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Endo > BOARDS II > Flashcards

BOARDS II Flashcards

1
Q

frankfort horizontal line?

A

ANS porion to Orbitale

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2
Q

camper’s line?

A

ala of tragus line.

occlusal rim is parallel to. CAMPING and EATING

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3
Q

sterilization most destructive to carbide instruments?

A

steam heat

DRY HEAT does not corrode or dull instruments.

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4
Q

orange stain important to change?

A

CHROMA!

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5
Q

most unsuccessful procedure in PRIMARY TOOTH?

A

direct pulp cap. DON’T

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6
Q

resorption of bone takes place how after extraction?

A

down and inward

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7
Q

what determines energy level of photon in x ray

A

KVP

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8
Q

diagnostic for max sinus?

A

MRI

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9
Q

why not zinc chloride?

A

necrosis

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10
Q

why is aluminum chrloide used?

A

hemodent. Most common

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11
Q

J shaped radiolucency?

A

vertical root fracture

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12
Q

precontemplatory

A

patient says i don’t have time to stop habit

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13
Q

action of sodium hypochlrotire?

A

anti bacterial- NOT CHELATING AGENT

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14
Q

DB flange of the denture is determined by?

A

masseter

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15
Q

indium-

A

to prevent chemical bonding with porcelain

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16
Q

bennet shift mainly on?

A

lateral movement or WORKING side

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17
Q

narcotics contraindicated in

A

MAO inhibitor….mepereidine mostly

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18
Q

easy to extract in max 3rd impacted?

A

Distoangular

Mesioangulation easiest in the MD

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19
Q

tx for aggressive periodontitis?

A

systemic abx and full mouth debridement

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20
Q

disease with desquamative gingivitis?

A

pemphigus and cicatrial pemphigoid!!!

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21
Q

common location of lateral perio cyst?

A

mandibular canine and bicuspid area

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22
Q

type of interleukin common after perio disease?

A

interleukin ONE

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23
Q

minimum vertical heigh of bone to place implant?

A

8 mm

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24
Q

minimum width of bone implant?

A

6 mm

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25
Q

minimum distance of apex from nerve?

A

2 mm

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26
Q

implant from adjacent CEJ?

A

2-3 mm

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27
Q

between implants?

A

3 mm

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28
Q

between implant and tooth?

A

1.5???

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29
Q

mini implant?

A

2.4 mm

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30
Q

H2O2

A

Less than 10% is over counter. 30% is for in office bleaching

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31
Q

most acceptable root sensitivity theory?

A

hydrodynamic

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32
Q

mucosal graft epithelization?

A

by the CT from underlying tissue.

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33
Q

Le Fort 1 associated with?

A

max minus?

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34
Q

le fort 3?

A

craniofacial sepration

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35
Q

acute gingivstomat iis virus associated with?

A

chicken px and also HSV

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36
Q

most common site of herpes?

A

attached gingiva???

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37
Q

prostaglandins?

A

they decrease the gastric acid and increase gastric mucous secretion

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38
Q

in asthmatic what is contraindicated?

A

NSAIDS cause bronchospasm

long term asthma give corticosteorid

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39
Q

osteoradionecrosis? radiation dose?

A

4-5 gy of radiation therapy

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40
Q

steroid supplementation?

A

rule of 2s… adrenal suppression may occur if patient is taking 20 mg cortisone for 2weeks within 2 years of dental treatment. ***

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41
Q

why not tetra and penicillin?

A

cancel each other out. static and tidal.

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42
Q

antipsychotic with irreversible side effect?

A

tardive dyskinesia

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43
Q

syndrome iwht glossoptososi, retrognathia, cleft soft palate?

A

pierre robin syndrome

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44
Q

granlumoatous lesion

A

crohn’s disease

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45
Q

st johns wort

A

for depression. can cause tiredness and sedation.

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46
Q

strawberry tongue seen in?

A

scarlet fever

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47
Q

prophylactic for pacemaker?

A

no pre med

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48
Q

LA calculation?

A

4.4 mg/kg

one carpal of 2% has 36 mg

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49
Q

azrithromycin

A

protein synthesis

pens are by cell wall!!!! + vancomycin

AZ fratty people talk their PROTEIN!
LInco too

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50
Q

identify factors that may contribute to a medical condition by comparing subjects who have it vs. those who don’t

A

case control study

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51
Q

patient taking methotextrate will react with?

A

beta lactase

don’t give AMOX and ibuprofen

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52
Q

most common odontogenic ectoderm?

A

ameloblastoma

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53
Q

most common odontogenic of mesenchymal?

A

odotnogenic myxoma.

honey comb appearance.

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54
Q

most common epithelial odontogenic

A

ameloblastoma

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55
Q

more KVP?

A

more CONTRAST for restorative purposes

56
Q

MA controls what?

A

NUMBER!!! ma been with some people.

57
Q

mechanism of action of GABA receptors?

A

increasing the frequency of chloride channels by benzodiazepines

58
Q

treatment of rankle?

A

marsupilaization

59
Q

treatment of mucocele?

A

enucleation

60
Q

action of chlorohexidien?

A

membrane disruption

61
Q

coagulation of proteins?

A

dry heat

62
Q

muscle that decides the posterior extension of the lingual side of dental flange?

A

mylohyoid!

63
Q

necrotic pulp on permanent molar 6 year old?

A

apexification

64
Q

heart rate of 4 year old?

A

100/100 wish

65
Q

most rigid?

A

type IV gold

66
Q

moist stable in moisture?

A

addition silicones

67
Q

purpose of guided tissue regeneration is to prevent?

A

prevent migration of CT cells

68
Q

resorption of bone in PD disease is by

A

IL 1….

69
Q

abx in the gingival crevicular fluid?

A

doxycycline, minocycline

70
Q

Medications associated with hyperplasia.

A

Calcium channel blockers, Dilantin sodium, Cyclosporine

71
Q

fungals:

A

clotrimazole, swish and swallow is nystatin, amphotenricin B is IV, Fluconazole is SYSTEMIC!!! (think of flu systemic)

72
Q

T test?

A

statistical difference 2 means

73
Q

chi squared-when to reject/

A

reject the null if it’s left than .05k or 5 %

74
Q

who regulates waste transport from the office?

A

EPA, OSHA is concerned with waste WITHIN the office

75
Q

autoclave–

A

250 F for 15-20 mins, or 270 for 3 mins with 30 lbs steam

Dry heat sterilization needs HIGHER tempo or longer TIME

Ethylene oxide is 2-3 hour at 120

Glutaraldehyde takes 10 hours to kill

76
Q

table of allowance

A

insurance company says what it will pay for each procedure and the dentist can set up balance billing where patient pay any difference in fees

77
Q

capitation

A

dentist is paid a fixed amount

78
Q

DHMO

A

capitation plan

79
Q

DPPO

A

arrangement between plan and providers . accept certain payment in anticipation for more patients

80
Q

DIPA

A

dental individual practice assoictioant. hybrid DHMO

81
Q

Percent affected at any given TIME

A

prevalence

82
Q

number of new cases in a CERTAIN (SPECIFIC) period over the total number of people susceptible

A

SPECIFIC incidence is the key

Over a period of time.

83
Q

cross sectional?

A

a group of people (assumed to be cross section of total pop) are looked at and assessed at ONE TIME. Say they want to see if alcohol consumption related to cancer. They look and see who has cancer among who are and are not drinkers. TOUGH TO ESTABLISH CAUSATION. Was cancer caused by alcohol or something else.

**look at this group and try to make causation. Look at this group and say, these people drink and have cancer” etc.

84
Q

case control study

A

people with the condition or CASES are compared to those without. look at some with cancer and some without and.

85
Q

variance

A

standard deviation of the means

86
Q

necessary for a test to be accurate?

A

validity

87
Q

confouding

A

in epidemiology- you want to reduce those confounding variables.

88
Q

when you want to compare 2 groups of people what do you look at?

A

chi squared- tells you the significance of a correlation.

89
Q

best flap surgery of gingival recession?

A

lateral pedicle/

90
Q

max depth of toothbrush and floss?

A

toothbrush is 1 mm, floss is 2-3

91
Q

biologic width?

A

2 mm, 1 mm is the attached.

biologic width = sulfur ep + CT

92
Q

regenerative surgery

A

bone graft

93
Q

flap surgery

A

for SRP

94
Q

chlorohex?

A

disruption f the cell membrane

95
Q

listerine action?

A

phenols and disrupts the CELL WALL

96
Q

CHRONIC periodontitis

A

PORPHY gingivallis.

97
Q

aggrieve perio?

A

AA

98
Q

if greater than 2 mm sinus communication?

A

use gel foam, suture, decongestant and ABX.

99
Q

if sinus communication is greater than 6 mm?

A

needs a buccal flap

100
Q

periodontal pathogens in health?

A

gram + facultative COCCI and fialments- anaerobes

101
Q

when is gingivectormy contrite gingival groove, or apical taindicated??

A

if the sulcus is APICAL to the crest of the alveolar bone.

102
Q

internal be the ridge.of vel?

A

tends approximarlty from designated areas tot he crest

103
Q

resorption of b0one is PD disease?

A

IL1

104
Q

purpostion of PDLe of GTR is?

A

prevent the long JE migration of PDL cells

105
Q

tx of a complicated fracture involving pulp?

A

vital pulp therapy if the tooth is immature

106
Q

coronal fracture?

A

poor prognosis. can stabilize the coronal fragment with RIGID splint for 6-12 weeks. i fompossoite, ups can extract the coronal sgmet and then pull the apical portion up with orthodontics or periodontal surgery

107
Q

mid root fracture

A

stabilize for 3 weeks. pulp necrosis happen sin 25% of the time. if pulp necrosis happens in both segment, you can remove the apical segment and then fill the coronal.

108
Q

apical fracture?

A

splint. best prognosis

109
Q

fracture prognosis

A

horizontal better than vertical
non displaced better
oblique is better than transverse
apical is better

110
Q

how to treat concussion?

A

no treatment. ocular adjustment and then follow up

111
Q

subluxation

A

splint for 1-2 weeks if it’s mobile.

112
Q

if tooth was out of mouth for less than 60

A

you want to keep the PDL intact, wash out the coagulum from socket with saline, reimplant, stabalize 7-10 days, abx penicillin or doxy for 7 days.

113
Q

closed apex avulsion?

A

remove debris and necrotic PDL, remove coagulum pocket with saline, immerse tooth in 2.4% sodium fluoride with pH of 5.5 for 5 minutes, reimplant, stabilize for 7 days, administer systemic.

big difference is immersing in sodium fluoride.

114
Q

IF open apex and less than 60 mins

A

clean root surface, place the tooth in doxycycline with saline, remove coagulum from the socket, splint, and then

IF OPEN APEX out for more than 60 mins– implantation is not usually recommended. could start apexification perhaps?

115
Q

when to start endo after avulation>

A

if closed apex, usually want to start endo at 7-10 days,

if open, try to wait for revasularazaiton, if infected pul start the apexicatlon.

116
Q

hemisection?

A

for mandibular molars with buccal and lingual class II or III involvements.

117
Q

osteogenic

A

ability to induce formation of a new bone

118
Q

distal wedge procedures

A

FOR MAXILLARY TUBEROSITY, nadibular retromolar triangle area, distal to the last tooth. think of these as wedge site.

119
Q

modified WIDMAN flap

A

facilitates instrumentation, but it does NOT reduce the pocket depth.

Decision for a Widmna flap depend son the pocket depth, and location of the mucogingival junction. need to know how much attached gingiva you have.

Use the widman flap for exposing root surfaces for removal of pocket lining. 3 horizontal incisions is used, but not reflected past the mucogingival line. reduction happens with healing of tissue.

120
Q

undisplayed unrepositioned flap?

A

this one will actually remove pocket wall and eliminate the pocket. MOST frequently performed.

in the initial incision, the sort tissue pocket is removed- It’s an INTERNAL BEVEL gingvectormy.

121
Q

what two techqnies remove the pocket wall?

A

undisplayed and the gingivectomy

122
Q

apically positioned flap?

A

this improves accessibility and eliminate pocket by apical.y positioning the soft tissue wall of the pocket so it preserves or increases the width of the attached gingiva by transforming the previously unattached keratinized pocket wall into attached tissue

123
Q

internal bevel incision

A
  1. removes the pocket
  2. conserves the uninvolved outer surface of gingiva,
  3. produces sharp, thin flap margin for adaptation to the tooth junction.
124
Q

soft tissue graft that is rotated or repositioned to correct an adjacent defect?

A

pedicle graft. base of the graft remains attached to the donor site. the graft never loses it’s blood supply. think of pedicle because it’s still attached.

indications to widen inadequate zone of attached ignigva, to repair isolated area of gingival recession.

IF donor site does’ have enough attached, or the donor site has a fenestration or dehiscence.

Pedicle grafts are not good for generalized recession cases

125
Q

guided tissue regeneration?

A

placement of nonresorbable barriers or reservable membranes over a bony defect

IDEA is to prevent epithelial migration along the cement wall of the pocket. favors PDL and bone instead of epithelium during the healing?

126
Q

laterally positioned flap variation?

A

double papilla flap

127
Q

partial thickness flap-

A

epithelium and a layer of the underlying CT are reflected

128
Q

4 rules for flap design

A

base should be wider for the blood flow.\
NO incision lines over any defect
incision that traverse a body emindense should be avoided
FLAP CORNERS should be rounded. Sharp will delay healing.

129
Q

when is the AFP contraindicated?

A

if patient is at risk for root caries or if the exposure is anesthetic.

130
Q

horizontal incission- the 3

A
  1. internal bevel
  2. crepuscular
  3. interdental.
131
Q

free mucous graft vs. free gingival graft?

A

free mucosal- has subepthial CT graft differs because free mucosal is T without EPITHIAL covering. So this has to come from the underlying CT. more difficult than free gingival grafting. free mucous is used on canines a lot.

132
Q

during healing, what happens to the epithelium of the free gingival graft?

A

degenerates and sloughs off. Re epitheliazaiton occurs by the proliferation of epithelial cells form the adjacent tissue and the surviving basal cells of the graft tissue.

133
Q

Full thickness flaps

A

result in SUPERFICIAL bone necrosis in 1-3 days! results in some loss of bone

134
Q

reshaping the bone without removing tooth supporting bone?

A

osteoplastly

OsteECTOMY is removing tooth supporting bone.

135
Q

positive and negative architqucture

A

positive if raducualt bone is more apical, negative if the interdental bone is more apical.

Endo (14 decks)

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