7/14 Flashcards

1
Q

what is nondisjunction

A

failure of chromosome pairs to separate properly during division.

failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis 1:
mom giving 24; the extra one is DIFFERENT
this is where 2 X’s go into one cell and 0 X’s in another

failure of sister chromatids to separate during meiosis 2 or mitosis:
mom giving 24; the extra one is IDENTICAL
this is where both I’s of the same X go into once circle

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2
Q

what is 1st vs zero order kinetics

A

1st order:
a constant proportion of drug is metabolized per unit of time
the amount metabolized changes based on the serum concentration- increases as the dosing is increased

zero order:
constant amount of drug is metabolized per unit of time
independent of serum levels- rate does not increase with increasing dose (you’ve saturated your converting enzyme)

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3
Q

what are the cells in Graft vs Host disease

A

Graft T cell sensitization against host MHC antigens

donor T cells from the graft migrate to host tissues, recognize host MHC antigens as foreign, and activate CD4 and CD8 T cells to destroy host cells.

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4
Q

what should you think if they give Marfan’s sounding story but you’re supposed to go somewhere else

A

Homocystinuria

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5
Q

what is structurally similar to bisphosphonates

A

pyrophosphate

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6
Q

what do bisphosphonates do

A

disrupt osteoclast function by attaching to hydroxyappetite binding sites on the bony surfaces

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7
Q

what’s the mutation in sickle cell

A

valine replaces glutamic acid in 6th position of the beta-globin chain of Hb

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8
Q

what do miRNAs and siRNAs do

A

they’re small, noncoding RNA molecules that post-transcriptionally regulate protein expression.

they degrade or inactivate target mRNA, which leads to decreased translation into proteins

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9
Q

what is Ehlers Danlos pathophysiology

A

defect in Type 3 collagen synthesis, giving you hyper-flexible joints and skin with easy bruising/scarring

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10
Q

what are the collagen types matched with

A

Type 1 = bONE
(defect in osteogenesis imperfecta)

Type 2 = carTWOlage

Type 3 = “threE D” Reticulin, blood vessels
(Ehlers Danlos and easy bruising)

Type 4 = “under the floor” basement membranes, basement lamina, and lens

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11
Q

where are ribosomes made

A

nucleolus, the really dense circular area inside the nucleus

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12
Q

what is the urachus

A

remnant of the allantois that connects the bladder with the yolk sac during fetal development

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13
Q

what happens if the urachus does not obliterate at birth

A

patent urachus, which can facilitate discharge of urine from the umbilicus

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14
Q

what is Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

A

decreased expression of neutrophil cell-surface adhesion proteins, beta-2 integrins

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15
Q

how does LAD present

A

neutrophils fail to migrate towards infected sites

there’s delayed separation of the umbilical cord, omphalitis, and leukocytosis!!

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16
Q

what is Meckel diverticulum

A

failure of obliteration of the Vitelline duct.

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17
Q

how does tricuspid regurgitation present

A

a holosystolic murmur that increases with inspiration

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18
Q

what happens to the heart during inspiration

A

intrathoracic pressure drops,
so more blood returns to the heart

RV stroke volume increases (more venous return)

the drop in intrathoracic pressure also increases pulmonary vessel capacity,
leading to a transient decrease in LV venous return.

as a result, a Tricuspid regurg murmur would increase in intensity during inspiration
(MR or VSD would decrease/stay the same)

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19
Q

what can kill cels with decreased or absent MHC class I proteins on their surfaces

A

Natural Killer cells

virus-infected or tumor cells lack MHC class I

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20
Q

what specifically do NK cells express and not express

A

Do not express:
CD4, CD8, or CD3

Do express:
CD16, CD56

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21
Q

what is special about NK cells

A

do not require thymus for maturation, and they’re present in a-thymic patients

have no antigen-specific activities

do not require exposure to antigen for activation

do no possess antigen memory ability

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22
Q

what are NK cells activated by

A

Interferon-gamma and IL-12

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23
Q

how do NK cells function to kill other cells

A

they are large lymphoid cells that have perforin granules, which produce holes in target cell membranes; and granzymes, which induce target cell apoptosis

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24
Q

how do you treat ADHD

A

stimulants

they increase availability of NE and DA and block reuptake at synapses

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25
Q

how does Fragile X present

A

CCG repeats on FMR1 gene

eXtra large jaw, ears, face, and macroorchidism, maybe not noticeable until puberty

mild intellectual disability

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26
Q

how does fetal alcohol syndrome present

A

facial dysmorphisms:
short palpebral fissures (eyes)
indistinct philtrum (nose-lip groove)
thin vermillion border (upper lip)

poor growth

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27
Q

how does Klinefelter syndrome present

A

47 XXY Males

tall
gynecomastia
female hips
female hair distribution
small, firm testes (Cryptorchidism)
mild intellectual disability

decreased testosterone by fibrotic testes causes infertility

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28
Q

what is group A strep’s major virulence factor

A

Protein M

it inhibits phagocytosis and complement activation, mediates bacterial adherence, and is the target of type-specific humoral immunity to Strep pyogenes

(Hyaluronic acid is on Strep pyo’s capsule and cannot be distinguished from humans, so it cannot be immunogenic)

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29
Q

what is Plummer Vinson Syndrome

A

Iron deficiency anemia plus esophageal webs/dysphagia and a shiny red tongue 2/2 papillae atrophy

“imagine a spider under your sink licking (tongue) the pipes (iron/metal)”

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30
Q

what are 2 weird findings with Iron deficiency anemia

A

koilonychia (spoon shaped nails)

shiny red tongue

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31
Q

what artery is the primary blood supply of the femoral head and neck

A

medial femoral circumflex artery and its branches

32
Q

how does Meckel Diverticulum present

A

spontaneous but painless lower GI bleeding

Tc-pertechnetate localizes ectopic gastric mucosa, and its increased uptake is diagnostic for Meckel diverticulum

33
Q

what drug the main COD overdose

A

opioids

including prescription and Heroin

34
Q

why do you give an infant the conjugated pneumococcal vaccine versus the polysaccharide?

A

pneumococcal conjugate vaccines:
strongly immunogenic in infancy due to both B and T cell recruitment
they give higher, longer-lasting Antibody titers

Polysaccharide vaccine:
poorly immunogenic in infants because of their relatively immature humor antibody response

35
Q

when is the annular ligament injured

A

during radial head subluxation

this results form sudden traction on the outstretched and pronated arm of a child (hold hands)

children are fine until you try to move their elbow

36
Q

which ligament is commonly injured during throwing

A

ulnar collateral ligament

due to intense valgus stress at the elbow

tx is “tommy john” surgery

37
Q

What is Ataxia Telangiectasia

A

defect in ATM gene,
causing failure to repair DNA double strand breaks

findings:
high AFP
low IgA (and others)
lymphopenia
cerebellar atrophy
38
Q

how does Ataxia Telangiectasia present

A

Triad of A’s for the ATM gene:

Ataxia (cerebellar defects)
Angiomas (telangiectasia)
IgA deficiency (recurrent infection)
39
Q

what is Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency

A

defect in LFA-1 integrin (CD18) protein on phagocytes

impaired migration and chemotaxis

Findings:
persistent leukocytosis/neutrophilia (they’re floating in the blood and can’t hang out and wait to be activated)
absent neutrophils at infection sites

40
Q

how does Leukocyte adhesion deficiency present

A
persistent leukocytosis
recurrent infections
NO PUS formation
impaired wound healing
delayed separation of umbilical cord
41
Q

what is Chediak Higashi syndrome

A

defect in Lysosomal Trafficking regulator gene (LYST)

microtubule dysfunction in phagosome-lysosome fusion

findings:
giant granules in granulocytes and platelets
pancytopenia
mild coagulation defects

42
Q

how does Chediak Higashi present

A
"CHINA"
Chediak-Higashi
Infections (staph and strep)
Neuropathy
Albinism
43
Q

what is Chronic Granulomatous Disease

A

defect in NADPH oxidase,
which decreases ROS (superoxide) and decreases respiratory burst in neutrophils

recurrent infections with Catalase (+) organisms

findings:
abnormal dihydrorhodamine (flow cytometry) test (low green)
Nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test is negative- the neutrophils won’t turn blue

“CGD means Cats Gain Dominance”

44
Q

what is Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

mutation in WAS gene;
T cells are unable to recognize actin cytoskeleton

findings:
low/normal IgG and IgM
high IgE and IgA
fewer and smaller platelets

45
Q

how does Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome present

A

“WAX TIE”

Wiskott-Aldrich
X-linked recessive
Thrombocytopenia
Infections
Eczema
low M (upside down W)
high IgA and IgE (the 2 vowels that make sense in WAx tiE)
46
Q

what’s the primary risk factor for Calcium oxalate stones

A

low urinary citrate

causes distal renal tubular acidosis

47
Q

what risk does Crohn disease give you for kidney stones

A

hyperoxaluria

48
Q

how will osteoporosis present

A

probably older female with smoking history, prior glucocorticoid use

decreased bone strength from low bone mass

fragility fracture (minimal trauma)

serum PTH, Ca, PO4 are typically NORMAL

49
Q

what are anti-dsDNA antibodies specific for

A

SLE

50
Q

what are anti-Smith antibodies specific for

A

SLE

51
Q

what are anti-centromere antibodies specific for

A

CREST or systemic sclerosis

52
Q

what are anti-mitochondrial antibodies specific for

A

PBC

53
Q

distinguish DNA Pol 3 from Pol 1

A

DNA Pol 3:
DNA synthesis
3’ to 5’ exonuclease (proofreading)

DNA Pol 1:
DNA synthesis
3’ to 5’ exonuclease
ALSO removes RNA primer via 5’ to 3’ exonuclease and replaces it with DNA

54
Q

what does Syndeham chorea look like

A

non-rhythmic movements of the hands, feet, and face
“unintentional funny faces”
sudden changes in voice pitch and volume

seen in JONES criteria of Rheumatic Fever

55
Q

what does erythema marginatum look like

A

faintly erythematous, circular lesions with central clearing that come and go on trunk and extremities

seen in JONES criteria of Rheumatic fever

56
Q

what are the pressures of the different heart areas

A

RA: <5

RV: 25/5

Pulm Artery: 25/10

LA: <10

LV: 120/10

Aorta: 120/80

57
Q

what does Celecoxib do

A

selective COX-2 inhibitor

COX-2 is an enzyme unregulated during inflammation by IL-1 and TNF-alpha.

Inhibiting COX-2 then inhibits pro-inflammatory arachidonic acid metabolites

no COX-1 activity, so minimal GI toxicity

58
Q

how could you describe an extended-spectrum beta lactamase bacteria

A

it has genes encoding enzymes that destroy antibiotic beta-lactam rings..

these genes are often located on plasmids, so they can be transferred between organisms and between different species through conjugation.

“plasmid with drug resistance gene”

59
Q

what are the side effects of isoniazid

A

“Injury to Nerves and Hepatocytes”

60
Q

what do anti-histone antibodies indicate

A

Drug-induced lupus

61
Q

what is the most specific sign for pyelonephritis

A

WBC casts

62
Q

what does the presence of casts mean

A

casts indicate hematuria/pyuria is from glomerular or renal tubular origin

63
Q

what do you see in bladder cancer or kidney stones

A

hematuria, no casts

64
Q

what do you see in acute cystitis

A

pyuria, no casts

bladder = NO CASTS

65
Q

RBC casts are in

A

glomerulonephritis or malignant HTN

glomerular bleeding

66
Q

WBC casts are in

A

tubulointerstitial inflammation
acute pyelonephritis
transplant rejection

67
Q

Fatty casts are in

A

Nephrotic syndrome

associated with “Maltese cross” sign

68
Q

Granular casts are in

A

Acute tubular necrosis

AKA Muddy brown casts

epithelial cells get casted into the tubule shape

69
Q

Waxy casts are in

A

End-stage renal disease/ chronic renal failure

70
Q

Hyaline casts are in

A

nonspecific,
can be a normal finding
often seen in concentrated urine samples

71
Q

what is seen in Renal Papillary Necrosis

A

sloughing of necrotic renal papillae leads to gross hematuria and proteinuria

SAAD papa with papillary necrosis:
Sickle cell
Acute pyelonephritis
Analgesics (NSAIDs)
Diabetes mellitus
72
Q

what inheritance pattern is achondroplasia

A

autosomal dominant

73
Q

what is the achondroplasia mutation

A

gain-of-function in FGFR3 mutation

inhibits chondrocyte proliferation

74
Q

what is schizotypal personality disorder

A

long-standing pattern of eccentric behavior, odd beliefs, perceptual distortions, and social anxiety despite familiarity (superstitious)

Typal = magical Thinking

75
Q

what is schizoid personality disorder

A

voluntary social withdrawal, limited emotional expression, content with social isolation (vs avoidant)

schizoiD = Distant

76
Q

what is schizophrenia, Schizophreniform, Schizoaffective, and Brief Psychotic Disorder

A

Schizophrenia:
psychosis and disturbed behavior/thoughts
lasting > 6 months

Schizophreniform:
lasting 1-6 months
“forming into schizophrenia”

Schizoaffective:
psychosis + (psychosis AND mood)
“Affective has And mood”

Brief Psychotic Disorder:
lasting < 1 month