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HERBS BOARD EXAM > ***Western Medicine > Flashcards

***Western Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Another name for white blood cells

A

Leukocytes

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2
Q

75% of Luekocytes are

A

Nuetrophils

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3
Q

20-40% of Luekocytes are

A

Lymphocytes

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4
Q

What do Nuetrophils do?

A

Bacterial infection

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5
Q

What are the earliest white blood cells to arrive?

A

Neutrophils

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6
Q

What are Eosinophils for?

A

Allergic Reaction

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7
Q

What are Lymphocytes for?

A

Viral infections, luekemia

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8
Q

What is Leukocytosis?

A

Increase in white blood cells

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9
Q

What is Luekopenia?

A

Too few white blood cells

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10
Q

What is the function of Hemoglobin?

A

Oxygen carryin gproteins

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11
Q

Red blood cells are called

A

Erythrocytes

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12
Q

What is the function of a platelet?

A

To stop bleeding

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13
Q

Platelets are also called

A

Thrombocytes

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14
Q

What are the structures of the external/outer ear

A

Auricle, Helix, Lobule

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15
Q

The external auditory canal is made up of

A

Ear wax, tympanic membrane

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16
Q

The tympanic membrane is also called

A

The eardrum

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17
Q

What are the structures of the middle ear?

A

Malleolus, incus, stapes, secondary tympanic membrane

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18
Q

What are the three smallest bones in the body?

A

Malleolus, incus, stapes

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19
Q

What is the inner ear called?

A

The labyrinth

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20
Q

What are the structures in the inner ear?

A

Choclea, cholear duct, semicircular canals and ducts, stapes in oval windows, round windows

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21
Q

How many lobes are in the thymus?

A

2

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22
Q

Describe the shape of the Thymus

A

2 lobes lying on either side of the midline of the bodyDivided into small subdivisions called lobules

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23
Q

What is the Thymus covered in?

A

Dense connective tissue capsule

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24
Q

What does the dense connective tissue capsule do for the Thymus?

A

Sends fibres into the body of the thymus for support

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25
Q

Where are the trigeminal nerves?

A

The face

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26
Q

What does the opthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve go to?

A

The eyes

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27
Q

If there is a problem in the opthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve, where is the numbness?

A

Just below the eye around ST 2

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28
Q

Where does the Maxillary nerve of the Trigeminal nerve go to?

A

Upper jaw bone

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29
Q

Where does the Mandibular Nerve of the Trigeminal Nerve go to?

A

Lower jaw bone

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30
Q

Which nerve gives rise to taste?

A

Facial nerve VII

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31
Q

What are some symptoms of Bell’s Palsy

A

Loss of taste, decreased salivation, inability to close the eyes

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32
Q

What nerve is associated with bell’s Palsy

A

Facial Nerve VII

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33
Q

Which part of the brain balances the body’s position?

A

Cerebellum

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34
Q

Where is the sperm stored?

A

The testes or seminiferous tubules

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35
Q

Where is the heart located in the chest?

A

Between the 2nd and 6th intercostal spacesParasternal to the left mamillary line, in the middle of the mediastinum behind the breast bone of the chestLevel with T5 through T8

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36
Q

The largest part of the heart is usually located

A

Slightly offset to the left side of the chest

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37
Q

What is the lower tip of the chest called?

A

The apex

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38
Q

Where is the apex of the heart located?

A

Just to the left of the sternum, 8-9cm away from the midline, between the junction of the 4th and 5th ribs near their articulation with the costal cartilages

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39
Q

Where is the heart positioned towards?

A

Shaped like a cone, upwards, and tapering down to the apex

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40
Q

What are the two major sounds of the heart?

A

Lub Dub

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41
Q

The “lub” sound of the heart is called

A

S1, the first sound

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42
Q

The “lub”/S1 sound of the heart is caused by

A

Turbulence caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves at the start of systole

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43
Q

What is the second sound of the heart called

A

“Dub”, or S2

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44
Q

The “dub”/S2 sound of the heart is caused by

A

The closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves, towards the end of the systole

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45
Q

What is a systole?

A

The time period elapsing between the first heart sound and the second heart sound

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46
Q

A systole is also called a

A

Ventricular ejection

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47
Q

What is a diastole?

A

The time between the second sound of the heart and the following first sound

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48
Q

Diastole is also called

A

Ventricular filling

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49
Q

Which vein does not contain de-oxygenated blood?

A

Pulmonary vein

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50
Q

Blood passes from the right atrium to the

A

Right ventricle via the tricuspid valve/right atrioventricular valve

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51
Q

From the right ventricle blood passes to the

A

Left atrium to the left ventricle via the mitral/bicuspid valve

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52
Q

The left atrium receives blood from the lungs via the

A

Pulmonary veins (oxygenated blood)

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53
Q

Blood passes from the left ventricle to the

A

Aortic valve to the ascending aorta to the coronary arteries supplying the blood to the heart wall

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54
Q

What supplies blood to the heart?

A

Coronary arteries

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55
Q

Rheumatic heart disease affects which valve?

A

Most commonly a valve lesion in the mitral valve

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56
Q

How is pulmonary edema formed in the lungs?

A

The left ventricle fails so the blood can’t be pumped and is backed up into the lung causing edema and suffocation

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57
Q

How is pulmonary edema formed in the ankles and feet?

A

The right ventricle fails and blood backs up in the systemic veins over time and the kidneys cause an increase in blood volume resulting in peripheral edema

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58
Q

What is staphylococcus aureus

A

A purulent infection/abscess - a gram positive coccal bacteria that is a member of the Firmicutes

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59
Q

Where is staphylococcus aureas usually found?

A

In the respiratory tract or the skin (common cause of skin infections and abscesses, respiratory infections such as sinusitis, and food poisoning)

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60
Q

Staphyloccus aureas is often positve for

A

Catalase and nitrate reduction

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61
Q

How does staphyloccus aureas promote infections?

A

By producing potent protein toxins and expressinve cell surface proteins that bind and inactivate antibodies

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62
Q

What causes pernicious anemia?

A

Too little vitamin B12

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63
Q

Where is vitamin B12 mostly absorbed?

A

Illeum

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64
Q

What causes less pancreatic juice?

A

sugar

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65
Q

Hyperthyroid symptoms

A

The thyroid gland is overactive, the body’s processes are sped up causing: nervousness, anxiety, rapid heartbeat, hand tremor, excessive sweating, weight loss, sleep problems, poor concentration

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66
Q

What is bulging eyes as a result of hyperthyroidism?

A

Graves Disease

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67
Q

Hypothyroid symptoms

A

Fatigue, weakness, weight gain or increased difficulty losing weight, coarse/dry hair, dry rough and pale skin, hair loss, cold intolerance, muscle cramps and frequent muscle aches

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68
Q

What causes glaucoma?

A

Build up of aqueous humor, poor blood flow, and damage to the optic nerve

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69
Q

Symptoms of cholecystitis?

A

Gall stones, upper right abdominal pain, colic pain, light white stool colour, nausea and vomit, jaundice, cramping and bloating, pain that spreads to your back or below your right shoulder blade, fever and chills, jaundice, itching, positive Murphy’s sign, symptoms occur just after a fatty meal, (vomiting brings temporary relieve pain), fever (if the GB is infected)

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70
Q

What are the symptoms of a stroke?

A

Facial drooping, cannot raise arms, speech slurred, loss of consciousness, severe headache, coma, face red, fists clenched, breathing coarsely, gurgles sputum

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71
Q

Why does renal failure cause edema?

A

Edema occurs due to salt and water retention and metabolic ACIDOSIS due to the Kidney’s inability to excrete acidic substances

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72
Q

Why does renal failure lead to cardiac arrest?

A

The kidney can’t excrete metabolic waste products causing an increase of UREA in the body leading to POSTASSIUM levels to arise causing cardiac arrest

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73
Q

Why is there anemia during renal failure?

A

The kidneys can no longer produce enough erythropoietin for adequate RBC production

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74
Q

Why does osteomalacia occur during renal failure?

A

The kidneys are no longer able to convert Vitamin D to calcitriol which is needed for adequate absorption from the small intestine leading to osteomalacia

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75
Q

What is the treatment for edema?

A

Adequate protein and vitamin B - risk of mlanutrition

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76
Q

Where are RBCs destroyed?

A

In the liver and spleen by fixed macrophages

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77
Q

Where is food absorbed?

A

Small intestine

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78
Q

How long does food remain the small intestine?

A

3-5 hours

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79
Q

How long do gastrointestinal substances remain in the colon?

A

3-10 hours

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80
Q

What lymph node is enlarged for stomach cancer?

A

Left supraclavicular lymph node

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81
Q

What lymph node is enlarged for lung cancer?

A

Right supraclavicular lymph node

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82
Q

Acute Appendicitis symtpoms

A

Referred pain in the umbilical region, loss of appetite, nausea and vomiting, pain in the lower right quadrant (McBurney’s sign), pressure rebounding pain, worsening of pain when examination hand is placed firmly on the abdomen and suddenly removed, pain on percussion, rigidity and guarding, higher levels of Neutrophils

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83
Q

Where is McBurney’s point

A

on the right side of the abdomen, 1/3 the distance from the ASIS to the umbilicus

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84
Q

Which point stops facial artery bleeding?

A

ST 5

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85
Q

What can improve/increase the breathing rate?

A

carbon dioxide concentration

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86
Q

What is the temperature regulation center of the body?

A

Hypothalamus

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87
Q

Where is erythropoietin made?

A

The kidneys

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88
Q

Where does fertilization take place?

A

In the ampulla of the falopian tubes

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89
Q

The Thymus gland is part of the endocrine system but functionally more part of the

A

Immune system

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90
Q

What does the Thymus do?

A

Serves a vital role in the training and development of T-lymphocytes or T cells, an extremely important type of white blood cells

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91
Q

What do T cells do?

A

Defend the body from potentially deadly pathogens such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi

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92
Q

The parathyroid gland is least likely to develop into

A

Cancer

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93
Q

Stiffness of the neck involves which two muscles

A

Trapezius and SCM

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94
Q

What is the prostate gland?

A

Walnut sized gland located between the bladder and the penis

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95
Q

The urethra runs through the center of the

A

prostate

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96
Q

Angina pain symptoms

A

Occurs after exertion or emotional stress, starts in the center of the chest and spreads to the left arm, neck, back, throat, or jaw. Tightness, pressure, squeezing, or aching feeling in the chest/arms. Feeling moderate to severe indigestion that is persistent. Sharp, burning, or cramping pain. Discomfort between the shoulder blades. Numbness or a loss of feeling in your arms/shoulders/wrists.

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97
Q

A spider angioma is due to

A

Hepatocirrhosis (cirrhosis of the liver)

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98
Q

Body temperature from high to low

A

Rectum, mouth, armpit

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99
Q

The lowest body temperature of the day is what time?

A

2-6am

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100
Q

The highest body temperature of the day is what time?

A

1-6pm

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101
Q

What is the narrowest part of the trachea in an adult?

A

Rima Glottidis

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102
Q

What is the narrowest part of the trachea in a child?

A

Subglottis

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103
Q

What kind of cancer in the lung is most common?

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (25% of all lung cancers)

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104
Q

Symptoms of lung cancer

A

A cough that does not go away or gets worse, chest pain that is worse with deep breathing/coughing/laughing, hoarseness, weight loss or loss of appetite, coughing up blood or rust colored sputum (spit or phlegm), shortness of breath, feeling tired or weak

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105
Q

How do you calculate a person’s blood weight?

A

Their weight in kg x 8%

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106
Q

How do you calculate a person’s fluid weight?

A

Their weight in kg x 60%

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107
Q

Due date of a pregnant woman

A

280 days, or 40 weeks taken from the first day of her last period

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108
Q

Which muscle controls the adduction/inversion of the foot?

A

Tibialis anterior

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109
Q

Which muscle controls the abduction of the foot/eversio?

A

Peroneus longus

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110
Q

What nerve is damaged in drop foot?

A

Common peroneal nerve

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111
Q

What muscles support the lateral sides of the foot?

A

Anterior and posterior talofibular ligaments

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112
Q

B lymphocytes are produced in the

A

bone marrow

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113
Q

Where do B cells go from the bone marrow?

A

To the spleen/lymph tissues to mature into immunocompetent B cells

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114
Q

B cells are responsible for generating

A

Antibodies to specific antigens, which they bind via B cell receptors (BCR)

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115
Q

T cells are produced in the

A

Bone marrow

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116
Q

Where do T cells go after being produced in the bone marrow?

A

The thymus where they mature

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117
Q

Helper T cells are the major driving force and the main regulators of the

A

Immune defense

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118
Q

The primary task of the T cells is to

A

Activate B cells and killer T cells

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119
Q

Hemoptysis is found in which lung diseases

A

TB, pneumonia, bronchitis, lung cancer, lung abscesses

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120
Q

Hemoptysis is not found in

A

Chronic Bronchial Disease

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121
Q

Hemoptysis is found in which heart disease?

A

Mitral stenosis heart disease

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122
Q

The function of the gall bladder bile is to

A

Resolve fat (break up fat in food)

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123
Q

When does the growth hormone secrete the most?

A

During rapid wave sleep

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124
Q

If pressure in the brain is high it will cause

A

Heavy projectile vomiting

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125
Q

Which blood vessels nourish the liver?

A

Hepatic Artery (oxygenated blood)Portal Vein (deoxygenated blood)

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126
Q

Pancreatitis

A

Pancreatic cells release trypsin instead of trypsinogen

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127
Q

Pancreatitis symptoms

A

Upper left side or middle of abdomenal pain, pain is persistent and worse when lying flat on back, pain radiating to the back or below left shoulder blade, abdominal pain that feels worse immediately after eating fatty foods or alcohol, nausea, vomiting, tenderness when touching the abdomen

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128
Q

Black stool/melena means how much blood is in the stool?

A

greater than 50ml

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129
Q

What are all of the endocrine glands?

A

ThyroidParathyroidPituitaryAdrenalPineal

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130
Q

What are the organs/tissues that are not endocrine glands but contain cells that secrete hormones?

A

HypothalamusThymusPancreasOvariesTestesKidneysStomachLiverSI SkinHeartAdipose TissuePlacenta

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131
Q

What is a peptic ulcer

A

Ulcer in the lining of the stomach or duodenum

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132
Q

Where is a gastric ulcer

A

Stomach

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133
Q

Where is a duodenal ucler

A

Duodenum

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134
Q

Symptoms of a peptic ulcer

A

Gastric pain climbs up the eosphagus, not relieved with eating, pain occurs 1-2 hours after eating, vomiting blood

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135
Q

Symptoms of a duodenal ulcer

A

Pain relieved with eating, pain doesn’t occur until 3-4 hours after eating, blood stools

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136
Q

Symptoms of a peptic ulcer

A

Gnawing burning hunger in stomach between meals, feels full, bloody stools, weight loss, chest pain

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137
Q

Hemorrhage in the GI tract is usually caused by

A

ulcers

138
Q

What is the largest bone in the body?

A

Femur

139
Q

What is the parasymphathetic nervous system control?

A

Rest and digestion, salivation, lacrimation, urination, digestion, defecation, decreased heart rate, decreased diameter of airways, constricted pupils

140
Q

What is the sympathetic nervous system control?

A

Fight of flight, reduces the body’s functions, pupils dilate, heart rate increases, airways dilate, glucose is released by the liver, slows down digestion and anything that does not prove helpful in stressful situations

141
Q

Epinephrine increases cardiac output by increasing the

A

Rate and force of contractions and vasodilates the arterioles to help increase blood flow to the cardiac muscles during exercise

142
Q

What happens when Hepatitis B enters the body?

A

It infects cells in the liver called hepatocytes. The immune system targets the virus and the hepatocytes causing inflammation in the liver (hepatitis)

143
Q

How is Hepatitis A spread?

A

Fecal contamination in food

144
Q

Hepatitis A symptoms

A

Loss of appetite, malaise, nausea, diarrhea, no lasting liver damage

145
Q

Hepatitis B is spread through

A

Sex, blood transfusions

146
Q

Hepatitis B can cause

A

Cirrhosis of the liver, liver cancer

147
Q

Hepatitis C is spread through

A

Sex, blood transfusions, razors, nail clippers, needles

148
Q

Rheumatic valve disease is caused by

A

Group A Streptociccus

149
Q

What conditions also occur in Rheumatic Valve Disease?

A

Pancarditis, MycoarditisArrhythmia, atrial dilation, ventricular dysfunctionHeart failure

150
Q

What is blood cholesterol?

A

One of the fats in blood. The body uses it to make cell membranes, vitamin D, and hormones

151
Q

What are the two types of cholesterol?

A

Low density lipoprotein (LDL) and High density lipoprotein (HDL)

152
Q

What is LDL

A

Bad cholesterol because high levels in the blood promotes buildup of plaque in the artery walls

153
Q

What is HDL

A

Good cholesterol because it helps carry LDL cholesterol away from the artery walls

154
Q

What are triglycerides?

A

A type of fat found in blood

155
Q

High triglycerides are associated with

A

Being overweightExcess alcohol consumptionDiabetes

156
Q

Where are the Lungs located?

A

The Lungs extend from the supraclavicular ofssa to the 6th intercostal space at the midclavicular line, and to the 11th intercostal space at the back during quiet inspiration

157
Q

Where does the Pluera extend to?

A

From the supraclavicular fossa to the 8th rib on the midclavicular line, and to the 10th rib on the mixaxillary line, and on the 12th rib on the lateral border of the erector spinae muscles

158
Q

What is the first reading of blood pressure, the maximum contraction of the left ventricle?

A

Systolic

159
Q

A systolic reading of 140 indicates

A

High blood pressure/hypertension

160
Q

What is the second reading of blood pressure, when the heart is relaxed and is allowing blood to flow into the upper right?

A

Diastolic

161
Q

Where is the Liver located?

A

From the 7th intercostal space on the right midaxillary line to the 5th intercostal space on the midclavicular line to the xiphosternal joint on the midline to the 5th costal cargilage on the left midclavicular line

162
Q

Where is the lower border of the Liver located?

A

From the 11th intercostal space on the right midaxillary line across the lower border of the costal arch to the costocartialge joint of the 8th and 9th ribs to 3 cm below the xiphoid process

163
Q

Where is the Kidney located?

A

Ont he posterior abdominal wall deep to the paravertebral muscles between T11/12 to L3 (the right KD is 1/2 vertebrae lower than the left)

164
Q

Where is the Stomach located?

A

Upper left quadrant of the peritoneal cavity

165
Q

Where is the Spleen located?

A

Beneath the 9th, 10th, and 11th ribs on the left side of the abdominal cavity

166
Q

Where is the Bladder located?

A

Behind the pubic symphysis, can extend up to Ren 4 when full

167
Q

What is Cirrhosis of the Liver?

A

A form of liver disease that causes permanent damage or scarring to the liver and can cause problem such as variceal bleeding, ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy

168
Q

What is viral hepatitis?

A

When a virus attacks the liver

169
Q

Which forms of hepatitis can be prevented with vaccine?

A

A and B

170
Q

What is the leading cause of liver transplants?

A

Hepatitis C

171
Q

Fatty liver disease is linked to

A

Obesity

172
Q

What factors can determine how a person’s liver metabolizes alcohol?

A

Gender, age, nationality, weight, health

173
Q

If the liver is required to detoxify alcohol continuously

A

Liver cells are destroyed or altered resulting in fatty liver deposits or inflammation and permanent scarring (cirrhosis)Liver cancer can also result from alcohol induced liver disease

174
Q

Furuncles are caused by

A

staph infections

175
Q

What are carbuncles?

A

Clustered boils, from pea sized to golf balls with a yellow point in the center of the head

176
Q

What is stage 1 breast cancer?

A

less than 3cm lump, no metastasis

177
Q

What is stage 2 breast cancer?

A

Less than 5cm lumps, slight adhesions, enlarged lymph nodes on the same side

178
Q

What is stage 3 breast cancer?

A

305cm lump, wide adhesions overlaying skin, ulcerative or sticks to the muscles of the thorax

179
Q

What is stage 4 breast cancer?

A

Widely spread via the supraclavicular lymph nodes, distal organs are involved

180
Q

What are varicose veins?

A

Blood clots due to malfunction in the veins

181
Q

What is goiter?

A

Enlarged thyroid gland (either large or small), painless soft bumps with no edge that are bilateral and movable

182
Q

What is the cause of endemic simple goiter?

A

Lack of iodine

183
Q

What is the cause of sporadic secondary goiter?

A

Hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, drugs, cancer

184
Q

What is scrofula?

A

TB infection of the lymph nodes in the neck. They are pea sized, hard, and movable. They can rupture with thin puss.

185
Q

What is prostatitis?

A

Acute inflammation of the prostate caused by bacteria

186
Q

What are the symptoms of prostatitis?

A

Urgent painful burning bloody uriantion

187
Q

What is the cause of chronically inflamed prostate?

A

Non infection accompanied with benign or prostatic hyperplasia

188
Q

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Excessive cell growth of the prostate gland blocking the urine stream causing weak urine stream or urinary retention

189
Q

What are some causes of low back pain

A

Strain, spasm, osteoarthritis, herniated disks, spinal stenosis, compression fractures, autoimmunity inflammation (ankylosing spondylitis)

190
Q

What is the cause of acute lumbar sprain?

A

Sudden sprain or tear to muscles and ligaments supporting the back by sudden movement

191
Q

Herniated disks of the lower back (L3, L4, L5, S1) are caused by

A

Physical pressure, chemical stimulation, or inflammation of the roots/spinal canal

192
Q

What is carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

Pressure on the median nerve, tingling and numbness felt in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. The pain is worse atnight

193
Q

What is a ganglion cyst?

A

A lump or sac of liquid 1-3cm that does not move, located on tissue or tendons. It can rupture and go away.

194
Q

What is tennis elbow?

A

Inflammation of the lateral epicondylitis of the humerous

195
Q

What is golfer’s elbow?

A

Inflammation of the medial epicondylitis of the humerous

196
Q

What is piriformis syndrome?

A

Inflammation or spasm of the piriformis muscle which compresses and stimulates the sciatic nerve

197
Q

What are the two conditions necessary to diagnose frozen shoulder?

A

Pain, restricted movement

198
Q

What is stage 1 of frozen shoulder?

A

6-9 weeks - Freezing or painful stage - slow onset of pain

199
Q

What is stage 2 of frozen shoulder?

A

4-9 months - Frozen stage - slow movement of pain, stiffness remains

200
Q

What is stage 3 of frozen shoulder?

A

5-26 months - thawing, normal shoulder movement

201
Q

What three bones make up the shoulder?

A

Humerus, scapula, and clavicle

202
Q

What kind of joint is the shoulder?

A

Ball and socket

203
Q

What happens when the rotator cuff tendons are torn?

A

The tendons are no longer fully attached to the head of the humerus

204
Q

Rotator cuff tears are usually in what muscle?

A

Supraspinatous

205
Q

What are the two different types of rotator cuff tears?

A

Partial tear: damages the soft tissue but does not completely sever itFull thickness tear: complete tear, the soft tissue is split into two peieces

206
Q

What are the factors that contribute to rotator cuff tears?

A

Repetitive stress: sports, jobs or routine tearsLack of blood supply: as we get older, blood supply to the rotator cuff tendons lessons and repair ability is diminishedBone spurs: bone overgrowth on the acromion - shoulder impingement which weakens the tendons

207
Q

Risk factors for rotator cuff tears?

A

People over 40People who do repetitive lifting/overhead activitiesAthletesPainters/carpenters

208
Q

Symptoms of a rotator cuff tear

A

Pain at rest and at night, especially if lying on the affected shoulderPain when lifting and lowering arm with specific movementsWeakness when lifting or rotating the armCrackling/crepitus sensation when moving shoulder in certain positions

209
Q

The knee is composed of what three bones?

A

Femur, patella, and tibia

210
Q

What is patellar tendonitis?

A

Inflammation of the tendon connecting the knee cap to the shin bone or tibia - also called Jumper’s knee

211
Q

What is the biggest muscle in the body?

A

Quadricepts

212
Q

What is the biggest tendon in the body?

A

The achilles tendon

213
Q

What is the Anterior Drawer test or Apley Grind test used for?

A

Determining what part of the knee/meniscus is injured

214
Q

What are the purpose of the anterior cruciate ligaments (ACL)?

A

They prevent the femur from sliding backwards on the tibia. It is the most commonly injured knee problem. The knees give out - refer to surgery

215
Q

What are the purpose of the collateral ligaments (MCL)?

A

Prevents the femur from going side to side on the knee

216
Q

A blow to the outside of the knee can injure the

A

Medial collateral ligaments - rest, anti inflammatories, acupuncture

217
Q

What is the cause of oestoarthritis in the knee? What are the symptoms?

A

Wear and tear of knee cartilageKnee pain and swelling

218
Q

RA is what kind of condition and what does it cause?

A

Autoimmune diseasePermanent joint damage

219
Q

What is the largest bone in the foot

A

Calcaneus

220
Q

What is calcaneodynia?

A

Heel pain caused by a bone spur on the back of the heel at the insertion of the achilles tendon

221
Q

What is the cause of plantar fasciitis?

A

Excess running or standing on hard surfaces

222
Q

What are the symptoms of plantar fasciitis?

A

Feels worse in the morning especialy when stepping down/weight bearing

223
Q

A laterally sprained ankle (the ankle rolls outward) injures the

A

Anterior talofibular ligament Rest, ice for first 24-72 hours - wait 24 hrs before cupping

224
Q

How is insulin released from the pancreas?

A

Releases hormones into the digestive systemWhen blood sugar levels get too high, the beta cells in the pancreas release insulin which causes cells to take in the sugar to use as energy or store it as fat

225
Q

How does type 1 diabetes occur?

A

When the immune system mistakenly attacks and kills the beta cells of the pancreas so insulin is not released into the body and sugar builds up into the blood. 5-10% of diabetes patients have type 1. Generally develops in childhood or adolescence.

226
Q

How is type 1 diabetes treated?

A

Insulin and meal planning

227
Q

What is latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (LADA)?

A

A type of type 1 diabetes where there is immune mediated loss of pancreatic cells

228
Q

How does type 2 diabetes occur?

A

When the body can’t properly use the insulin that is released or does not make up enough insulin and sugar builds up into the blood. About 90% of all diabetes patients have type 2. More often develops in adults but children can be affected.

229
Q

How is type 2 diabetes treated?

A

Physical activity and meal planning, medications and/or insulin to control blood sugar more effectively

230
Q

What is torticolis

A

A condition in which the head becomes persistently turned to one side, often associated with painful muscle spasms

231
Q

A protozoa is a type of

A

parasite

232
Q

Signs and symptoms of acute bronchitis

A

Yellow, white, or green phlegm usually appearing 24-48 hours after coughing

233
Q

What are the tests of meningitis?

A

Lumbar punctureKernig’s signBrudzinksi’s sign

234
Q

Neutrophils attack what?

A

Bacteria

235
Q

Lymphocytes attack what?

A

Viruses

236
Q

What is not included in the middle ear?

A

Eardrum

237
Q

3 branches of trigeminal nerve

A
  1. opathlamic2. mandibular3. maxillary
238
Q

What nerve gives rise to taste?

A

Facial

239
Q

Characteristics of staphlococcus aureas

A

Purulent infection/abscess

240
Q

B12 is absorbed mainly in the

A

Ileum

241
Q

If there is less pancreatic juice, what is the problem?

A

sugar

242
Q

Mechanism of glaucoma

A

problem with aqueous humor circulation

243
Q

Change of BM, pain in upper right quadrant, what is the disease

A

Cholecystitis

244
Q

with cardiac infarction, what has pain?

A

upper abdomen

245
Q

loss of consciousness and severe headache are a sign of

A

stroke

246
Q

What can improve the breathing rate?

A

Co2 concentration

247
Q

What is the valve between the left ventrical and atrium?

A

mitral

248
Q

When there is acute appendicitis, what kind of white blood cells?

A

neutrophil granulocytes

249
Q

Hemogram of acute suppurative appendicitis causes an increase in

A

neutrophils

250
Q

Where does food last longest in the body?

A

SI

251
Q

where does gastrointestinal substances last longest in the body?

A

colon

252
Q

How long does food stay in the stomach?

A

2-3 hours

253
Q

Hemoptysis cannot be found in which lung dx?

A

TB, pneumonina, chronic bronchial disease

254
Q

Hemorrhage of the GI tract is most likely due to a

A

peptic ulcer

255
Q

GI bile function is to

A

resolve fat

256
Q

R uppper abdomen colic pain, light white stool, vomiting, sometimes jaundice - what is the syndrome?

A

GB inflammation and GB stones

257
Q

Location of GB pain

A

upper right abdomen

258
Q

Location of pancreatic pain

A

upper left abdomen

259
Q

Action of epinephrine

A

control the heart and blood system

260
Q

parathyroid ion

A

calcium

261
Q

increase in neutrophils means

A

bacterial infection

262
Q

most common white blood cell

A

Neutrophils 75%

263
Q

second most common white blood cell

A

lymphocytes 20-40%

264
Q

What do lymphocytes attack?

A

Viruses, leukemia

265
Q

opthalmic branch of the Trigeminal nerve runs to the

A

eyes, and gives numbness at ST 2

266
Q

which nerve gives rise to taste?

A

Facial nerve VII (7)

267
Q

Which nerve is affected in Belly’s Palsy

A

Facial nerve VII (7), causes decrease in salivation and inability to close eyelids

268
Q

Which part of the brain balances the body’s position?

A

cerebellum

269
Q

which vein in the heart does not contain deoxygenated blood? … contains oxygenated blood

A

pulmonary vein

270
Q

Blood circulation through the heart

A

R AtriumTricuspid ValveR ventriclePulmonary ValvePulmonary ArteryLungsPulmonary VeinLeft AtriumMitral/Bicuspid valveLeft VentricleAortic ValveAscending Aorta/Coronary arteries

271
Q

What happens if L Ventricle fails?

A

-The heart can’t pump out all the blood it receives, and blood goes back into the lung-Which leads to Pulmonary Oedema

272
Q

What happens if R ventricle fails?

A

-Blood goes back in systemic Veins, which over time causes Kidneys to increase the blood volume-Resulting in peripheral edema

273
Q

Cholecystitis/Gallbladder stones symptoms

A

-R upper abdominal Pain-Vomit, jaundice, cramping, bloating, light white stools-Pain that spreads to your back, and below the R shoulder blade-Symptoms after a fatty meal, feel better after vomiting

274
Q

Test for gallbladder stones

A

Muscle test over gallbladder

275
Q

Stroke according to TCM

A

-Wind stroke caused by LV Hyperfunction/Disturbance of Blood and Body Fluid-Acute symptoms> FAST > Facial droop, Arms can’t raise, Slurred Speech, Loss of consciousness,severe headache.-Collapse into Coma, red face, clenched fists, gurgles sputum/ Wiry forceful speech

276
Q

Symptoms of acute appendicitis

A

-Referred pain in the Umbilical region-Nausea, vomiting-Pain moves to the Right lower Quadrant- +ve MC BURNEY test> 1/3 of distance, between ASIS and Umbilicus, guarding and severe painupon touch-Neutrophils Granulocytes (WBC), will be significantly higher during acute Appedicitis

277
Q

The thymus is part of the

A

endocrine system

278
Q

What are two types of important white blood cells

A

T cells and B cells

279
Q

Angina Pain

A

-Due to emotional distress-Pain in the centre of the chest, that spreads to the L arm. (Can create numbness)-Sharp, burning cramping pain-Can spread between the shoulder blades

280
Q

What is the function of pancreatin?

A

-To help the digestion of Amylum-starch, protein, fat

281
Q

What is the narrowest part of the throat?

A

-In adults> Rima Glottidis-In children> Circoid Cartillage

282
Q

What will we see during a hemogram taken when there is an appendicitis?

A

Increase in neutrophils

283
Q

Where are B-Lymphcytes produced, and what is their function?

A

-They are produced in the bone marrow, where these B-Cells travel to SP, and other lymphoid tissues.-B-cells are important for our immune system, because they generate antiboedies-T-cells acivate B-Cells

284
Q

Which blood vessels nourish the liver?

A

Hepatic artery: supplies oxygenPortal vein: carries deoxygenated blood

285
Q

What happens during Pancreatitis?

A

-Pancreas releases Trypsin instead of “Trypsinogen”

286
Q

What is the mechanism of edema due to R-Heart failure?

A

-L-Lung problem > too much blood remains

287
Q

What are the endocrine glands?

A

-Thyroid/ Parathyroid-Ovaries/ Testes-Pineal/Pituitary/Pineal/ Adrenal

288
Q

Pain differences of ulcers

A

-Gastric Pain> Goes up to esophagus, not relieved with eating-Duodenal Ulcers> Pain is relieved with eating-Peptic Ulcers> Burning Pain with hunger-Hemorrhage in the GI, is usually caused by ulcers

289
Q

Function of Epinephrine

A

-Epinephrine increases cardiac output-Increases Ht rate-Increases force of contraction, increases blood flow to cardiac mm during exercise

290
Q

Rheumatic valve disease

A

-Is taking place in the Mitral Valve-Caused by A.Streptococcus-Pancarditis/ Myocarditis/ Arrhytmia/ Atrial dialation/ Ventricular Dysfunction/ Heart Failure

291
Q

Goiter

A

-Enlarged Thyroid Gland-Endemic simple goitre> Lack of Iodine-Spodaric Secondary Goiter > Hyper/Hypo Thyroidism, drugs, cancer

292
Q

Diabetes

A

-Key part of treatment> Monitoring Blood sugar level-Pancreas releases insuline, which can use sugar as energy or store it as fat-Which causes blood sugar levels to go down to normal

293
Q

Type 1 Diabetes

A
  • Immune system mistakenly attacks Beta cells of the Pancreas> Blood levels go up-5-10% of patients> Usually found in Children and Teenagers
294
Q

Type 2 Diabetes

A

-Insuline insensitivity-Body can’t properly use the insuline/ Or does not make enough Insuline-Sugar builds up due to that> 90% of diabetes. Can be managed with health diet/ meds/ exercise

295
Q

Cranial Nerve 1: Olfactory

A

Smell

296
Q

Cranial Nerve 2: Optic

A

Vision

297
Q

Cranial nerve 3: Occulomotor

A

Movement of eyeball

298
Q

Cranial Nerve 4: Trochlear

A

Movement of eyeball

299
Q

Cranial Nerve 5: Trigeminal

A

Sensation of touch, taste, mov lower jaw

300
Q

Cranial Nerve 6: Abducent

A

Eye movement

301
Q

Cranial Nerve 7: Facial

A

Taste, salivation, swallowing

302
Q

Cranial Nerve 8: Auditory

A

Hearing

303
Q

Cranial Nerve 9: Glossopharyngeal

A

Taste, salivation, swallowing

304
Q

Cranial Nerve 10: Vagus

A

Gastric/pancreatic secretion, cardiac/visceral/respiratory reflex

305
Q

Cranial Nerve 11: Spinal Accessory

A

Shoulders/visceral effects

306
Q

Cranial Nerve 12: Hypoglossal

A

Tongue movement

307
Q

Pneumothorax

A

• Accumulation of air in the pleural space• Unilateral chest pain, dyspnea, unilateral chest expansion, decreased tactile fremitus, hyper-resonance, diminished breath sounds, all on the affected side

308
Q

Spontaneous Pneumothorax

A

• Accumulation of air in the pleural space, occurs most frequently in tall, thin, young males

309
Q

Which cranial nerves are purely sensory?

A

1, 2, 8

310
Q

Vestibular and cochlear cranial nerve

A

Cranial Nerve 8

311
Q

Which cranial nerve is for Motor scm and trapezius?

A

Cranial Nerve 9 (neck accessory)

312
Q

Sympathetic cranial nerves

A

3, 7, 9, 10

313
Q

Which cranial nerve is not related to eye movement?

A

CN 2

314
Q

Biopsy of CN 7 for

A

Bell’s palsy

315
Q

CN 7 is located around

A

SJ17

316
Q

C9 nerve root is associated with

A

The bicep’s muscle reflex

317
Q

C 7 nerve root is associated with

A

The tricep’s muscle reflex

318
Q

L 4 nerve root is associated with

A

The patella’s reflex

319
Q

S 1 nerve root is associated with

A

Achilles reflex

320
Q

C 6 nerve root is associated with

A

Brachioradials reflex

321
Q

L 5 is nerve root associated with

A

Foot reflex

322
Q

T10 nerve root is associated with

A

The umbilicus

323
Q

T4 nerve root is associated with

A

Popliteal fossa and nipple

324
Q

Hydrocodone+Acetaminophen

A

Opioid +Non narcotic Analgesic (pain)

325
Q

Lisinopril

A

ACE inhibitor (hypertension)

326
Q

Levothyroxine

A

Hypothyroidism

327
Q

Simvastatin, Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin, Pravastatin

A

Cholesterol

328
Q

Metoprolol, Hydrochlorothiazide

A

Beta blocker (hypertension)

329
Q

Azithromycin, Amoxicillin

A

Antibiotic

330
Q

Omeprazole, Esomeprazole

A

Protein pump inhibitor (acid reflux)

331
Q

Albuterol, Montelukast, Fluticasone+Salmeterol

A

Beta agonist (asthma)

332
Q

Amlodipine

A

Calcium channel blocker (hypertension)

333
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide

A

Diuretic (hypertension)

334
Q

Ibuprofen

A

NSAID (pain)

335
Q

Metformin

A

Diabetes

336
Q

Warfarin

A

Anticoagulant

337
Q

Trazodone, Duloxetine

A

Antidepressent

338
Q

Fluticasone

A

Corticosteroid (inflammation)

339
Q

Oxycodone+Acetaminophen

A

Opioid + Non Narcotic analgesic (pain)

340
Q

Sertraline

A

SSRI (depression)

HERBS BOARD EXAM (15 decks)

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