its maturity
  • a five-year zero-coupon bond has a duration of five because it takes five years to make the money back the buyer gets a single payment (par) at maturity five years after the purchase
883
Q

Convexity

A

the measurement of the curve that results when plotting a bonds prices movement in response to changes in interest rates
it is a more accurate representation then duration of what will happen to a bond’s price as interest rates change, especially when the changes are great

884
Q

Convexity

A

duration is a linear (straight line) measurement, while convexity follows a curve
comparing to bonds, the one with the higher convexity will show greater price increase when yields fall and a smaller decrease when yields rise (that is a good thing)
if we find to bond with the same duration, the one with the higher convexity offers greater interest rate risk protection

885
Q

Convexity

A

is more useful than duration in determining the price volatility of a bond to a significant change in interest rates

886
Q

Discounted cash flow (DCF)

A
Calculated by using:
-          Principal amount;
-          Coupon rate; and
-          Number of interest payments
The higher the discounted cash flow (DCF), the more valuable the investment
887
Q

Monte Carlo simulation (MCS)

A

Is a risk analysis technique in which probable future events are simulated on a computer, generating estimated rates of return
MCSs are well suited to addressing:
- Situations where no real-world data exist
- Problems with unknown variables; and
- Problems for which no analytical solution exists
MCSs are commonly used in personal financial planning for wealth forecasting with estimated cash flows

888
Q

Expected return

A

Used to calculate the estimated return of an investment

889
Q

Internal rate of return (IRR)

A

Calculated from cash flows of a specific investment

890
Q

Interest rate risk

A

The longer the duration, the greater the interest rate risk

891
Q

Individual bond strategies to reduce interest rate risk

A

Among the more popular strategies employed to reduce interest rate risk inherent in purchasing bonds are:

  • Barbells;
  • Bullets; and
  • Ladders
892
Q

Barbells

A

An investor purchase bonds with short maturities and an equal amount with long maturities with no bonds in between

893
Q

Bullets

A

Buying bonds at different times, but that all mature at the same time
Each year buying bond with the same maturity date (although the duration gets progressively sooner)

894
Q

Ladders

A

Bonds are all bought at the same time, but mature at different times
As the shorter maturities come due, they are reinvested and now become the long-term ones

895
Q

Purchasing power risk

A

Is a systematic risk, meaning that diversifying your portfolio is of little or no help.

896
Q

Political (sovereign) risk

A

Foreign governments, coups, etc.

897
Q

Legislative risk

A

Things like changes to the tax code are the most obvious examples of legislative risk

898
Q

Primary types of systematic risk

A
  • Market
  • Interest rate
  • Inflation or purchasing power
899
Q

Primary unsystematic risks

A
  • Business
  • Financial
  • Liquidity
  • Political
  • Regulatory
900
Q

Portfolio benchmarks

A
  • Large Cap – S&P 500
  • Mid Cap – S&P 400
  • Small Cap – Russell 2000
  • International Stocks – EAFE
901
Q

Optimal portfolio

A

One that returns the highest rate of return consisten with the amount of risk and investor is willing to take
The portfolio that makes the best trade-off between risk and reward for a given investor’s investment profile

902
Q

Efficient frontier

A

The most return for a given amount of risk; or

The least risk for a given amount of return

903
Q

Expected (required) return on a stock

A

Risk free rate + stock’s beta *(expected return – risk-free rate)

904
Q

Industrial production

A

Is a conincident indicator

905
Q

Leading indicators

A

Stock indexes and manufacturing orders

906
Q

Agricultural employment

A

Economists do not use agricultural employment as an indicato

They do use nonagricultural employment

907
Q

Federal funds rate

A

The rate that member banks charge each other for overnight loans or $1 million or more
It is not the rate that the Federal Reserve charges member banks for overnight loans

908
Q

Sector rotation

A

The practice of moving out of those industries that are heading for a decline andinto those who fortunes are likely to rise as the economy follows the business cycle

909
Q

PLEASE READ THE QUESTIONS CAREFULLY!

A

PLEASE READ THE QUESTIONS CAREFULLY!

910
Q

Bonds pay interest how frequently?

A

Semiannually

911
Q

Long -term debt

A

Is more volatile than short-term

912
Q

US Government Securities

A

Interest is tax-exempt at the state and local levels

913
Q

TIPS Treasury Inflation Protection Securities

A

Semiannual adjustment to principal based on CPI

914
Q

GNMA

A

Only agency backed by full faith & credit of US government
Pass-through , monthly income
Interest taxes at all levels

915
Q

FNMA

A

Pass-through , monthly income

Interest taxes at all levels

916
Q

12b-1 fees

A

Maximum 12b-1 fee is 0.75%

Maximum for no load is 0.25%

917
Q

Direct Participation Programs (DPPs)

A

Flow through
Usually limited partnerships
Need to show economic value
Tax implications usually involved

918
Q

Option contracts

A
  1. Action
  2. Contract (100 shares)
  3. Name of underlying stock
  4. Expiration month
  5. Strike price
  6. Type of option (call or put)
  7. Premium (price of option)
919
Q

Securities Act of 1933

A

Also called the Paper Act

Also called the Truth in Securities Act

Also called the Prospectus Act

920
Q

Securities Act of 1933

A

Regulates the issuing of corporate securities sold to the public (initial public offerings or IPOs) and through subsequent public offerings (SPOs)

921
Q

Issuer information

A

Must be disclosed to the SEC in a registration statement and published in a prospectus

922
Q

Security

A

A security meets four conditions

  1. The investment of money;
  2. In a common enterprise (pooling);
  3. With an expectation of profits; and
  4. That results solely from the efforts of others
923
Q

On the basis of the Howey Case, a security is any of the following:

A

· Stock

· Bond

· Debenture

· Right or warrant

· Note

· Put, call, or other option

· Limited partnership interests

· Certificate or interest in a profit-sharing arrangement

924
Q

Issuer

A

any person who issues or proposes to issue any security is an issuer

most issuers are businesses, and the term issuer would also apply to a government entity

925
Q

Underwriter

A

any person who was purchased from an issuer with a view to selling is an underwriter

this term does not include a brokerage firm earning a commission on the retail sale to the public

926
Q

Person

A

Person includes an individual, corporation, partnership, an association, a joint stock company, but trust, any unincorporated organization, or a governmental or political subdivision thereof

927
Q

Prospectus

A

any notice, circular, letter, or communication, written or broadcast by radio or television, that offers any security for sale or confirms the sale of a security

928
Q

Prospectus

A

Prospectus the term prospectus does not include oral communications

929
Q

Tombstone

A

a tombstone advertisement (one that simply identifies the security, the price, and the underwriters) is not considered a prospectus or an offering of the subject security

930
Q

Sale

A

the term sale or cell includes a contract for sale or the disposition of the security for sale

931
Q

offer to sell

A

an offer to sell refers to any attempt to offer to dispose of the security or an interest in the security for value or solicitation of an offer to buy a security for value

The sale of a security does not include preliminary negotiations or agreements between issuer and underwriter

a gift of securities

932
Q

Exempted SEC securities under the Securities act of 1933

A

· any security issue to guaranteed by the United States, any state, or any political subdivision of the state (all federal government issues and municipal securities are exempted securities)

· Any commercial paper that has a maturity at the time of issuance of no more than nine months (270 days)

· Any security issued by a religious, educational, charitable, or not-for-profit institution

· Any interest in a railroad equipment trust, lease, or other similar arrangement

· Any security issued by a federal or state bank, savings and loan association, building and loan association, or similar institution

· the exemption next described for banks does not apply to bank holding companies. Most of the large US banks today are owned by holding companies

933
Q

Rule 147 issue (Intrastate exemption) (80-80-80 Rule)

A

(exempt under Federal law but is not exempt under the uniform securities act)

rule 147 issue: any security offered and sold only to persons resident within a single state or territory where the issuer said security is a person resident in doing business with in such state or territory

934
Q

Rule 147 (80-80-80 rule)

A

securities must be offered and sold exclusively to persons resident in one state

Persons purchasing the securities must have their principal residence within the state

For nine months from the date of the last sale by the issuer or any part of the issue, resales of any part of the issue by any person will be made only to persons resident within the same state

at least 80% of the issuer’s gross revenue must be derived from operations within the state

At least 80% of the proceeds of the offering must be used for purposes within the state

At least 80% of the issuer’s assets must be located within the state

935
Q

Securities Act of 1933 versus Uniform Securities Act

A

3 exemptions under the USA that are not available under the Securities Act of 1933

Foreign government securities are not exempt under the SA 1933 but are exempt under the USA

Federal covered securities listed on the national exchange or NASDAQ are not exempt under SA 1933 but are exempt under the USA (known as the blue-chip exemption)

securities issued by insurance companies are not exempt under SA1933 but are exempt under the USA (this refers to the securities issued by insurance companies, not their policies)

936
Q

SA 1933 Exempted transactions

A

Transactions by any person other than an issuer, underwriter, or dealer;

transactions by an issuer that do not involve a public offering (private placement under regulation D)

937
Q

Information required in the SEC registration statement

A

Purpose of issue

Public offering price (anticipated range)

Underwriters commissions or discounts

Promotion expenses Expected use of net proceeds of the issue to the company Balance sheet Earning statements for the last three years Names, addresses, and bios of officers, directors, underwriters, and stockholders owning more than 10% of the outstanding stock (i.e. control persons)

Copy of underwriting agreements

Copies of articles of incorporation

938
Q

Cooling off period

A

at least 20 days after the issuer files with the SEC for registration of securities the cooling-off period can last several months because of the time it takes to make additions and corrections

939
Q

Three phases of an underwriting

A

Issuer files registration statement with the SEC

Cooling-off period

Effective date – offering. May begin

940
Q

Three phases of an underwriting

A

prior to the filing of the registration statement, no sales can be solicited in no prospectus can circulate

No one can solicit sales during the cooling-off period, but indications of interest can be solicit with a red herring

sales may not be solicited, but the firm must use a final prospectus

941
Q

SEC Registration filing

A

the SEC sometimes issues a stop order which demands that all underwriting activity cease

This may be done if the requirements of the 1933 act have not been met or fraud is suspected

942
Q

Preliminary (red Herring) prospectus

A

must be made available to any prospective purchaser who expresses interest in the security from the time the issue is filed with the SEC until it becomes publicly available for sale

used to solicit indications of buyer interest

943
Q

Preliminary (red Herring) prospectus

A

cannot be used as a confirmation of sale

cannot be used in place of or registration statement

cannot be used to declare final public offering price

front page contains an SEC statement printed in red ink

Two items missing for the preliminary prospectus are the public offering price and the effective date

944
Q

During the cooling-off period, underwriters may not:

A

make offers to sell the securities

take orders

distribute sales literature or advertising material

945
Q

During the cooling-off period, underwriters may

A

take indications of interest

distribute preliminary prospectuses

published tombstone advertisements to provide information about the potential availability of the securities

946
Q

The final (effective) prospectus

A

SA 1933 requires the preparation of document shorter than a registration statement called the prospectus

must contain all the material facts in the registration statement but in shorter form

must be given every person who purchases no later than with the confirmation of the sale

947
Q

Rule 482 (Omitting) prospectuses

A

allows investment companies to use what is known as an omitting prospectus which must meet the following conditions

any information in the advertisement must be taken substantially from the regular prospectus

the advertisement must state conspicuously from whom a prospectus may be obtained

the advertisement must urge investors to read the prospectus carefully before investing

any past performance data, such as yields or return, that are quoted in the advertisement must be accompanied by appropriate disclaimers and disclosures of load, if any

the advertisement cannot be used to purchase the shares; purchase may only be made via an application found in the prospectus

948
Q

SEC disclaimer

A

every prospectus always has the following statement in bold print on the front page:

THESE securities have not been approved or disapproved…

949
Q

Liabilities under the SA 1933 for

A

every person who signed a registration form

all directors of the issuer

attorneys

accountants

appraisers or other experts

underwriters

and parent companies

950
Q

Exemption from liability

A

statute of limitations for bringing action is the earlier of:

one year after discovery of the violation

three years after the date of the action

951
Q

Other powers of the SEC include the ability to:

A

make, amend, and rescind rules

administer oaths

seek injunctions or restraining orders in the appropriate court

turn over evidence to the Atty. Gen. of the United States for possible criminal prosecution

952
Q

SEC regulation D (private placement exemption)

A

contains SEC Rule 506

SEC Rule 506 provides an exemption for offers and sales to no more than 35 purchasers

accredited investors, however, do not count toward that limit

Unsophisticated investors (no more than 35 of them) may participate in the offering if a purchaser representative (accountant, lawyer, or financial advisor) is representing the unsophisticated investor

to remain exempt, the law prohibits any general solicitation or general advertisement

953
Q

SEC rule 501 classifies an accredited investor for the purposes of regulation D into separate categories

A

a bank, insurance company, or registered investment company

employee benefit plan if the bank, insurance company, or registered investment advisor makes the investment decisions, or if the plan has total assets in excess of $5 million

a charitable organization, corporation, or partnership with assets exceeding $5 million directors, executive officers, and general partners of the issuer

any natural person whose individual net worth, or joint net worth with that person’s spouse, excluding the net equity in his primary residence, exceeds $1 million at the time of his purchase

any natural person who had an individual income in excess of $200,000 or joint income of $300,000 in each of the past two years and has a reasonable expectation of reaching the same income level in the current year

entities made up of accredited investors

954
Q

Accredited investor

A

the term accredited investor applies only to private placements

955
Q

Form D

A

must be filed no later than 15 days after the first sale

form D requires basic information about the issuer and the offering, including total size of the offering, amount sold to date, the use of the proceeds, and the names of any persons paid commissions

956
Q

SEC Rule 144

A

Created so that certain resales of already existing securities could be made without having to file a complete registration statement with the SEC

957
Q

Restricted securities

A

unregistered securities purchased by an investor in a private placement

there also called letter securities or legend securities which refers to the fact that the purchasers must sign an investment letter attesting to their understanding of the restriction upon resale into the legend placed on the certificates indicating restriction upon resale

958
Q

Control person (insider or affiliate)- SEC Rule 144

A

a corporate director, officer, greater than 10% voting stockholder, or the spouse of any of the preceding is a control person

there loosely referred to as insiders or affiliates because of their unique status within the issuer

959
Q

Control stock (SEC Rule 144)

A

control stock is stock held by a control person

what makes it control stock is who owns it, not how he acquired it

960
Q

Non-affiliate( SEC Rule 144)

A

an investor who is not a control person and who has no other affiliation with the issuer other than as an owner of securities is a non-affiliate

961
Q

Securities & Exchange Act of 1944

A

· This act created the SEC

· grants the SEC authority over all aspects of the securities industry

· identifies and prohibits certain types of conduct in the markets

· confers to the SEC disciplinary powers over regulated entities and persons associated with them

· empowers the SEC to require periodic reporting of information by companies with publicly traded securities

962
Q

Act of 1934

A

Defines broker, dealer, and exchange

963
Q

Broker

A

· any person engaged in the business of effecting transactions in securities for the account of others

· Banks are not included in this definition

964
Q

Dealer

A

any person regularly engage in the business of buying and selling securities for his own account

banks, insurance companies, investment companies, and any persons engage in investing, reinvesting, or trading in securities for their own account, either individually or in some fiduciary capacity, but not as a part of a regular business, are not included in this definition

965
Q

Associated person

A

a person associated with the broker/dealer is any partner, officer, or director of the broker/dealer (or any person performing similar function) or any person directly or indirectly controlling or controlled by the broker/dealer, including any employees of the broker/dealer except that any person associated with the broker or dealer whose functions are solely clerical or ministerial shall not be included in the meaning of this term

966
Q

Associated person

A

Even “outside “directors or partners whose only connection to the firm is the contribution of capital are considered associated persons of the broker/dealer

967
Q

Securities information processor

A

any person engaged in the process of:

collecting processing, or preparing for distribution or publication information with respect to transactions in, or quotations for, any nonexempt security or

distributing or publishing on a current and continuing basis information with respect to such transactions or quotations

this includes consolidated ticker tape Bloomberg and Reuters NASDAQ the pink sheets

but doesn’t include newspapers newsmagazines SROs

968
Q

Transfer agent

A

any person who engages on behalf of an issuer of securities in:

counter signing the certificates

registering the transfer of the issuer securities

exchange your converting the issuer securities

transferring record ownership of securities by bookkeeping entry without his occult issuance of security certificates

969
Q

Transfer agent does not include:

A

any insurance company or separate account that performs these functions solely with respect to variable annuity contracts or variable life insurance policies that it issues; or

any registered clearing agency (e.g., Options Clearing Corporation) that performs these functions solely with respect to options contracts that it uses

970
Q

Exchange

A

an organization, association, or group of persons providing a marketplace or facilities for bringing together purchasers and sellers of securities

exchanges must be registered

registration is accomplished by filing an application with the SEC which will be accepted or denied within 90 days of application

the exchange must be prepared to demonstrate the following:

formation exchanges in the public interest

the exchange will have compliance enforcement ability – that is, the ability to enforce both the SEC’s and its own rules

the Board of Directors will be represented by at least one member representing the investing public and at least one member representing listed companies the balance of the board is usually made up of directors representing the membership of the exchange

member should the exchange may only be offered to registered broker/dealers or associated persons

971
Q

Self-regulatory organization (SRO)

A

a national securities exchange or a registered securities Association, such as FINRA

972
Q

Equity security

A

defined as a stock or similar security

stock means, in a preferred stock

similar security would include:

a security convertible into stock (e.g., convertible bond

any security with a warrant or right attached to subscribe to or by stock (e.g., bond with warrants attached)

any warrant or right to purchase stock

973
Q

Statutory disqualification

A

a person is subject to a statutory disqualification with respect to membership or dissipation in, or association with a member of, and SRO if that person:

· has been or is expelled or suspended from membership or being associated with a member of any SRO, commodities market, futures trading Association;

· is subject to an order of the SEC or other appropriate regulatory agency denying, suspending four. Not exceeding 12 months, or revoking his registration as a broker/dealer, or barring or suspending four. Not exceeding 12 months his association with the broker or dealer;

· by his conduct while associated with the broker or dealer, has been found to be a cause of any effective suspension, expulsion, or order of the type described in the two points above;

· as associated with any person who is known, or with the exercise of reasonable care should be known, to him to be a person described by one of the three points above;

· have been convicted within the past 10 years of securities violation or a misdemeanor involving finance or dishonesty, bribery, embezzlement, forgery, theft, and so forth, or any felony;

· is subject to a temporary or permanent injunction from a competent court of jurisdiction prohibiting him from engaging in any phase of the securities business; has willfully violated any federal securities law; or has made a false or misleading statement in any filing with information requested by an SRO (omitting important facts is cause as well)

974
Q

Statutory disqualification

A

· loss of a civil lawsuit, even involving securities, is not a cause for statutory disqualification

· the effective statutory disqualification is a prohibition against Association of any kind with the member firm or any investment advisor

975
Q

The SEC is the appropriate regulatory agency for the following:

A

· national securities exchanges

· registered securities associations

· members of an exchange or Association

· persons associated with a member

· applicants to become a member or person associated with a member

· the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board (MSRB)

the SEC has no jurisdiction over banks and other similar financial institutions that are regulated by their functional regulators

Federal Reserve Board

Office of the Controller of the Currency

FDIC

976
Q

Federal Reserve Board

A

the Board of Directors of the Federal Reserve was authorized by the Act of 1934 to establish regulations governing the use of credit for the purchase or carrying of securities

the Federal Reserve has issued Regulations T and U covering such credit

977
Q

Investment discretion

A

a person exercises investment discretion with respect to an account if, directly or indirectly that person is authorized, in writing, to determine:

· which securities will be purchased or sold by or for the account;

· the amount of the securities to be bought or sold for the account: or

· whether the transaction will be a purchase or sale

the requirement for investment discretion does not normally include the decision as to the time or price of a particular transaction

978
Q

Discretion- Time and/or Price

A

An oral grant of time and price discretion is limited to the end of the business day on which the customer grants it

any extension of such time and price discretion requires explicit signed and dated customer instructions

979
Q

Act of 1934 requires many different groups and organizations to register with the SEC. Among them are:

A

· brokers and dealers operating in interstate commerce, including those operating on exchanges and in the over-the-counter markets

· Broker/dealers file application for membership on Form BD and the SEC has 45 days to accept or deny the registration

· securities exchanges (the SEC has 90 days to accept or deny registration of an exchange)

· national securities associations, such as FINRA and the MSRB

· corporations of listed securities

980
Q

Application for SEC registration must include:

A

· the organization, the financial structure, and nature of the business,

· the terms, position, rights, and privileges of the different classes of outstanding securities

· the terms on which their securities are to be, and during the preceding three years have been, offered to the public,

· the directors, officers, and underwriters, in each security holder of record holding more than 10% of any class of equity of the issuer, including their remuneration in their interests in the securities in their material contracts with the issuer any person directly or indirectly controlling or controlled by the issuer

· certified balance sheets for the previous three fiscal years prepared by independent public accountants, and

· certified profit and loss statements for the preceding three fiscal years prepared by independent accountants

981
Q

Act of 1934

A

Regulates insider trading. Certain persons must file a statement with the SEC concerning the amount of equity securities owned. These persons are:

· every person who is directly or indirectly the beneficial owner of more than 10% of any class of equity security (other than exempt securities) registered on a national securities exchange; and

· officers or directors of the issuers of such securities

the SEC must be notified of any changes in ownership of such securities

such individuals are prohibited from selling short and from engaging in short-term transactions, usually called short swing profits

982
Q

Short swing profits

A

gains made when both the purchase and sale take place within a six-month period

stockholders are permitted to sue to recover any short-term profits improperly realized by insiders

exercise of stock options is not prohibited

983
Q

Insider trading

A

Regulated by Act of 1934

984
Q

Schedule 13D (5% Beneficial Owners rule)

A

Generally requires a beneficial owner of > 5% of a class of equity securities registered under the Act of 1934 (equity securities of public companies) to file a report with the: Issuer, SEC, Securities markets where those securities trade within 10 days of any transaction that results in beneficial ownership of > 5%

985
Q

Schedule 13D requires:

A

Name and background of person or entity (including partners, executive officers, directors, and controlling persons)

Origin of the money for the acquisition of the securities

The purpose of acquiring the securities and plans the investor may have with the company

986
Q

Schedule 13(f)

A

purpose is to ensure that institutional investment managers who exercise investment discretion over large securities accounts make periodic public disclosures of significant portfolio holdings

Requires that any institution investment manager that uses the mail or any means of interstate commerce file a Form 13F within 45 days of the end of each quarter

987
Q

Schedule 13(f)

A

there is a list called the official list of section 13 F securities which includes exchange traded or NASDAQ quoted stocks, equity options and warns, shares of closed-end investment companies, and certain convertible debt securities

shares of open end investment companies are not included shares of ETF’s however are on the official list and would be reported on Form 13 F

988
Q

Schedule G filings

A

regulation 13 G was adopted to ease the beneficial ownership requirements for passive investors

adopted to EEs the beneficial ownership requirements for passive investors

rather than filing a schedule 13 D a passive investor whose beneficial ownership exceeds 5% must file a schedule 13 G within 10 calendar days after crossing the 5% threshold just as with schedule 13 D passive investors must amend their schedule 13 G within 45 days after the end of the calendar year to report any changes in the information previously reported

989
Q

a passive investor

A

a person who can certify that he did not purchase or does not hold the securities for the purpose of changing or influencing control over the issuer

and holds no more than 20% of the issuer securities

990
Q

Schedule 16 filings

A

Act of 1934 Schedule 16(a) requires executive officers, directors and greater than 10% stockholders (insiders) to file transaction

991
Q

FINRA

A

Maloney Act of 1938 amended the Act of 1934 and created NASD which became FINRA- created out of Act of 1934 as amended

992
Q

MSRB

A

Created out of the Securities Amendments Act of 1975- created out of Act of 1934 as amended

993
Q

Regulation T (Margin requirements)

A

Is part of the Act of 1934

Delegates the board of governors of the Federal Reserve System to set margin requirements

Purpose of Regulation T is to prevent excessive use of credit

994
Q

Credit may not be extended on:

A

new issues (once shares have been in account for 30 days, they can be used as collateral for a margin loan)

mutual funds (continuous new issues)

Options

995
Q

Act of 1934 outlaws:

A

Churning

Wash trades

Matched orders (broker entering buy and sell orders for the same security at the same time)

Pegging, fixing, and stabilizing (attempting to create a price level different from that which would result from the forces of supply and demand)

996
Q

SEC rules require preparation of order tickets before order entry. Required disclosures include:

A

· The account number

· Whether the order was solicited, unsolicited, or discretionary (including time and price)

· If a sale, whether long or short

· The terms and conditions of the order (market or limit)

· The number of shares if a stock and if a bond, aggregate par value (but not rating or current yield)

· The time of order entry and execution, and the execution price;

· The identity of the agent who accepted the order or is responsible for the account

· The current market price of the security and the client’s name or address WOULD NOT be on the order

997
Q

Insider Trading and Securities Fraud Enforcement Act of 1988 (ITSFEA)

A

Insider, control person, or affiliate = officer, director, or owner of more than 10% of the voting stock of the company, or the immediate family of any of these persons

Cannot trade securities on basis of material, nonpublic info

998
Q

Insider trades face

A

· Civil damages up to $1 million or treble (3X) damages

· Maximum criminal charges of 20 years in prison

999
Q

Treble damages

A

· Guilty party could be fined up to 3X the amount of any gains or losses avoided by using insider info

1000
Q

Insider trading statute of limitations

A

People can sue inside trading violators but:

· Can’t bring action under this section > 5 years after the violation

· Can’t get back > they loss

1001
Q

Chinese Wall

A

For broker/dealers- research departments and retail sales staff cannot exchange information

1002
Q

SEC powers

A

SEC has authority to investigate violations of securities laws, specifically those of national securities exchanges, FINRA, and MSRB even though the SROs have their own procedures

1003
Q

SEC can:

A

Administer oaths

Subpoena witnesses

Compel attendance

Require books and records to be produced

Summarily suspend trading in any nonexempt security for up to 10 days without prior notice

Suspend trading on an entire exchange for up to 90 days (to do this, the SEC must give prior notice to the President of the US)

1004
Q

SEC Rule 15c3-1 Net Capital Rule

A

Minimum net capital requirement for broker/dealers

Net capital means liquid assets of a firm

SEC requires all b/ds to maintain a fidelity bond to protect against misappropriation, forgery, etc. of the firm and its associates.

The amount of the fidelity bond depends on the size of the firm with a minimum of $100,000

1005
Q

Securities Act of 1975

A

Amended parts of Act of 1934

Aim was to remove barriers to competition within the securities industry

Fixed commission rates abolished in favor of negotiated commissions

National market system- increased efficiency

Gave SEC power to approve proposed rule changes by exchanges and SROs

Required registration of municipal securities dealers- which spawned the MSRB

Gave SEC power to regulated activities of clearing corporations, securities depositories, and transfer agents

1006
Q

Investment Company Act of 1940

A

Defines an investment company as:

Any issuer that is or holds itself out as being engaged primarily in the business of investing, reinvesting, or trading in securities

> 40% of issuer’s total assets are invested in investment securities

1007
Q

Definition of investment company does NOT include

A

Broker/dealer and underwriters

Banks and S&Ls

Insurance companies

Holding companies

Issuers whose securities are beneficially owned by < 100 persons

Issuers who trade in investments other than securities

1008
Q

Types of investment companies

A

Face-amount certificate company

Unit investment trust

Management company

1009
Q

Face-amount certificate company

A

· Issues face-amount certificates on the installment plan

· Represents an obligation on the part of the issuer to pay a stated sum at a fixed date > 24 months after the date of issuance, in consideration of the payment of periodic installments of a state amount

· If the investor discontinues the plan and cashes in the certificate before maturity, he will probably lose money

1010
Q

Diversified company

A

· 75% of the value of its total assets invested so that securities of any one issuer are

o < 10% of the outstanding voting securities

· No requirements for the remaining 25%

1011
Q

Both open-end and closed-end management companies

A

can be diversified or non-diversified

1012
Q

Registration of investment companies

A

Use Form N-1A

1013
Q

Investment Act of 1940 prohibits people

A

from serving as directors, employees, investment advisers, members of advisory boards, officers, or principal underwriters if:

convicted, within the previous 10 years, of any felony or misdemeanor involving securities

if they have been enjoined by order, judgment from acting in the securities business

1014
Q

Directors of boards of investment companies

A

40% must be non-interested, having no connecting to the fund other than a position on the board

1015
Q

12b-1 (Asset based load)

A

Max fee is 0.75%

FINRA allows another 0.25% to be added on as a servicing fee

1016
Q

12b-1s must have written plan that:

A

· Must have been approved initially by a vote of a majority of shareholders

· The plan together with any related agreements, has been approved initially and reapproved at least annually by a vote of the board of directors of the company, and of the directors who are not interested person of the company and have no direct or indirect financial interest in the operation of the 12b-1 plan or in any related agreements

1017
Q

Prohibited Activities of investment companies

A

Cannot purchase any security on margin

Cannot have a joint account with someone else

Cannot sell any security short

Cannot acquire >3% of the shares of another investment company

1018
Q

to change investment policy, an investment company must:

A

get a majority of the outstanding voting stock to make the change

1019
Q

Size of investment companies

A

No registered investment company is permitted to make a public offering of securities unless it has a net worth of ≥ $100,000

1020
Q

Investment company affiliated person

A

· Any person directly or indirectly owning, controlling, or holding with power to vote, 5% of more of the outstanding shares of the investment company

· Any person controlled by the investment company

· A control person owns >25% of outstanding shares

1021
Q

Custodian

A

SEC requires all investment companies to keep assets with a custodian

Usually the custodian is a bank

Bank does not have to have FDIC coverage

1022
Q

Investment companies

A

No investment advisory contract may be entered into that does not provide for termination with no more than 60 days’ notice in writing

1023
Q

Commissions

A

· Commissions earned on any product, such as mutual funds, insurance, etc. may be used either in full or in part as a credit against advisory fees

· What an IA cannot do is rebate or reduce commissions on products offered with a stated offering price, such as mutual funds or insurance company products

1024
Q

Breakpoints

A

Employees of funds rarely have sales charges at all

1025
Q

Investment company filing

A

All investment companies must file annual reports with the SEC.

These reports contain an audited balance sheet and income statement

1026
Q

Shareholder reports

A

At least semiannually, shareholders must be mailed reports, including:

· A balance sheet

· An income statement

· A listing of the amounts and values of securities owned

· A statement of purchases and sales; and

· A state of the remuneration paid by the investment company during the period covered by the report to tis officers and directors and all affiliated persons

1027
Q

Margin

A

Options cannot be purchased on margin

1028
Q

Municipal securities

A

Under federal law, issues from Canadian provinces are not considered municipal securities

1029
Q

Offering vs. sales

A

When can an agent make an offering of a security?

Act of 1933 also permits an offering to be made by use of a red herring preliminary prospectus, which is published when the issue is filed with the SEC and is used until the effective date. Only an OFFER can be made with a red herring, not a SALE

1030
Q

Act of 1933 vs. Act of 1934

A

Don’t forget that new issues at 1933, but regulation of credit (Regulation T) is Act of 1934

1031
Q

Under Act of 1933, there are 2 requirements for commercial paper to be exempt from registration:

A
  1. Maturity may not be > 270 days; and
  2. Proceeds MUST be used for operational needs (not capital equipment, etc.)

Investment company filing

Investment companies file reports with the SEC, not their shareholders

1032
Q

straddle

A

A straddle consists of a put and call on the same stock with the same strike price and the same expiration date. If the investor has purchased both options, it is known as a long straddle; if they’ve both been sold (written), it is known as a short straddle. Therefore, with two option positions, it is a multi-option strategy.
2.4.3.5 in the License Exam Manual.

1033
Q

Under the Uniform Securities Act, an Administrator who believes a violation has occurred or is about to occur may:

issue a cease and desist order without a prior hearing.
bring action to obtain an injunction and have a receiver appointed over the alleged violator's accounts.
seek a court order requiring the alleged violator to make restitution to others.

A) I and III.
B) I and II.
C) II and III.
D) I, II and III.
A

The correct answer was: I, II and III.

Administrators have the power to issue cease and desist orders, apply to a court for a temporary or permanent injunction, or apply to a court for restitution to investors or to have the court appoint a receiver for a violator’s assets. In issuing the cease and desist order, the Administrator may do so with prior notice and hearing or may issue the order summarily (without such notice and hearing).
Reference: 9.14.3 in the License Exam Manual.

1034
Q

Which of the following stocks would probably be most appealing to a value investor?

A) A stock with a relatively low PE ratio.
B) A stock that has relatively high volatility.
C) A stock with a relatively low dividend yield.
D) A stock with a relatively high price-to-book value ratio.
A

The correct answer was: A stock with a relatively low PE ratio.

Value investors look for stocks in companies that have been overlooked or undervalued by other investors. They often focus on stocks with relatively low PE ratios or price-to-book value ratios or on stocks with relatively high dividend yields compared to other stocks in the same industry.

1035
Q

Kapco Advisers, a federal covered investment adviser operating on a calendar year basis, publishes a list of recommended securities in January 2010. A copy of this must be maintained until at least:

A) 1/31/2012
B) 12/31/2015
C) 1/31/2015
D) 12/31/2012
A

The correct answer was: 12/31/2015

Investment adviser records, including copies of advertisements, must be kept for at least five years from the end of the fiscal year in which the record originated; in this case, five years from the end of 2010.
Reference: 10.9.1 in the License Exam Manual.

1036
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding a state Administrator’s authority?

A) The Administrator may suspend an agent's license based solely on the public good doctrine.
B) The Administrator's subpoena power covers that state only where officiating.
C) If a specific securities transaction meets the USA's definition of "exempt transaction", the Administrator does not have the power to void that exemption.
D) With certain limited exceptions,  Administrator has authority over any transaction made in the state where officiating.
A

The correct answer was: With certain limited exceptions, Administrator has authority over any transaction made in the state where officiating.

With certain limited exceptions, a state Administrator has jurisdiction over securities transactions conducted in the officiating state. The Administrator may issue subpoenas or otherwise conduct inspections of records in states other than where officiating if circumstances warrant. Such inspections may be made if the Administrator deems doing so to be in the public’s interest. A person’s license can only be suspended when it is in the public interest AND a specific provision of the act or rules has been violated. Only in the case of a transaction involving a federal covered security does the Administrator not have the power to void the exemption.
Reference: 9.13 in the License Exam Manual.

1037
Q

Which of the following statements about the federal government’s fiscal policy is TRUE?

The federal government's fiscal policy is its policy for managing taxation, spending, and debts.
The federal government's fiscal policy can have a great impact on the securities markets.
The federal government finances its deficit spending by selling bonds.

A) I and II.
B) I, II and III.
C) II and III.
D) I and III.
A

The correct answer was: I, II and III.

The federal government’s fiscal policy establishes the government’s taxation, spending, and debt practices. Fiscal policy can affect the securities markets because it can be used to regulate prices, employment, and economic growth. If fiscal policy includes deficit spending, the government sells bonds to make up the deficit.
Reference: 7.1 in the License Exam Manual.

1038
Q

Under the National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996, the federal covered security exemption from state registration includes:

securities issued by investment companies registered under the Investment Company Act of 1940.
securities traded on the Nasdaq Stock Market.
securities traded on the New York Stock Exchange.
securities traded on the American Stock Exchange.

A) I and II.
B) II and III.
C) III and IV.
D) I, II, III and IV.
A

The correct answer was: I, II, III and IV.

Federal covered securities refer to securities exempt from registration because they are regulated, or covered by federal legislation. The National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996 (NSMIA) eliminated dual regulation of securities by both federal and state securities legislation. The term “federal covered security” also refers to any security listed on a national securities exchange, any security equal to or senior in standing to one listed on a national securities exchange, or a right or warrant to purchase a security listed on a national securities exchange.
Reference: 9.6.2 in the License Exam Manual.

1039
Q

The statute of limitations for criminal offenses under the USA is:

A) 10 years.
B) 3 years.
C) 2 years.
D) 5 years.
A

The correct answer was: 5 years.

Remember the sequence 5-5-3: 5-year statute of limitations, $5,000 maximum fine, and imprisonment for up to 3 years.
Reference: 9.15.2 in the License Exam Manual.

1040
Q

All of the following statements regarding incentive stock options (ISOs) are correct EXCEPT:

A) upon the exercise of an ISO, income for AMT purposes is created.
B) the exercise of ISOs does not create taxable income.
C) the favorable tax treatment associated with ISOs is lost if the shares acquired through the ISO exercise are sold before one year from the date of grant or two years from the date of exercise.
D) if the holding period is satisfied, the gain upon the sale of ISO shares will be a long-term capital gain.
A

The correct answer was: the favorable tax treatment associated with ISOs is lost if the shares acquired through the ISO exercise are sold before one year from the date of grant or two years from the date of exercise.

The favorable tax treatment is lost if the shares acquired through the ISO exercise are sold before one year from the date of exercise or two years from the date of grant. You are not taxed upon exercise, only upon sale, but the incentive portion of the option could be considered a preference item for purposes of AMT.
Reference: 1.1.9.2 in the License Exam Manual.

1041
Q

All of the following statements regarding incentive stock options (ISOs) are correct EXCEPT:

A) upon the exercise of an ISO, income for AMT purposes is created.
B) the exercise of ISOs does not create taxable income.
C) the favorable tax treatment associated with ISOs is lost if the shares acquired through the ISO exercise are sold before one year from the date of grant or two years from the date of exercise.
D) if the holding period is satisfied, the gain upon the sale of ISO shares will be a long-term capital gain.
A

The correct answer was: the favorable tax treatment associated with ISOs is lost if the shares acquired through the ISO exercise are sold before one year from the date of grant or two years from the date of exercise.

The favorable tax treatment is lost if the shares acquired through the ISO exercise are sold before one year from the date of exercise or two years from the date of grant. You are not taxed upon exercise, only upon sale, but the incentive portion of the option could be considered a preference item for purposes of AMT.
Reference: 1.1.9.2 in the License Exam Manual.

1042
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of diversification that is achieved by investing in international equities?

A) Asset class.
B) Currency.
C) Geographic.
D) Style.
A

The correct answer was: Style.

Following a value or a growth style, or using a buy-and-hold strategy, is independent of the continent of domicile of the issuer. Investing in different countries diversifies investments among various currencies, other than the client's domestic currency. Different geographic areas have different types of industries whose performance may vary on the basis of regional resources. International equities are considered another asset class for purposes of asset allocation in one's portfolio.
Reference: 6.4 in the License Exam Manual.
1043
Q

From the date of discovery, how many years is the statute of limitations in place for civil offenses covered under the USA?

A) 10 years.
B) 1 year.
C) 5 years.
D) 2 years.
A

The correct answer was: 2 years.

Under the civil provisions, the statute of limitations extends for two years from the discovery of the offense or three years after the act occurred, whichever comes first.
Reference: 9.15.1.1 in the License Exam Manual.

1044
Q

An Administrator may initiate a suspension or revocation proceeding against a broker/dealer registered in his state:

up to 2 years after a broker/dealer voluntarily withdraws its registration.
when an agent of the broker/dealer is convicted of a felony violation of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934.
upon discovery that the broker/dealer's license had been suspended in another state.
upon discovery of new facts unknown to the Administrator at the time of the broker/dealer's initial registration.
A

The correct answer was: III and IV.

The Administrator maintains jurisdiction over a license that has been withdrawn for a period of 1 year after the effective date of the withdrawal. An action against an agent of the broker/dealer does not allow the regulatory authority to also go after the broker/dealer unless that agent is a principal of the broker/dealer or part of the ruling indicated that there was a failure to supervise. The broker/dealer must disclose all suspensions by other regulatory agencies, including other states, to the state Administrator of its own state. A broker/dealer must also provide full disclosure of all relevant facts to the state Administrator concerning its registration.
Reference: 9.14.4.1 in the License Exam Manual.

1045
Q

A bond with a par value of $1,000 and a coupon rate of 8% paid semi-annually, is currently selling for $1,150. The bond is callable in 10 years at $1,100. In the computation of the bond’s yield to call, which of these would be a factor?

A) 60 payment periods.
B) Present value of $1,100.
C) Future value of $1,150.
D) Interest payments of $40.
A

The correct answer was: Interest payments of $40.

The YTC computation involves knowing the amount of interest payments to be received, the length of time to the call, the current price and the call price. A bond with an 8% coupon will make $40 semi-annual interest payments. With a 10-year call, there are only 20 payment periods, not 60. The present value is $1,150 and the future value is $1,100, the reverse of the numbers indicated in the answer choices.
Reference: 7.5.2.1.4 in the License Exam Manual.

1046
Q

A woman wishes to make a gift of securities to her niece’s account under the Uniform Transfer to Minors Act, but the niece’s custodian opposes the gift. All things considered, the woman may give the securities under which of the following circumstances?

A) Only after obtaining the court's permission.
B) As she desires.
C) Only with the custodian's written approval.
D) Only if the niece approves.
A

The correct answer was: As she desires.

In a custodial account for a minor, any adult, whether related or unrelated, can make gifts to an open UTMA account. However, all gifts are irrevocable.
Reference: 5.2.7.1 in the License Exam Manual.

1047
Q

A person, now deceased, had established a trust for his family. The surviving spouse is to receive current income, and his two children will receive equal shares of the remaining principal upon their mother’s death. The trust document appointed both children as co-trustees. As the adviser to the account, you:

A) follow the instructions of the trustees.
B) attempt to generate reasonable income while keeping the principal intact for the children.
C) focus on generating income for the spouse.
D) focus on increasing principal for the children.
A

The correct answer was: focus on generating income for the spouse.

The trust was set up first and foremost to provide income for the surviving spouse. That is the investment objective until she dies. At that time, the children’s objective, whatever that may be, is the one to be followed.
Reference: 6.1.4 in the License Exam Manual.

1048
Q

Which of the following would not be an issuer?

A) a corporation selling certificates of interest in a mining lease.
B) a governmental agency borrowing money for short-term needs.
C) an investment company.
D) a partnership selling partnership interests.
A

The correct answer was: a corporation selling certificates of interest in a mining lease.

Although the corporation issuing its own stocks and/or bonds would be an issuer, under the Uniform Securities Act, selling certificates of interest in mining leases or similar items does not make one an issuer. Even though the choice does not indicate how the governmental agency is borrowing, we can assume they are issuing a short-term note.
Reference: 9.5.3 in the License Exam Manual.

1049
Q

Which of the following practices violates the Uniform Securities Act?

A) Failing to follow a customer's instructions.
B) Failing to charge a markup.
C) Deliberately not charging a commission.
D) Failing to state every fact.
A

The correct answer was: Failing to follow a customer’s instructions.

Deliberate disregard for a customer’s instructions is a violation under the USA. Not charging commissions or markups is not a violation of the USA. Failing to state a material fact is a violation of the USA, but failure to state every fact is not required.
Reference: 9.11.4 in the License Exam Manual.

1050
Q

Which of the following statements are NOT true?

The kiddie tax applies to any income received by a child under the age of 18.
IRAs have advantages over other estate assets when left to charity.
Simple trusts have to distribute income annually.
For U.S. citizens, there is an unlimited marital estate tax deduction.

A) I, II, III and IV.
B) I, II and III.
C) I and II.
D) II, III and IV.
A

The correct answer was: I and II.

The kiddie tax applies to unearned income only such as that received in an UTMA account. Leaving IRA assets to a charity offers the same estate tax benefits as any other asset. Simple trusts must distribute income annually, and there is an unlimited marital estate tax deduction between spouses who are U.S. citizens.
Reference: 5.2.7.2.5 in the License Exam Manual.

1051
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the properties of duration is NOT true?

A) Duration is a weighted-average term-to-maturity of a bond's cash flows.
B) Duration measures the holding period return on a bond.
C) Duration measures a bond's price volatility by weighting the length of time it takes for a bond to pay for itself.
D) Duration measures the effect of an interest rate change on the price of a bond or bond portfolio.
A

The correct answer was: Duration measures the holding period return on a bond.

Duration does not measure the holding period return on a bond, it measures the effect of an interest rate change on the price of a bond or bond portfolio. Duration measures a bond’s price volatility by weighting the length of time it takes for a bond to pay for itself. Duration is also a weighted-average term-to-maturity of a bond’s cash flows.
Reference: 7.6.2 in the License Exam Manual.

1052
Q

Which of the following transactions is NOT included in the definition of exempt transaction under Section 402(b) of the Uniform Securities Act?

A) Unsolicited nonissuer transactions effected through a broker/dealer.
B) Transactions between issuers and underwriters.
C) The sale of Treasury Bills to an individual client.
D) Isolated nonissuer transactions.
A

The correct answer was: The sale of Treasury Bills to an individual client.

Even though the Treasury Bill is an exempt security, the sale to an individual is NOT an exempt transaction. Isolated nonissuer transactions, unsolicited transactions effected through a broker/dealer, and transactions between issuers and underwriters are exempt transactions under the provisions of the USA.
Reference: 9.8.2 in the License Exam Manual.

1053
Q

Tim, Jim, and Kim are equal partners in TJK Investment Advisers, a general partnership. Tim decides to sever his relationship with the other partners and work for a different firm. When, if at all, must the clients of TJK be notified of Tim’s departure?

A) TJK must notify its clients of Tim's departure within 15 days of Tim's severance from the firm.
B) TJK must notify its clients of Tim's departure within a reasonable period following his severance from the firm.
C) It is not necessary to notify TJK's clients of Tim's departure, because the advisory will continue to serve its clients as before.
D) TJK must notify its clients of Tim's departure within 30 days of Tim's severance from the firm.
A

The correct answer was: TJK must notify its clients of Tim’s departure within a reasonable period following his severance from the firm.

An investment adviser firm organized as a general partnership must notify its clients as to the departure of a general partner within a reasonable time period.
Reference: 10.14 in the License Exam Manual.

1054
Q

A client of an investment adviser needs a bridge loan and approaches the IA to see if the firm is interested. Because the IA is not in the business of lending money, a special agreement is drawn up specifying the terms of the loan. Under NASAA’s Model Rule dealing with Unethical Business Practices of Investment Advisers, Investment Adviser Representatives, and Federal Covered Advisers:

A) the loan could only be made after the advisory contract was terminated.
B) the loan could be made if the client was an institutional investor.
C) the loan could be made if the IA was affiliated with a bank.
D) the loan would not be permitted under any circumstances.
A

The correct answer was: the loan could only be made after the advisory contract was terminated.

Under NASAA’s Model Rule, an adviser may only loan money to clients who are affiliated persons. Although unusual, the adviser may loan money to a bank or broker/dealer affiliated with the adviser. As for unaffiliated persons, the adviser may not lend them money.
Reference: 10.17 in the License Exam Manual.

1055
Q

The NASAA Statement of Policy on Unethical and Dishonest Business Practices of Broker/Dealers and Agents describes many actions considered by NASAA to be prohibited under the intent of the USA, as amended. Under that Statement of Policy, which of the following actions would be a prohibited practice?

Stating material facts in such a manner that they may be easily understood by a prospective client.
Making unsuitable investment recommendations even when the client agrees with your assessment.
Exercising discretion without previous written authority.
Using inside information, but only if the client makes money as a result of the trade.

A) I and II.
B) I and III.
C) II and III.
D) III and IV.
A

The correct answer was: II and III.

No broker/dealer or agent may exercise discretion in a client’s account without having received prior written authorization. Read choice IV carefully. The use of inside information is a prohibited practice under all circumstances, not only if the client makes money. Win or lose, it is still prohibited. It is appropriate to disclose material information in such manner as to make it easily understandable and all recommendations must be suitable, whether or not the client agrees with them.
Reference: 9.10.1.3 in the License Exam Manual.

1056
Q

Under the Uniform Securities Act, the Administrator may deny or revoke the exemption from registration for which of the following?

A security issued by a nonprofit organization.
Investment contracts of employee benefit plans.
An exempt transaction not involving a federal covered security.

A) I only.
B) II and III.
C) I, II and III.
D) I and III.
A

The correct answer was: I, II and III.

The Administrator may deny or revoke any transaction exemption except those involving a federal covered security. The only security exemptions where the Administrator has this power is in the case of securities issued by non-profit organizations and investment contracts of employee benefit plans. The order must pertain to a specific transaction or security.
Reference: 9.8.2.1 in the License Exam Manual.

1057
Q

If a U.S. corporation wishes to issue Eurodollar bonds, which of the following statements are TRUE?

The corporation will be subject to currency risk.
The corporation will not be subject to currency risk.
The issue must be filed with the SEC.
The issue need not be filed with the SEC.

A) II and IV.
B) II and III.
C) I and III.
D) I and IV.
A

The correct answer was: II and IV.

Because Eurodollar bonds are denominated in U.S. dollars, a U.S. corporate issuer will not be subject to foreign exchange risk, regardless of the country of issuance. In addition, because the bonds are issued outside the U.S., the issue is not registered with the SEC.
Reference: 7.4.1 in the License Exam Manual.

1058
Q

Mr. Wright died with the following assets and liabilities: $200,000 in securities left to his wife, a $650,000 home left to his wife (the home cost $150,000), a $250,000 life insurance policy with his daughter as beneficiary, and $75,000 in debts and estate expenses. What is Mr. Wright’s gross estate?

A) $1,025,000.00
B) $600,000.00
C) $250,000.00
D) $1,100,000.00
A

The correct answer was: $1,100,000.00

The question asks for the gross estate, not the adjusted gross estate or taxable estate. The market value of all assets in which Mr. Wright possessed an incident of ownership at the time of death are included in the gross estate. The amount is therefore $1,100,000. The adjusted gross estate would be less the $75,000 of debt and expenses.
Reference: 6.5.4.1.1 in the License Exam Manual.

1059
Q

An issuer of federal covered securities, whose registration is effective under the Securities Act of 1933, would use which of the following procedures to permit sale of its securities in a specific state?

A) Notice filing.
B) Qualification.
C) Registration.
D) Coordination.
A

The correct answer was: Notice filing.

Notice filing is the procedure by which federal covered securities, most commonly registered investment company securities, receive clearance for their securities to be sold in a specific state. No formal registration is required, but payment of fees and filing of certain documents may be.
Reference: 9.7.1 in the License Exam Manual.

1060
Q

Under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, the authority of the SEC to investigate violations of rules extends over:

the state securities statutes.
the federal securities acts and rules of the SEC.
the SROs.

A) I, II and III.
B) I and II.
C) I and III.
D) II and III.
A

The correct answer was: II and III.

The SEC may investigate any situation it believes may have violated federal securities laws, its own rules, and rules of the SROs (i.e., exchanges, FINRA, MSRB). The SEC does not enforce state securities statutes or state or federal banking laws.
Reference: 8.8 in the License Exam Manual.

1061
Q

An elderly client explains to you that he is risk averse and wishes to find an investment that will provide him with preservation of capital. Which of the following might you recommend?

A) Long-term U.S. Government bonds.
B) An index fund.
C) Variable annuities.
D) Bank insured CDs.
A

The correct answer was: Bank insured CDs.

Preservation of capital is almost always a sign that the client needs CDs. Sure, the U.S. Government bonds will pay back the principal when due, but, with long-term maturities, there will be plenty of interest rate risk that could affect the client if he needs the capital prior to maturity.
Reference: 6.3.1 in the License Exam Manual.

1062
Q

A TIPS bond is issued in the principal amount of $1,000, paying 3.5%. Over the security’s 5-year term, the inflation rate is 4%. What is the principal value of the bond at the end of 5 years?

A) $1,200.
B) $1,000.
C) $1,440.
D) $1,219.
A

The correct answer was: $1,219.

In addition to paying interest, a TIPS bond increases its principal value semiannually by the amount of inflation. If the inflation rate is 4% for 5 years, the principal value of the bond increases semiannually by that inflation rate. Allowing for compounding, the best choice would be the $1,219. This is computed by multiplying $1,000 by 102% 10 times.
Reference: 1.2.4.4 in the License Exam Manual.

1063
Q

Which of the following phrases best describes a prudent investor?

A) An investment adviser representative handling a discretionary account.
B) The custodian for a minor under the Uniform Transfers to Minors Act.
C) A trustee who invests with reasonable care, skill, and caution.
D) A person in a fiduciary capacity who invests in a prudent manner.
A

The correct answer was: A trustee who invests with reasonable care, skill, and caution.

Although all of these may have a fiduciary responsibility, the definition, as expressed in the Uniform Prudent Investor Act of 1994, requires reasonable care, skill, and caution.
Reference: 4.4.1.1 in the License Exam Manual.

1064
Q

Under the provisions of the USA, all of the following transactions are exempt EXCEPT:

A) liquidation of a security pledged as collateral for a loan.
B) transactions in preorganization certificates if no commission is paid, no subscriber makes any payment, and the number of subscribers does not exceed 10.
C) a transaction pursuant to an offer directed by the issuer to no more than 10 individual investors in the state within a 12-month period, as long as no payment is made.
D) transactions by executors.
A

The correct answer was: a transaction pursuant to an offer directed by the issuer to no more than 10 individual investors in the state within a 12-month period, as long as no payment is made.

A transaction pursuant to an offer by an issuer to 10 persons in the state would qualify as a private placement and would be exempt. However, unlike a preorganization certificate, the subscribers do pay for their purchases. All of the other transactions are exempt.
Reference: 9.8.2 in the License Exam Manual.

1065
Q

Under the registration provisions of the Uniform Securities Act, it is unlawful for an agent in the state to sell XYZ securities unless:

A) XYZ is a nonregistered, nonexempt security.
B) both the agent and XYZ are nonexempt and nonregistered.
C) the agent is a nonregistered, nonexempt person.
D) XYZ is a federal covered security.
A

The correct answer was: XYZ is a federal covered security.

If XYZ is a federal covered security it is not required to register with the state. Nonexempt securities and nonexempt persons must be registered to be sold (securities) or to do business (persons).
Reference: 9.6 in the License Exam Manual.

1066
Q

Options positions can either create rights or obligations. In which option position has the investor created the possible obligation to purchase stock?

A) Purchasing a call.
B) Selling a put.
C) Purchasing a put.
D) Selling a call.
A

The correct answer was: Selling a put.

When you sell, (write, go short) an option, you create an obligation. In the case of a put, you are obligated to purchase stock that is “put” to you. In the case of a call, you are obligated to sell stock that is “called” away from you. Option buyers have rights, they can choose what they wish to do – there are no obligations.
Reference: 2.4.1 in the License Exam Manual.

1067
Q

MidWest Advisory Services has $175 million in assets under management and has offices in 10 midwestern states. Regarding recordkeeping requirements, MidWest must meet those of

A) each state in which it has a place of business
B) the state with the most stringent financial requirements
C) the state in which its principal office is located
D) the SEC
A

The correct answer was: the SEC

With $175 million in AUM, MidWest is a federal covered adviser. As such, all financial requirements, bonding, recordkeeping, and so forth requirements are those of the SEC, not any of the states.
Reference: 10.6 in the License Exam Manual.

1068
Q

Which of the following would be considered when determining whether excessive trading has occurred in a client’s account?

A) The nature of the client's financial objectives.
B) The performance of the account in comparison to other client's accounts.
C) The number of years the account has been opened.
D) The size of the companies issuing the securities.
A

The correct answer was: The nature of the client’s financial objectives.

An agent is engaging in unethical conduct if she induced a client to trade securities too frequently in view of the financial resources, investment objectives, and character of the client’s account. Frequent trading and trading in large amounts is not necessarily wrong. It is only wrong if the trades are not suitable for a particular client. Thus, the only factor listed that must be considered in determining whether trading is excessive is the nature of the client’s financial objectives.
Reference: 8.6.6 in the License Exam Manual.

1069
Q

When a security purchased on margin suffers a decline in market value, it may cause the equity in the account to fall to a level such that additional funds are required under the terms of the margin agreement between the client and the broker/dealer. The term that describes the request by a broker/dealer rather than an SRO for more money is:

A) regulation T call.
B) house call.
C) sell-out.
D) margin call.
A

The correct answer was: house call.

When the account value drops to a certain level, SRO rules require a maintenance call. When the broker/dealer sets that level more stringently (above that of the SRO), it is known as a house call. A margin call and Regulation T call are the same thing – the initial call for funds when purchasing on margin. A sell-out occurs when the maintenance (or house) call is not met.

1070
Q

NASAA holds that the most important duty of an investment adviser is the disclosure of all information relating to the relationship between an adviser and a client. As far as the topic of compensation is concerned, which of the following must be disclosed?

Transaction-based compensation, such as commissions on recommended securities.
12b-1 trails on no-load mutual funds in the client's portfolio.
Expenses reimbursed by 3rd party sources.
Compensation-sharing arrangements between the investment adviser and its representatives.

A) I, II , III and IV.
B) III and IV.
C) I ,II and III.
D) I and III.
A

The correct answer was: I ,II and III.

All forms of compensation, whether direct or indirect, must be disclosed. However, the method by which an adviser pays its representatives is an internal matter, not for public disclosure.
Reference: 10.12.1 in the License Exam Manual.

1071
Q

An agent for a well known broker/dealer has taken it upon herself to look for investment opportunities for her clients. Her research indicates that, in spite of record earnings, the stock of GEMCO, Inc. is poised for a price reversal. Should this analysis prove correct, this would be an example of:

A) financial risk.
B) reinvestment risk.
C) regulatory risk.
D) market risk.
A

The correct answer was: market risk.

Market risk is the uncertainty that the market price of a stock will drop even when earnings are strong. Most stocks follow the “market” and this would appear to be no exception. Financial risk concerns itself with financing, particularly debt, so it is related to credit risk. Nothing in this question infers anything about financing difficulties.
Reference: 7.7.1 in the License Exam Manual.