21 Histopathology Flashcards

1
Q

Histo features of JNA

A

Unencapsulated admixture of vascular tissue and fibrous stroma where the vessel walls lack elastic fibers and have decreased to no smooth muscle; mast cells are abundant in the stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cell of origin of parotid gland SCCa

A

Excretory duct cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What feature distinguishes low grade from high grade mucoepidermoid CA

A

The amount of mucin in the tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the histologic differences b/w a hemangioma and a vascular malformation

A

Cellular proliferation is characteristic of hemangiomas; vessel dilation is characteristic of vascular malformations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the histologic features of vascular malformations

A

Dilated, ectatic vascular channels with a nl endothelial lining and areas of thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the typical histologic characteristics of lymphatic malformations

A

Multiple dilated lymphatic channels lined by a single layer of epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What cells are unique to Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Reed-Sternberg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the main histo types of RMS

A

embryonal, alveolar, pleomorphic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is m/c type of RMS in H&N

A

embryonal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the characteristic histo findings of RRP

A

Exophytic papillary fronds of multilayered benign squamous epithelium containing fibrovascular cores; cytologic atypia, in particular, koilocytotic atypia, is not unusual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What test is used to dx IFS

A

tissue bx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the histo findings of IFS

A

Hyphae with tissue invasion and noncaseating granulomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What feature seen on renal bx with EM is pathognomonic for Alport syndrome

A

basket-weave configuration of the glomerular basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What other test can be useful in dx Alport syndrome

A

skin bx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What histo finding distinguishes cholesteatoma from CHL granuloma

A

squamous epithelium is present only in cholesteatoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What cell patterns are characteristic of vestibular schwannoma

A
Antoni A (tightly arranged)
Antoni B (loosely arranged)
17
Q

In which pattern are Verocay’s bodies found?

A

Antoni A

18
Q

T/F: Tumors with high percent of Antoni A cells relative to Antoni B cells have a better prognostic outcome

A

False: Outcome is independent of cell proportions

19
Q

How does one differentiate b/w a benign and malignant paraganglioma

A

There are no clear histologic characteristics of malignancy; malignant lesions are defined by the presence of mets

20
Q

What are the 2 primary cells of paragangliomas

A

Type I granule-storing chief cells and type II schwann-like sustentacular cells (S-100 +) arranged in a cluster called a Zellballen

21
Q

What are the histo features of BCCa of skin

A

Clefting, lack of intracellular bridges, nuclear palisading, and peritumoral lacunae

22
Q

What histo characteristic of recurrent BCCa has negative prog significance

A

Irregularity in peripheral palisade

23
Q

What are the histo features of SCCa of skin

A

Keratin pearls in well-diff lesions

Poorly diff lesions may require IHC with cytokeratin or vimentin

24
Q

What are the levels defined in Clark’s system

A

Level I: Epidermis.
Level II: Invasion of basal lamina into the papillary dermis.
Level III: Fill the papillary dermis.
Level IV: Invasion into the reticular dermis.
Level V: Invasion into subcutaneous fat.

25
Q

What are the histopath features of synovial sarcoma of the H&N

A

Poorly differentiated, high-grade malignant neoplasms arising from pluripotential mesenchymal cells; biphasic cellular pattern containing spindle cells and epithelioid cells; microcalcifications in 30–60%; the existence of monophasic forms, containing either spindle or epithelioid cells, is controversial.

26
Q

What are the classifications of NP CA designated by WHO?

A

Type I: Well-differentiated, keratinizing SCCA.
Type II: Poorly differentiated, nonkeratinizing SCCA.
Type III: Lymphoepithelioma or undifferentiated.

27
Q

Which of these is characterized by syncytia (fused multinuclear giant cells)

A

Type III

28
Q

Which of these is m/c in North America? lease common?

A

M/c is type III 70%

Least common is type II 10%

29
Q

Which of these is not a/w + EBV titers

A

Type I

30
Q

What histo pattern is characteristic of an olfactory neuroblastoma

A

Homer-Wright rosettes

31
Q

What histological subtypes of thyroid tumors are a/w increased risk of local recurrence and mets

A

Tall cell, columnar, insular, solid variant, and poorly differentiated