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Immunology Practice Questions Exam 1-3 > Exam 3 Set 1 2017 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Set 1 2017 Flashcards

1
Q

The antigens that provoke hypersensitivity reactions are referred to as:

A. T-independent antigens
B. Superantigens
C. Subunit vaccines
D. Attenuated vaccines
E. Allergens
A

E. Allergens

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2
Q

Which of the following is matched incorrectly?

A. Type I hypersensitivity: IgE
B. Type II hypersensitivity: IgG
C. Type III hypersensitivity: immune complexes
D. Type IV hypersensitivity: IgG
E. Type IV hypersensitivity: delayed-type hypersensitivity

A

D. Type IV hypersensitivity: IgG

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3
Q

Which of the following is associated with insoluble antigen?

A. Type I hypersensitivity
B. Type II hypersensitivity
C. Type III hypersensitivity
D. Type IV hypersensitivity
E. Mast-cell activation
A

B. Type II hypersensitivity

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4
Q

An example of type III hypersensitivity is:

A. Contact dermatitis
B. Asthma
C. Serum sickness
D. Tuberculin reaction
E. Allergic rhinitis
A

C. Serum sickness

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5
Q

A reaction to poison ivy is associated with:

A. Mast-cell activation
B. An Arthus reaction
C. Eosinophil activation
D. Complement activation
E. Cytotoxic T-cell activation
A

E. Cytotoxic T-cell activation

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6
Q

Which of the following distinguishes IgE from the other antibody isotypes?

A. IgE binds to Fc receptors on NK cells
B. IgE binds to Fcε receptors in the absence of antigen
C. IgE is found in mucosal secretions
D. IgE binds to matrix-associated antigens

A

B. IgE binds to Fcε receptors in the absence of antigen

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7
Q

Which cells express FcεRI and contain granules containing inflammatory mediators? (Select. all that apply)

A. Macrophages
B. Activated eosinophils
C. Mast cells
D. Natural killer cells
E. Basophils
A

B. Activated eosinophils
C. Mast cells
E. Basophils

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8
Q

Inhaled allergens possess which of the following features that promote the priming of TH2 cells that drive IgE responses?

A. They are not proteins
B. They are processed into peptides that bind HLA class I
C. Many are proteases
D. They are encountered at high dose
E. They are of high molecular weight
A

C. Many are proteases

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9
Q

The wheal and flare inflammatory reaction is an example of

A. An immediate type I allergic response
B. A late-phase type I allergic response
C. A late-phase type IV allergic response
D. An immediate type III allergic response
E. A late-phase type III allergic response

A

A. An immediate type I allergic response

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10
Q

Which reaction occurs 6-8 hours after an initial type I allergic response in which mast cells produce leukotrienes, chemokines and cytokines?

A. Arthus reaction
B. Late-phase reaction
C. Delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction
D. Condition known as anaphylactic shock
E. Skin rash known as chronic urticaria
A

B. Late-phase reaction

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11
Q

Which of the following tests is used to determine whether a particular allergen is responsible for asthma?

A. Measure wheal and flare diameter after intradermal injection of allergen
B. Measure of Arthus reaction diameter after intradermal injection of allergen
C. Inject a controlled amount of allergen intradermally and observe urticaria
D. Measure peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) after inhalation of allergen
E. Measure eosinophils in nasal secretions after inhalation of allergen

A

C. Inject a controlled amount of allergen intradermally and observe urticaria

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12
Q

Systemic anaphylaxis is caused by the presence of allergen in ______.

A. The gastrointestinal tract
B. The respiratory tract
C. The circulation
D. The skin
E. Mismatched blood transfusions
A

C. The circulation

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13
Q

During the course of a successful desensitization process, the patient’s antibodies will change from an _______ isotype to an ______ isotype

A. IgG; IgE
B. IgE; IgM
C. IgA; IgM
D. IgG; IgM
E. IgE; IgG
A

E. IgE; IgG

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14
Q

What type of hypersensitivity reaction would result from a mismatched blood transfusion?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. Type V
A

B. Type II

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15
Q

Which of the following is associated with a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Allergen binding to cell-surface components and creating foreign epitopes
B. Cross-linking of IgE on mast cells
C. Formation of small immune complexes that are deposited in blood vessel walls
D. Inhibition of complement fixation
E. Antibody excess

A

C. Formation of small immune complexes that are deposited in blood vessel walls

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16
Q

Which of the following can induce a type III hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Pentadecacatechol of poison ivy
B. Dust mite feces 
C. Therapeutic monoclonal antibodies
D. Tuberculin
E. Immediate reactions
A

C. Therapeutic monoclonal antibodies

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17
Q

Which of the following can induce a type IV hypersensitivity reaction?

A. Penicillin
B. Dust mite feces
C. Therapeutic monoclonal antibodies
D. Tuberculin
E. Mold spores
A

D. Tuberculin

18
Q

Which of the following is associated with an immune response towards poison ivy?

A. Immediate reactions
B. Highly reactive lipid-like molecule forms covalent bonds with host proteins
C. Immune complexes with pentadecatechol
D. Mast-cell degranulation
E. Activation of Th2 cells
A

B. Highly reactive lipid-like molecule forms covalent bonds with host proteins

19
Q

Which of the following is characterized by intestinal atrophy, HLA-DQ2 or DQ8 gluten-derived peptide complexes and anti-transglutaminase autoantibodies?

A. Type I hypersensitivity to food allergens
B. Celiac disease
C. Contact sensitivity
D. Hypereosinophilia
E. Eczema
A

B. Celiac disease

20
Q

Which one of the following mast cell products is NOT preformed and therefore has to be newly synthesized?

A. Histamine
B. Prostaglandins
C. Heparin
D. Neutral protease
E. Eosinophil chemotactic factor (ECF)
A

B. Prostaglandins

21
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity cannot be transferred with serum antibody?

A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV

A

D. Type IV

22
Q

Anaphylaxis can be triggered by cross-linking of IgE receptors on:

A. Monocytes
B. Mast cells
C. B-cells
D. Eosinophils
E. Neutrophils
A

B. Mast cells

23
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity is often referred to as:

A. Immediate
B. Delayed
C. Anaphylactic
D. Anergic
E. Allotypic
A

B. Delayed

24
Q

The major effector molecules involved in type IV hypersensitivity reactions are:

A. Antibodies
B. Complement components
C. Cytokines
D. Prostaglandins
E. 5-hydroxytryptamine (5-HT)
A

C. Cytokines

25
Q

Septic shock associated with Gram-negative bacteria is primarily due to:

A. Lipopolysaccharide
B. Enterotoxin superantigen
C. Platelet aggregation
D. Switch off of cytokine release
E. Peptidoglycans
A

A. Lipopolysaccharide??

26
Q

A graft between members of the same species is termed an:

A. Autograft
B. Isograft
C. Xenograft
D. Allograft
E. None of the above
A

D. Allograft

27
Q

Which one of the following statements is false? Rejection of a second (set) skin graft from the same allogenic donor:

A. Can be blocked by azathioprine (an antimitotic agent)
B. Proceeds at the same speed as the first graft rejection
C. Shows specificity for the graft donor
D. Can be transferred to a naive recipient with lymphocytes
E. Involves recognition of MHC differences

A

B. Proceeds at the same speed as the first graft rejection

28
Q

The human major histocompatibility complex:

A. Provokes the most intense allograft reactions
B. Is termed H-2
C. Contains only class I and class II genes
D. Is not expressed as codominant antigens on the cell surface
E. Encodes the human leukocyte antigens (HLA) expressed only on leukocytes

A

A. Provokes the most intense allograft reactions

29
Q

Mitosis occurs when mixing lymphocytes of two individuals:

A. In presence of mitomycin C
B. In presence of anti-CD4
C. Who are identical twins
D. Of differing MHC class II haplotype
E. Of differeing jMHC class I, but identical MHC class II, haplotype
A

D. Of differing MHC class II haplotype

30
Q

Non-specific suppression of graft rejection can be achieved with:

A. Ricin A chain
B. Anti-IL-5
C. Anti-NF kappa B
D. Anti-CD34
E. Anti-CD3
A

E. Anti-CD3

31
Q

Graft vs host disease often accompanies transplantation of:

A. Cartilage
B. Kidney
C. Bone marrow
D. Heart
E. Pancreas
A

C. Bone marrow

32
Q

Hyperacute graft rejection is caused by:

A. Preformed antibody
B. CD4 lymphocytes
C. CD8 lymphocytes
D. Platelets
E. Circulating immune complexes
A

A. Preformed antibody

33
Q

Which of the following allogenic grafts does not require immunosuppression?

A. Kidney
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. Bone marrow
E. Cartilage
A

E. Cartilage

34
Q

Which of the following is a non-organ-specific (systemic) autoimmune disease?

A. Myasthenia gravis
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE0
C. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
D. Rheumatoid arthritis
E. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
A

B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

35
Q

The high concordance rate for monozygotic vs dizygotic twins in type 1 diabetes indicates:

A. A strong environment element
B. A strong genetic element
C. A major influence of sex
D. The influence of HLA
E. That microbial infection cannot be involved
A

B. A strong genetic element

36
Q

In celiac disease there is T-cell sensitivity to:

A. Vitamin B12
B. Gluten
C. B-adrenergic receptors
D. Gastric H+/K+ dependent ATPase
E. Myelin basic protein
A

B. Gluten

37
Q

In type 1 diabetes (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus), the target of the autoimmune attack is:

A. All of the cells in the islets of Langerhans
B. The b-cells in the islets of Langerhans
C. The somatostatin-producing cells in the islets of Langerhans
D. The glucagon-producing cells in the islets of Langerhans
E. Cells throughout the body which have an insulin receptor

A

B. The b-cells in the islets of Langerhans

38
Q

A therapeutic approach in inflammatory bowel disease is to:

A. Stimulate TNF (TNFa) production
B. Inhibit TNF (TNFa) activity
C. Reduce TGFb secretion
D. Administer silver salts
E. Use prostaglandins
A

B. Inhibit TNF (TNFa) activity

39
Q

Immune defenses in the gut have evolved mechanisms which restrict the activation of:

A. Th1 cells
B. Th2 cells
C. B-cells
D. Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
E. Mast cells
A

A. Th1 cells

40
Q

Which of the following factors has not been associated with the development of autoimmune disease?

A. Sex
B. HLA
C. Genetic factors other than HLA
D. Infection
E. SCID
A

E. SCID

41
Q

Natural anti-A and anti-B blood group antibodies are produced by:

A. Pre-B cells
B. B-1 cells
C. CD4 cells
D. CD8 cells
E. NK cells
A

B. B-1 ells

42
Q

Which of the following responses is incorrect? Autoimmunity can arise when:

A. Exogenous antigens cross-react with self-antigen
B. Exogenous antigens cross-react with self-idiotypes
C. B-cells are stimulated with polyclonal activators
D. Regulatory T cells are stimulated
E. Cytokine imbalance occurs

A

D. Regulatory T cells are stimulated

Immunology Practice Questions Exam 1-3 (29 decks)

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