CV Drugs 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the mechanisms of arrhythmias

A
  • abnormal automaticity
  • abnormal conduction
  • disturbances in both automaticity and impulse conduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

class I antiarrhythmic drugs =

A

sodium channel blockers, prolongs AP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the drug of choice to treat atrial fibrillation in horses?

A

quinidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

it’s possible to use quinidine for ventricular arrhythmias but what class IA drug would be a better choice?

A

procainamide, more effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F: class IA sodium channel blockers shorten APs while class IB sodium channel blockers prolong APs

A

FALSE, opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what class IB sodium channel blocker is the drug of choice for treatment of ventricular tachycardia in dogs?

A

lidocaine (cats are sensitive! watch dosing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T/F: its always safer to treat for ventricular tachycardia

A

TRUE! lidocaine has very short half life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what sort of effect do class II beta-blockers have?

A

inhibition of catecholamine effects on the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

of the class II beta-blockers that are selective B1 antagonists, which is used in the treatment of HCM in cats

A

metoprolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the three class II beta-blockers that are selective B1 antagonists?

A

esmolol (short-term), atenolol, and metoprolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

why should you wean off class II beta-blockers gradually?

A

risk of upregulation of receptors (“sympathetic storm”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when are class II beta-blockers contraindicated?

A

is unstable or overt heart failure present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

in what type of patient do you see more adverse effects of class II beta-blockers?

A

geriatric or unstable patients (hypotension, lethary, depression, syncope, worsening CHF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what type of class II beta blockers are safer to use in patients w/ bronchoconstrictive disease?

A

selective B1 antagonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F: some adverse effects of amiodarone include GI, bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity, type I hypersensitivity w/ IV formulation

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what class III K channel blocker is used for the treatment of ventricular arrhythmias in dogs and is often a 2nd or 3rd line antiarrhythmic?

A

amiodarone, limited use in horses, converts atrial fibrillation to sinus rhythm

17
Q

sotalol is a class III K channel blocker, what other type of blocker is it?

A

nonselective B-blocker

18
Q

T/F: amiodarone is contraindicated with overt or low output CHF

A

FALSE, sotalol

19
Q

which class III potassium channel blocker has more side effects?

A

amiodarone

20
Q
match the blockers to the class
class I                 beta blockers
class II                ca channel blockers
class III               k channel blockers
class IV              na channel blockers
A
class I=na channel blockers
class II=beta blockers 
class III=k channel blockers 
class IV=ca channel blockers
21
Q

what type of arrhythmia are ca channel blockers indicated for?

A

supraventricular arrhythmias ONLY

22
Q

what two anti-arrhythmic drugs are used in combination w/ horses to treat SVT?

A

quinidine (class IA na channel blocker) and diltiazem (class IV: ca channel blocker)

23
Q

what is the drug of choice for treatment of SVT and to decrease ventricular response rate in treatment of atrial fibrillation?

A

diltiazem

24
Q

what drug in what class has the greatest effects on the SA and AV nodes?

A

diltiazem

25
Q

what class of antiarrhythmics are contraindicated with radiographically documented pulmonary edema?

A

class IV calcium channel blockers

26
Q

T/F: diltiazem when given IV should be given very slowly

A

TRUE

27
Q

nothing is working!! how can i try to stop SVT in a patient w/ no drugs?

A

vagal maneuvers (carotid sinus massage, ocular pressure)

28
Q

T/F: hypovolemic patients can lead to fluid-responsive tachycardia

A

TRUE

29
Q

what three drugs would you consider for treating a 2nd degree AV block?

A
  • isoproterenol
  • theophylline
  • glucagon
30
Q

what two drugs would you consider for treating sinus bradycardia?

A
  • *do nothing! often underlying cause can’t be treated w/ drugs alone
  • atropine
  • glycopyrrolate
31
Q

what would indicate an atrial standstill on an ECG?

A

absence of p-waves

32
Q

T/F: atrial standstill is most commonly caused by severe hyperkalemia

A

TRUE

33
Q

which of the following is considered the drug of choice for treatment of ventricular tachycardia?

a. lidocaine
b. mexilitine
c. amiodarone
d. propanolol

A

a. lidocaine, mexilitine is the oral form

34
Q

which of the following is considered a drug of choice fro treatment of atrial fibrillation with high ventricular response rate?

a. lidocaine
b. esmolol
c. diltiazem
d. sotalol

A

c. diltiazem

35
Q

which of the following if best described as a selective beta-adrenergic antagonist?

a. quinidine
b. atenolol
c. carvedilol
d. sotalol

A

b. atenolol

36
Q

which of the following if least appropriate to use for treatment of ventricular arrhythmias?

a. mexilitine
b. sotalol
c. amiodarone
d. diltiazem

A

d. diltiazem

37
Q

what drug is known to help treat refractory ventricular arrhythmias and can act as an adjunct to treat malignant hyperthermia?

A

magnesium sulfate IV