Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MTB > infectious Dz p 13 -22 > Flashcards

infectious Dz p 13 -22 Flashcards

1
Q

how would you treat thousands of neutrophils in CSF?

A

ceftriaxone, vancomycin, and steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

a pt suspected to have a bacterial meningitis but CSF result came out for negative for glucose and protein, would you still treat?

A

depends, if you see elevated white count in CSF, yes treat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

most accurate diagnostic test for TB?

A

acid fast and culture on 3 high volume lumbar punctures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the risk factors (six) for Listeria?

A

elderly, neonates, steroid use, AIDS/HIV, immunocompromised, including alcoholism, pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

choice of antibiotics for Listeria?

A

ampicillin (Listeria is resistant to all cephalosporin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what do you mean by “close contact?”

A

household contacts, kissing, sharing cigarettes or eating utensils (routine school/work contact is not close contact)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

most common neurological deficit of untreated bacterial meningitis?

A

8th cranial nerve deficit or deafness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

best initial therapy for herpes encephalitis?

A

acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

limitations for famciclovir and valacyclovir?

A

not available as IV formulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a pt with herpes encephalitis was given acyclovir with no improvement, what is the best next step?

A

give foscarnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the most specific test for cryptococcus?

A

culture of the fungus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

explain the sensitivity and specificity of latex agglutination test

A

highly specific if you get positive result, but has low sensitivity, if negative, can not rule out the infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how do you diagnose viral meningitis?

A

dx of exclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

a pt comes with an acute fever, confusion. you suspect encephalitis, what is the most likely dx? what is your next best step?

A

herpes simplex, head CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a pt at a medicine floor has been treated with acyclovir for days, what side effect should you be worried about?

A

renal toxicity ,b/c acyclovir precipitates in the renal tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the most sensitive physical finding for otitis media?

A

immobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the most accurate dx test for otitis media?

A

tympanocentesis for a sample of fluid for culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the best initial therapy for otitis media?

A

amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what type of antibiotic is contraindicated to child?

A

quinolones (cartilage damage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

5 y/o kid with otitis media came back with no respond to the amoxicillin you gave a week ago, what is your next step?

A

give below antibiotics

  • amoxicillin/clavulanate
  • azithromycin, clarithromycin
  • cefuroxime, loracarbef
  • levofloxacin, gemifloxacin, moxifloxacin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

5 y/o kid with multiple recurrences of otitis media did not respond to multiple antibiotics, what is your next step?

A

tympanocentesis

22
Q

what are the 2 indications for a biopsy in sinusitis?

A
  1. frequent infection

2. no response to different empiric therapies

23
Q

pt comes in with sx of pain on swallowing, enlarged lymph node, exudate in the pharynx fever most likely dx? why is it important to treat this pt?

A

strep pharyngitis, prevent rheumatic fever

24
Q

best initial therapy for strep pharyngitis?

A

penicillin or amoxicillin

25
Q

pt is allergic to penicillin, what is your alternatives?

A

if the rxn is only rash, use cephalexin, if the rxn is anaphylaxis, use clindamycin or macrolide

26
Q

a pt with pharyngitis is likely to have cough or hoarseness?

A

No

27
Q

a 30 y/o healthy male comes in with joint pain, cough, fever, headache/sore throat, nausea, vomiting, what is most appropriate next step in management?

A

depends on time,
if within 48 hrs since the onset of symptoms –> perform a nasopharyngeal swab/wash to rapidly detect the antigen and give oseltamivir, zanamivir

more than 48 hrs, symptomatic treatment only

28
Q

a pt who has hemochromatosis and frequent blood transfusion comes in with blood and white cells in stool, what is the likely causing agent?

A

Yersinia

29
Q

a 20 y/o male comes in with symptoms of bloody diarrhea who has been healthy. Blood work shows anemia, low platelet counts, and creatinine level of 2, you did some work-up and confirmed that E. coli is not the causing agent, what is the most likely causing this?

A

Shigella

30
Q

a 40 y/o female who had sushi last night comes in with sudden onset of wheezing, flushing, and rash, what is the dx? and how would you treat?

A

scombroid, treat with antihistamine

31
Q

which type of hepatitis is known to rarely present with an acute infection?

A

hepatitis C

32
Q

which 2 types of hepatitis are spread through food or water?

A

A and E

You Ate hepatitis A
You Eat hepatitis E

33
Q

name 9 symptoms of acute hepatitis

A

jaundice, fever, weight loss, fatigue, dark urine, hepatosplenomegaly, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain

34
Q

name 3 diagnostic tests for acute hepatitis

A
  1. inc direct bilirubin
  2. inc ratio of ALT to AST
  3. inc alkaline phsophatase
35
Q

what is the best initial diagnostic test for hepatitis?

A

IgM antibody for acute infection and IgG antibody for resolution of infection

36
Q

best test to assess disease activity of hep C

A

PCR for RNA level

37
Q

Dx?

surface antigen +
e-antigen +
core antibody + for IgM or IgG
surface antibody -

A

acute or chronic infection

38
Q

Dx?

surface antigen -
e-antigen -
core antibody + for IgM then IgG
surface antibody -

A

window period

39
Q

Dx?

surface antigen -
e-antigen -
core antibody + for IgG
surface antibody +

A

resovled, old, past infection

40
Q

what is the measure of actual viral partical?

A

surface antigen

41
Q

the presence of E-antigen indicates

A

high level of DNA polymerase activity

42
Q

True or false?

PCR viral measure the DNA of hep B is the best initial diagnostic test

A

false

43
Q

what are the 2 most important parameters to assess the degree of infectivity?

A

hepatitis DNA viral load, e-antigen

44
Q

best treatment for hep A and E?

A

none, they resolve spontaneoulsy

45
Q

what is the % of acute hep B to become chronic?

A

10%

46
Q

True of false

Only acute hep C gets medical therapy

A

true

47
Q

name 4 drugs for acute hep C

A

interferon, ribavirin, boceprevir, telaprevir

48
Q

side effects of interferon?

A

arthralgia, myalgia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, depression, flu-like symptoms

49
Q

2 goals of chronic hepatitis therapy

A
  1. reduce DNA polymerase to undetectable levels

2. convert those pts with e-antigen to having anti-hepatitis e-antibody

50
Q

True of false

interferon is rarely used first line in hepatitis

A

True due to side effects

MTB (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions