Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BMS 1 > Developmental Biology > Flashcards

Developmental Biology Flashcards

1
Q

What cells are egg and sperm cells derived from?

A

Germ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the major characteristics of a sperm cell?

A
  • Flagella
  • Acrosomal vesicle
  • Many mitochondria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the major characteristics of a egg cell?

A
  • Large
  • Contain large amounts of RNA and proteins for zygote
  • Arranged asymmetrically
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What happens in fertilisation?

A
  1. Sperm binds to the pellucida zone
  2. Acrosomal reaction - allows penetration through the bona pellucida
  3. Fusion of egg and sperm membranes releasing nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the blocks to polyspermy?

A
  • Depolarisation of membrane

- Cortical reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the cortical reaction?

A
  • Vesicles containing cortical granules bind with plasma membrane
  • Froms fertilisation membrane
  • The vesicles remaining cause the hyaline layer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What happens during egg activation?

A
  • Sperm triggers the release of Ca2+ which act on proteins that initiate cleavage
  • Pronuclei fuse and cleavage is initiated
  • Oscillations of Ca2+ continue for hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What occurs during cleavage?

A
  • Rapid and can occur in diffeerent patterns
  • There is no growth - no S and M phase
  • Transcription is suppressed
  • Cleavage continues an forms a blastocoel - fluid filled cavity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do cells become different?

A
  • Cell-cell signalling

- segregation of cytoplasmic componants before division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the three germ layers?

A

Ectoderm
Mesoderm
Endoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does ectoderm develop into?

A
  • Neurones
  • Glia
  • Neural crest
  • Epidermis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does mesoderm develop into?

A
  • Muscle
  • Cartilage
  • Bone
  • Kidney
  • Heart
  • Blood
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the endoderm develop into?

A
  • Gut and associated organs

- Yolk cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a blastula?

A

Single layer of cells surrounded by a hollow ball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What happens during gastrulation?

A
  • Mesoderm moves inside the cavity and endoderm takes its place
  • Endoderm cells buckle and move inside the cavity and fuse with the top layer of cells forming a hollow tube - this will become the gut
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between epithelium and mesenchyme?

A

Epithelium - have polarity - microfilm at the top and secrete at the bottom
Mesenchyme - cells exist in a matrix and are more random

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is neurulation?

A

Further rearrangements in cell and tissue to form the neural tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Give an example cells the migrate after gastrulation?

A

Neural crest cells

Germ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When are body plans developed?

A 
After gastrulation and neurulation 
Form anteroprosterior (A/P) and dorsoventral (D/V) axes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the advantages of using drosophila as a model organism?

A
  • Small organism
  • Short generation time
  • Large batches of embryos
  • Sequemced genome
  • detailed genetic map
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the disadvantages of using drosophila as a model organism?

A
  • Small embryo
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the techniques available when using drosophila as a model organism?

A
  • Mutagenesis
  • Transgenesis
  • Clonal analysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many days after fertilisation is an adult drosophila?

A

9 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the advantages of using worms (C.elegans) as a model organism?

A
  • Small organism
  • Invariant lineage
  • Short generation
    time
  • Sequenced
    genome
  • Hermaphrodite
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the techniques available when using worms (c. elegans) as a model organism?

A
  • Mutagenesis
  • Cell ablation
  • RNAi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the disadvantages of using worms (C. elegans) as a model organism?

A

Small embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How many hours after fertilisation is a worm fully developed?

A

50 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the advantages of using a zebrafish as a model organism?

A
  • Small vertebrate
  • Large batches of embryos
  • Transparent embryo
  • Haploid development possible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the disadvantages of using a zebrafish as a model organism?

A

Large genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the techniques available when using zebrafish as a model organism?

A
  • Mutagenesis
  • cell transplantations
  • Injections
  • Transgenesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How many days after fertilisation is a zebrafish fully developed?

A

90 days (only 2 days after fertilisation hatchling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the cls zebrafish mutant phenotype and what human disease does it relate to?

A

Caused by the sox10 gene and causes ear defects, uninflated swim bladder and enteric neurones missing
Similar to Waardenburg syndrome type IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the advantages of using a mouse as a model organism?

A
  • Small vertebrate
  • Mammal: model for man
  • ES cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the disadvantages of using a mouse as a model organism?

A
  • Poor accessibility
  • Small batches of embryos
  • expensive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the techniques available when using mouse as a model organism?

A
  • Targeted transgenesis

- Mutagenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the mutant phenotype of a Pax6 mutation?

A

Wild type has normal eye
Heterozygote has smaller eye
Mutant has no eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

At what stage can cells be separated and develop into normal separate lava?

A
  • 4 cell stage develop 4 normal slightly smaller larva

- 8 cell stage - develop abnormally e.g. missing organelle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the advantages of using a frog (Xenopus) as a model organism?

A
  • External fertilisation
  • Large batches of embryos
  • Robust
  • Large embryos and cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the disadvantages of using a frog (Xenopus) as a model organism?

A
  • Long generation time

- Yolky embryo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the techniques available when using Xenopus as a model organism?

A
  • Injections
  • Tissue transplantations and culture
  • Transgenesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens if you inject a pregnant women’s urine into a a frog?

A

It will lay eggs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What happens if you take two vegetal or animal cells out of the four cell stage?

A

Vegetal removed - only anterior structures develop

Anterior removed - only posterior structures develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the advantages of using a chick as a model organism?

A
  • Big embryo

- Good model for man

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the disadvantage of using a chick as a model organism?

A
  • Not accessible early

- Genetic analysis difficult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How many days after fertilisation is the Xenopus fully developed?

A

60 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the techniques available when using a chick as a model organism?

A
  • Tissue transplantations and culture
  • Retroviral infection
  • Electroporation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is cell fate?

A

What cells will normally develop into

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a fate map?

A

A map of structures present at a given stage back onto an embryo at an earlier stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the ways to make a fate map?

A

Observation
- C. elegans - small cell number and transparency of embryo - trace fates using a microscope
Natural pigmentation
- e.g. early blastomeres containing pigment can be tracked
Application of a marker
- Look for progeny of labelled cell in later development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the qualities of an ideal marker?

A
  • Can be applied at any region at any stage
  • Readily visible
  • Doesn’t change normal development
  • Doesn’t leak into neighbouring cells - high mr
  • Inherited in all progeny of labelled cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Name some good markers of fate mapping?

A
  • Vital dyes
  • High molecular weight traces
  • Cytological labels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is commitment?

A

Commitment to s fate me reversible (specification) and irreversible (determination)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How can you test commitment?

A

Culturing in isolation
- Remove cells from blastula stage and culture and compare outcome to fate map - show if commitment is irreversible
Transplantation - Transplant tissue to another embryo - see whether it develops according to its new position or not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is mosaic development?

A

If cells are developed early then development is said to be mosaic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is regulative development?

A

if cells are not developed early

56
Q

What sort of development is it if a defect in a part of the embryo doesn’t affect the rest of it?

A

Mosaic

57
Q

What is a morphogen?

A
  • A signalling molecule that is expressed from a localised source
  • Forms a concentration gradient
  • Causes different responses fro cells depending on different threshold levels
58
Q

What is the French flag model?

A

Used to understand how a morphogen may act on an embryo depending on its concentration and threshold level

59
Q

Give an example of a morphogen?

A

Bicoid protein

60
Q

What is the role of the bicoid protein?

A

Regulates the expression of the hunchback gene which controls segmentation
If bicoid protein placed central in drosophila embryo then then segments form either side
Forms a concentration gradient

61
Q

What is induction?

A

Induction is the ability of one cell or tissue to direct the development of neighboring cells or tissues

62
Q

Give an example of induction?

A

Xenopus animal cap assay
- Cells from Xenopus that are fated to become neural , specified to become epidermis can be induced to become muscle by moving it to vegetal tissue

63
Q

What is competence?

A

Ability to respond to a signal - e.g. having the appropriate receptors
e.g. in the Xenopus cap assay - cells are competent to be muscle

64
Q

Why do cell types appear different?

A

Because they express different genes hat code for specific genes

65
Q

What does gene expression depend on?

A
  • External signals received by the cell
  • Intrinsic factors e.g.. proteins present in the cell
  • Set of binding sites available on the gene
  • Availability of RNA polymerase and transcription factors
66
Q

How can gene expression be regulated?

A

Feedback loops:

  • Positive - A gene transcripts a protein which activates another gene by binding to its binding site. Protein produced up regulates the original gene
  • Negative - Gene transcripts protein which activates another gene. That protein will inhibit the original gene
67
Q

What are somites?

A

Somites are segmented blocks of tissue that contain undifferentiated mesoderm cells that differentiate into muscle, cartilage and bone

68
Q

What is the role of MyoD?

A

It is a transcription factor that controls the expression of genes for muscle differentiation

69
Q

What is the difference between sufficient and required?

A

Sufficient mean the gene is enough to for the desired production in its own
Required means that without the gene then the desired product would not be produced

70
Q

Is MyoD sufficient or required?

A
  • It is sufficient as when transfected into fibroblasts, they develop into muscle
  • It is not required as Myf5 acts redundantly with MyoD as mice lacking functional MyoD develop with normal skeletal muscle
71
Q

What are satellite cells?

A

Muscle stem cells that lie between the basal lamina and cell membrane of muscle cells

72
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

Programmed cell death

e.g. inner digit cells

73
Q

What are the two types of genetic analysis?

A

Forward genetic analysis
- mutant phenotype as its starting point
Reverse genetic
- Uses an identified gene as its starting point - sequence must be known

74
Q

What is the white gene responsible for and what is the mutant phenotype?

A

Responsible for production of red eyes in drosophila

Homozygous ressive mutant (-/-) have white eyes

75
Q

What is the difference between haplosuffiicent and haploinsufficent?

A
  • Haplosufficient is when one copy of the allele is enough for normal function of the gene - dominant
  • Haploinsufficient - is when one copy of an allele is not enough for normal formation
76
Q

What is the brachyury gene?

A
  • Wild type has long tail
  • Heterozygous +/- has short tail
  • Homozygous -/- embryonic lethal as its required for mesoderm development in the embryo
77
Q

What is mutagenesis?

A

Rate of spontaneous mutation is very low

Mutations can be induced by treating with mutagens

78
Q

Name some chemical mutagens?

A 
Alkylating agents 
- EMS, ENV 
- Adds alkyl groups to amino acid - mutation
- Leeds to point mutations 
Ionising radiation 
- Breaks phoshodiester bonds in DNA 
- Repaired incorrectly - mutation
79
Q

What is complementation testing?

A

Sorts mutations into complementation groups
After interesting mutation picked, cloned and analysed
- It shows that some mutants with similar phenotype result from mutations in different genes suggesting gene work together in a pathway

80
Q

What are the characteristics of Kit and Steel?

A

They compliment each other so not same gene but share some abnormalities so suggest they are involved in the same processes
Kit is the receptor and steel the ligand and are required for development of melanoblasts, blood stem cells and germ cells

81
Q

What is the human condition relating to abnormal Kit and Steel?

A

Piebaldism

82
Q

What is epistasis?

A

The suppression of one gene by another (one gene is epistatic to another)

83
Q

What is the hedgehog pathway responsible for?

A

Responsible for segment polarity in mutant drosophila

84
Q

What is the hedgehog pathway?

A

Hh—| Ptc –| Smo –> Ci –> Wg expression

85
Q

When is the difference between dorsal and ventral sides of the embryo decided?

A

Blastoderm stage

86
Q

What is required for ventral cell fates?

A
  • Dorsal
  • Spatzle
  • Toll
87
Q

What is required for dorsal cell fates?

A

Cactus

88
Q

What is the pathway for making an axis (repressing dorsal)?

A

Spätzle –> Toll –| Cactus –| Dorsal

89
Q

How is dorsal protein distributed in an embryo?

A

It is uniformly distributed across cytoplasm but only enters nucleus on the ventral side
Spätzle present on ventral side meaning dorsal protein is repressed

90
Q

How does the dorsal protein act as a transcription factor?

A

on the ventral side it activates the transcription of twist and snail
It also represses the transcription of dpp so its only active in dorsal regions

91
Q

What happens in a ventralised mutant?

A

Dorsal protein enters nuclei across entire DV axis
Twist and snail are activated and dpp is repressed
All cells adopt a dorsal fate

92
Q

What happens in a dorsalised mutant?

A

Dorsal protein does not enter the nucleus
Twist and snail are not expressed
Dpp expressed everywhere
All cells adopt a dorsal fate

93
Q

What is the roll of the toll pathway in the immune system?

A

Toll pathway is stimulated by bacterial and fungal infection

  • Toll like receptors are present on macrophages
  • Homologue of dorsal regulates gene expression of B cells in immune system
94
Q

What is the phenotype of the a mutation in ultrabithorax (ubx) gene in the drosophila?

A

Causes a transformation of the third thoracic segment leads to two pairs of legs and wings

95
Q

What is the difference between autonomous and non-autonomous function?

A

Autonomous
Mutation that affects the cell in which it is present
Non-autonomous
Mutation affects other cells

96
Q

In the drosophila, what is the halter?

A

The balancing organ that are behind the wings

97
Q

What happens to cells in the halter if they are lacking the ubx function?

A

They are automatically transformed into a wing

98
Q

What is the bithorax complex?

A

Ubx—abdA—-AbdB

They cause anterior transformation of segments

99
Q

In the bithorax complex what does the homeobox DNA do?

A

Codes for the homeodomaine

100
Q

What is a hox gene?

A

A gene that codes for a body plan

101
Q

What is ANT-C?

A

Controls the development of head and thoracic segments - contain homeoboxes
Dominant mutation a gene that causes a transformation of the antenna to leg

102
Q

What would happen in a homozygous HoxBF knockout mouse?

A

Fore limbs develop at a more anterior level

103
Q

What is the role of Hox genes in limb bud formation?

A

They may restrict the expression of fibroblast growth factors (Fgfs) to limb forming regions

104
Q

What evidence is available to show that Fgf signalling is REQUIRED for limb bud formation?

A

Homozygous knockout of fgf10 or fgfR results in embryos lacking limb buds
Only occurs in the homozygous knockout - recessive

105
Q

What evidence is available to show that Fgf signalling is SUFFICIENT for limb bud formation?

A

Local application of FGF4 gene into the middle of a chick embryo results in an extra limb bud forming in the middle
Limb buds form on an axis

106
Q

What is the apical ectodermal ridge?

A

A ridge if thickened epithelium around the tip of the limb bud - rigid

107
Q

What happened if the apical ectodermal ridge is removed?

A

If removed than only the most proximal part of the limb bud is formed
The later you remove it, the more distal elements present in the wing

108
Q

Can anything substitute for the removal of the apical ectodermal ridge?

A

Yes - Fgfs can substitute for the AER - if you remove the AER and replace with beads soaked in FGF4 then normal limb develops

109
Q

What is the progress zone?

A

The distal region of the limb bud
Mesodermal cells that are rapidly dividing
The length of time in the progress zone determines cell fate

110
Q

What is the evidence for the role of the progress zone?

A

If you put a new tip (progress zone) on an old limb bud stump then you get a much longer limb (distal axis)
If you put an old tip on a new stop then the limb doesn’t develop properly

111
Q

What is the zone of polarising activity and where is it present?

A

A region of posterior limb bud mesenchyme - both, of the limb bud more proximal to the progress zone

112
Q

What happens when the zone of polarising activity is transplanted into the anterior part of the limb bud?

A

Two zone of polarising activities (ZPA) leads to duplication of digits - symmetrical

113
Q

What is the sonic hedgehog gene (Shh)?

A

The morphogen present in the ZPA in the limb bud
If beads socked in Shh are implanted in the anterior part of the limb bud then it can cause duplication of the digits - mimics the role of ZPA

114
Q

What genes specify the ZPA in a limb bud?

A

Hoxa and Hoxd gene

If absent then no shh present and trunction of the limb occurs

115
Q

How are digits formed in mammals and amphibians?

A

Mammals - apoptosis (programmed cell death) controlled by the mesoderm of the limb bud - regulated by Hox genes
Amphibians - Differential cell growth
Controlled by evolutionary factors

116
Q

What is a proneural cluster?

A

Groups of cells in the neurectoderm

One cell in the cluster will become a neuroblast and the others will become epidermis

117
Q

What is lateral inhibition?

A

When the central cell in the pro neural cluster inhibits the surrounding cells and stops from becoming neuroblast

118
Q

Are all cells in a proneural cluster capable of becoming a neuroblast?

A

Yes the proneural glosser is an equivalence group

Notch -/- or Delta -/- causes all cells to become neuroblast - must be competent

119
Q

What are delta and notch?

A

Notch is a transmembrane receptors and delta is a ligand
High delta leads to the cell being a neuroblast
High notch leads to the cell becoming epidermis

120
Q

How does the neurectoderm become a neuroblast and epidermis cells?

A
  • Cells express both Notch and Delta equally
  • One cell starts to express more delta
  • Other cells increase in notch in order to receive the amount of delta
  • The increase in notch causes the inhibition of delta in those cells
  • The difference in notch and delta increases leading to a neuroblast (with high delta) and epidermis (with high notch)
    => Lateral inhibition
121
Q

How do the neuroblasts divide to form neurones?

A

Asymmetric divison - Numb protein in one side of the cell

Divides into a neuroblast (stem cell) and a ganglion mother cell (divides into neurones)

122
Q

What cells are present in drosophilla PNS mechanosensory bristles?

A

Hair cell
Socket
Sensory neurone
Sheath cell

123
Q

How are cells in the drosophila PNS formed?

A
  • Lateral inhibition of delta notch signalling
  • Singles out sensory organ precursors (SOPs)
  • Assymetric decision to form each cell
124
Q

What happens in the drosophila PNS when notch is over and under-expressed?

A

Under-expressed - All cells from SOP become neurones

Over-expressed - All cells from SOP become socket cells

125
Q

What are the roles of growth cones?

A

Axon guidance - responds to diffusible molecules and may be either attracted or repulsed by them
When axon reacts its target it synapses with them

126
Q

How do identical chromosomes direct differences between cytoplasmic contents of different cells?

A

Differential gene activity

Not gene loss

127
Q

Name some evidence for differential gene activity as the method for different cytoplasmic contents between cells?

A

Lens regeneration in the newt
- Remove lens from the newt and replace with dedifferentiated cells from the dorsal iris - lens not originally developed from the iris suggesting its potency
Liver cells
- Grow liver and muscle together
- Liver nucleus moves into larger muscle cytoplasm
- Liver genes switched off and muscle genes on
Kidney cells
- Nucleus of kidney implanted in oocyte - kidney genes off oocyte on

128
Q

How does nuclear transfer in the Rana suggest that the nuclei of differentiated cells do not remain totipotent?

A
  • If you removed nucleus from an egg cell and replace with a nucleus of a blastula
  • Then tadpoles develop normally but dot survive to adulthood
  • Suggest pluripotent but not totipotent
  • As the age of donor nucleus increases than the success rate decreases
129
Q

How does testing in the Xenopus suggest that the nuclei of differentiated cells remain totipotent?

A
  • Nucleus from an albino gut cell implanted in pigmented egg - offspring expected to be albino
  • Only had cleaved
  • Took nucleus from successful half and planted in another egg
  • Normal albino tadpoles develop
130
Q

What are some of the criticisms of testing in the xenopus to show the uncle remains totipotent?

A
  • Low success rate
  • Germ cells are sometimes present in the gut which could have been the reason for the success
  • Gut epithelium not fully developed - may still have some potency
131
Q

How does testing in the adult Xenopus (second time) suggest that the nuclei of differentiated cells remain totipotent?

A
  • Skin cells taken from adult xenopus and tested fro the presence of keratin to show that they are fully developed
  • Cleavage occurs on one side
  • Nucleus from healthy side and put in another egg
  • Normal tadpoles develop but didn’t reach adulthood
132
Q

How does the cloning of sheep suggest that the nuclei of differentiated cells remain totipotent?

A
  • Breast cell taken from an adult white faced sheep
  • Fusion to put nucleus inside black faced sheep egg
  • Embryo cultured and placed in a surrogate
  • Normal white face sheep developed - dolly the sheep
133
Q

What is the exception to the differential gene activity theory?

A

Parascaris

  • Genes are lost when differentiate
  • Somatic cells lose genes
  • Germ cells do not
134
Q

Why do we need animal models of human disease?

A
  • Understand disease mechanisms
  • Development of diagnostic tools
  • Development of therapeutics
  • Understand protein function
135
Q

Give an example of where developmental animal models has helped in he understanding of a disease?

A

Shh mutations

  • Cause midline defect and limb defects
  • Now known to underlie many cancers
  • Cyclopamine - a steroidal alkaloid - inhibits hedgehog pathway and had been developed as a treatment for cancers

BMS 1 (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions