Animal Health In Production Systems Wks 4-7 Flashcards

1
Q

The most commonly farmed deer are..?

A

Red deer (reindeer are second most commonly farmed)

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2
Q

Male deer are called stags for all breeds except…?

A

Wapiti (bull) and fallow (buck)

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3
Q

Deer numbers in Australia are around…?

A

70,000

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4
Q

Half the world’s farmed deer population is farmed where?

A

New Zealand

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5
Q

What are some things that influence deer farming?

A
New knowledge
Transport stress
Consumer requirements
Nutrition
Export
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6
Q

Temperate species of deer include…? They have a strongly seasonal reproductive cycles.

Tropical species include…?

A

Fallow, red, wapiti

Rusa, chital, sambar, hog, white-tail, blackbuck

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7
Q

The temperate species of deer calve in ________ and wean before the rut (________).

The tropical species calve _____________ and their weaning time is variable.

A

Nov/ Dec

Autumn

Late Autumn/winter

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8
Q

What are some things to consider when setting up a deer farm?

A
Fences/yards (visual and physical barriers)
Crushes
Herd size (20-40 is ideal)
Pasture (high quality, improved)
Shelter (esp. to hide young)
Paddocks
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9
Q

What are the stocking rates for fallow doe, red hind and rusa hind?

A

2 DSE
3.5 DSE
3 DSE

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10
Q

What are some changes that occur in stags in preparation for reproduction?

A
🔹neck hypertrophy
🔹roar
🔹antler calcification
🔹aggression/ territory marking
🔹30% body loss
🔹occurs march-jul
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11
Q

Female deer reach puberty at what age? Their fertility peak occurs at what age?

A

15 months

5 years

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12
Q

What is velvet harvesting?

A

Amputation of live antler prior to calcification from male deer

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13
Q

What is the growth timeline for antlers?

The quality of antlers is based on what?

A

Cast: July/ August
Growth: September/ January
Maturation: Jan/ Feb

How many tynes are present.

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14
Q

Which type of camel has one hump and which has two?

A

One: Dromedary (Africa)
Two: Bactrian (east Asia)

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15
Q

When was the first camel imported into Australia and when was the first camel stud established?

A

1840, 25 years later (1865)

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16
Q

How many camels are there in Australia approximately?

A

300,000!!!!!

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17
Q

What are some uses for camels?

A
🔹Travel
🔹Baggage transport
🔹Quick movement
🔹Meat (and milk)
🔹Tourism
🔹Pets
🔹Dung for fuel
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18
Q

Camels are true ruminants. True or false?

A

False. They function like ruminants however their stomach lacks the structural divisions that a true ruminant has (they have functional divisions)

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19
Q

Microbial digestion in the camel gut occurs where? Where is the glandular area?

A

In C1 and C2.

Glandular area in C1

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20
Q

South American camelids include 4 main types including…? Which is most common in Australia?

A
  1. Llamas
  2. Guanacos
  3. Vicunas
  4. Alpacas*
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21
Q

The gestation length of an alpaca is around how many days? How long do they live?

A

335 days

15-20 years

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22
Q

What are the different stages of alpaca development?

A

Crias (babies) ➡️ Tuis (adolescents) ➡️ Hembras (adult female) or Machos (adult males)

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23
Q

In Australia, 80% of alpacas are in herds of how many animals?

A

Less than 10

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24
Q

What are the two different types of alpacas and which is most common in Australia?

A

Huacaya** and Suri (dreadlock-like fleece)

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25
Q

What is the DSE rating of an alpaca?

A

1-1.2 (if pregnant or lactating, may be up to 2 DSE)

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26
Q

What is the mating age for an alpaca?

When are they weaned?

A

Generally they should be greater than 45kg and over 12 months old. The males reach sexual maturity at 1-3 years age.

Weaned between 3-6 months of age

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27
Q

Alpaca meat:
Protein= ______%
Cholesterol= ?high/low?
Fat= ?high/low?

A
Protein= 21-24%
Cholesterol= low (5.5-6)
Fat= low
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28
Q

Horses first came to Australia in ….?

A

1788 on 26 January (first fleet)

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29
Q

What are the main disease threats to the equine industry?

A

African horse sickness
Equine influenza**
Vesicular stomatitis
–>all included in AUSVETPLAN disease strategies

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30
Q

Who regulates the import of horses in Australia? How long are horses held in quarantine facilities?

A

Australian quarantine and inspection services (AQIS)

2 weeks in the country of origin and 2 weeks in Australia

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31
Q

What is the vaccination schedule for the Hendra vaccine?

A

Given from 4 months of age.

Two doses are given 3-6 weeks apart followed by a booster 6 months later and then annual vaccination

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32
Q

The key plan in equine disease prevention is…?

A

The Australian emergency veterinary plan (AUSVETPLAN)

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33
Q

What are the different equine events in Australia?

A

Dressage, jumping and eventing (English riding disciplines)

Also, endurance rides, western riding (eg. Western pleasure, rodeo and campdrafting), polo, polocrosse and harness racing

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34
Q

Briefly describe dressage.

A

Horse and rider performs series of predetermined movements in a flat, rectangular arena. The horse has to show different gaits and smooth transition with minimal aids from the rider. Takes at least 4 years to train a horse to Grand Prix level

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35
Q

Jumping events require horse and rider to go over how many obstacles?

A

10-13

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36
Q

What is eventing?

A

Competition across three disciplines: dressage, endurance and show jumping. It may be run as a 1 or 3-day event.

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37
Q

What breeds of horse currently dominate eventing? When does a vet inspection occur?

A

Thoroughbreds and TBx

Before the beginning of event and before the last phase

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38
Q

Which breed of horse currently dominate endurance ride (40-160km) events?

A

Arabian and Arabian xbred

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39
Q

What is the primary role of veterinarians in equine sporting events?

What do pre-ride vet checks entail?

A

To protect welfare of horses by determining whether they are fit to continue.

Vet checks include: mouth inspection, shoeing/hoof condition, no visual impairment, cardinal signs, minor injuries, gait/lameness

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40
Q

What is a sulky or a gig?

What are hobbles?

A

Two wheeled cart used in harness riding.

Hobbles are straps connecting the legs on each of the horses sides to help maintain stride.

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41
Q

The Australian stock horse is a breed developed in Aust for _________. It is mainly derived from TBs with the addition of __________.

A

Working livestock

Arabians, quarterhorses, and other breeds

42
Q

A stallion is an entire male horse over ___ years of age. What’s a rig?

A

4

A rig is a cryptorchid male horse

43
Q

A typical summer cycle for a mare is how many days?

A

21 (5 days oestrus, 16 days dioestrus, ovulation occurs 24-48 hrs before the end of oestrus)

44
Q

The first oestrus period after the winter dioestrus is called the __________ and is usually much longer than other oestrus periods. It’s also frequently an infertile oestrus.

The first oestrus period after foaling is called the _________ and typically starts _________ after foaling

A

Spring heat

Foal heat, 10 days (range 5-12)

45
Q

To produce a foal annually, a mare must conceive within how many days of giving birth?

A

25 days (based on a 340 day gestation length)

46
Q

In order to produce foals as soon after the 1st Aug as possible, studs should start serving when?

A

5th September. Most stop on 31st dec but some continue into early January

47
Q

In order to have mares ready to serve in September, they need to be exposed to artificiallly lengthened daylight for __________ weeks.

A

About 10 weeks (start of July)

48
Q

What are some signs that indicate a mare is in oestrus?

A

🔹Carry their tail raised
🔹Repeatedly every their clitoris from the clitoral fossa
🔹Void small amounts of urine frequently
🔹Stand in close proximity to another mare

49
Q

What should a vet look for to confirm oestrus? (6)

A
🔹Flaccid, red, moist open cervix (seen with a speculum)
🔹No urine pooling in anterior vagina
🔹Flaccid uterus on palpation 
🔹Palpable (or visible on US) follicle
🔹Oedematous endometrial folds (US)
🔹Absence of air or fluid in uterus
50
Q

Most equine follicles will reach a diameter of _______ before they ovulate. Follicles grow ______ a day

A

4.5cm

3-5mm

51
Q

Service fees are due when?

A

Once a single 45-day pregnancy is confirmed

52
Q

What percentage of mares carry twins? If twins are detected before day _____, they can be separated and one may be killed. If detected after this point, one can only be killed if they _______________.
If both twins are aborted before day ____, the mare can start cycling again.

A

16, are in separate uterine horns

Day 35

53
Q

What happens on day 35 of gestation in a horse?

Because of this event, when is it common to scan mares for twin pregnancies?

A

Endometrial cups start to form and produce pregnant mare serum gonadotropin (or eCG). This continues whether the pregnancy continues or is lost–> stops them getting into season again.

At day 14 and again at day 20-29

54
Q

What is Duvaxyn?

A

Vaccination containing inactivated EHV 1 and 4 to prevent abortion

55
Q

What is the caslick’s procedure?

A

Procedure performed on broodmares with poor vulval conformation to reduce the incidence of ascending genital tract infections (they seal the dorsal vulval lips together)

56
Q

What are the three stages of labour in a horse?

A
1st stage: 4-12 hrs. Foetus alters its position for birth. Mare will often: 
Isolate herself
Develop areas of patchy sweating 
Become restless
Show signs of abdominal discomfort
Dilate her cervix

End of first stage is demarcated by the waters breaking

2nd stage : 5-20mins. In some cases up to an hour. Red sac is the unruptured chorioallantois, white sac is the amnion

3rd stage: foetal membranes should pass within three hours of birth

57
Q

How long should you leave between stallion matings?

A

6 hours (therefore a max of four per day)

58
Q

Foals should be on their feet within _______ of birth and suckling within _____. A foal will suckle about ____ times per hour in the first week of life, but has reduced to ______ times per hour by the second and third week of life.

A

1 hour
2 hours
7 times/hr
2-3 times/hr

59
Q

A 50kg TB foal needs a total of ____ litres of good quality colostrum which should be sticky, viscous and yellow with SG >________.

A

2 litres

SG>1.060

60
Q

What schedule would you follow to feed an orphaned foal?

A

2L colostrum in first 12 hrs over multiple feeds
First few days of life: 500ml every 1-2 hrs
If successfully weaned off bottle by 5 days, bucket feed 2L every 4 hours

61
Q

From what age can foals be wormed and vaccinated?

A

Can be wormed from 4 wks of age.

Any age is suitable for vaccination but they are usually not vaccinated before 3-4 mo.

62
Q

What does a foal’s first vaccination cover and what is the schedule?

A

Tetanus, strangles and ideally Hendra.

Tetanus: 2 doses, 4 wks apart. Boosters every 5 years
Strangles: 3 doses at 2 week intervals. Boosters annually (or every 6 months)
Hendra: 2 doses, 21-42 days apart. Boosters every 6 months.

63
Q

Equine herpes virus vaccine can be given to reduce respiratory infections or to reduce abortions in mares. What are the vaccination protocols for these two circumstances?

A

Resp: 2 doses, 6 wks apart. Booster annually (or 6 monthly)
Abortion: 3 injections- in the 5th, 7th and 9th month of gestation

64
Q

At what age are foals weaned from their mothers?

A

6-8 months of age

65
Q
At what times of the year should the following events occur in a sheep production farm?
🔹Lambing
🔹Mating 
🔹Vaccinations
🔹Castrations
🔹Anthelmintic treatments
🔹Fly control
🔹Lice treatment
🔹Shearing
A

🔹Lambing: 3-5 months before pasture senescence
🔹Mating: 5 months prior to lambing
🔹Vaccinations: at marking and at weaning
🔹Castrations: at marking (2 wks after lambing)
🔹Anthelmintic treatments: 2 summer drenches (Dec, Jan/Feb)
🔹Fly control: at marking
🔹Lice treatment: at shearing (summer or early autumn)
🔹Shearing: summer or early autumn

66
Q

What is the difference between a strategic and tactical treatment?

A

Strategic treatments are designed to control pathogens at critical lifecycle stages. Tactical treatments are given on an as-needs basis in response to monitoring.

67
Q

Cashmere is obtained from …..? Mohair is obtained from….?

A

Several breeds of goats

Angora goats 🐐

68
Q

What are the three environmental zones sheep production occurs in in Australia?

A
  1. Sheep-cereal zone: low rainfall, sheep can graze stubble
  2. Pastoral zone: native pastures and shrubs, unreliable and low rainfall, lower stocking rates, extensive management. Better suited to wool production than meat
  3. High rainfall zone: support higher stocking rates. Suits wool production in drier parts and meat production in wetter parts
69
Q

Why are goats often snatch-reared?

A

To prevent transmission of disease in colostrum, particularly caprine arthritis and encephalitic virus

70
Q

Meat producers start lamb sales from what age?

A

16 weeks old

71
Q

Most Australian beef exports go to…?

A

Japan and the US

72
Q

Describe the two types of fattening systems used in the beef industry.

A

Grass or feedlot: purchase weaner calves and fatten on grass or grain for sale either to an abattoir or another fattening farm.

73
Q

Factors selected for when breeding beef cattle are…?

A

Ease of calving
Weight gain
Carcass characteristics

74
Q

The average birth weight of a beef calf is…? Females cycle every ______ days.

A

25-50kg

21 days

75
Q

If you crossed an Angus with a Hereford, what colour combination would you expect in the progeny?

A

Black body with white face and no horns.

76
Q

What is a scur?

A

Residual horns

77
Q

If horns are present on a cow, what are the different ways they can be removed?

A
  1. Paste (caustic paste)
  2. Cut (knife)
  3. Gouge (scoop dehorners)
  4. Burn (iron)
  5. Tipping (using guillotine dehorners or wire)
78
Q

What vaccine do beef cattle typically receive, how is this different to dairy cattle? What extra vaccine would you give to cattle in Northern Australia?

A

5 in 1 (dairy cattle often get 7 in 1)

Would give tick fever vacc in N.Aust

Given on neck or behind ear

79
Q

What is the ratio of bull to cows required in a beef herd?

A

1:20, 1:40, 1:60 (depending on fitness of bull)

80
Q

What are some reasons for castrating cows and what are some way to do it?

A

Reasons: safety, aggression/fighting, less damage to fences
Methods:
1. Knife: incision on side of scrotum
2. Ring: elastic ring at top of testicles to cut off spermatic cord carrying blood supply to the testicles
3. Emasculator: crushes and cuts the spermatic cord, allowing detachment of testes without fatal blood loss
4. Burdizzo: crushes blood supply to the testes and testes atrophy inside purse
5. Large ring (eg. California bander)

81
Q

What are some ways we can identify cattle?

A

NLIS tag, colour, brand, ruminants bolus, ear tattoo, nose rings

82
Q

What are some temperate breeds of cattle?

A

Bos Taurus breeds including:

  1. Angus
  2. Hereford
  3. Simmental
  4. Limousin
  5. Charolais
  6. Belgian blue
  7. Wagyu
83
Q

What are some tropical breeds of cattle?

A

Bos indicus breeds including:

  1. Brahman
  2. Droughtmaster
  3. Santa gertrudis
  4. Brangus
  5. Belmont red
84
Q

What is the key driver of total production of beef?

A

Kg of beef per hectare/100mm

85
Q

What are the major inputs to a dairy farm?

A
Cows
People
Land
Fertiliser
Water
Supplementary feeds
Equipment
86
Q

What are some industry and government bodies relevant to the dairy industry?

A

Dairy Australia
Gardiner foundation
Australian dairy industry council
DELWP, DAFF

87
Q

What are the five categories of feed for dairy cattle?

A
  1. Just forage
  2. Forage and minimal concentrates
  3. Predominantly forage but more concentrates
  4. Very little grazing and TMR
  5. tMR
88
Q

What is the average stocking rate of dairy cows in Victoria?

A

2.5-3 cows/hc

89
Q

What are the pros and cons of a seasonal production system cff. year round dairy production systems?

A

Seasonal: make use of available feed, utilise diff prices throughout year and efficient utilisation of labour BUT you may have to cull non-preg cows, carry dry cow over, milk stale cows over dry period and the genetic improvement of the herd is halted.

Year round: year round milk supply BUT prolonged intercalving interval leads to reduced production, reduced numbers of calves, work load spread over whole year

90
Q

What is involution?

A

Post calving contraction of uterus and expulsion of fluid and membranes (30 days)

91
Q

Successful colostrum transfer is dependent on what?

A

The three q’s!
Quantity
Quality
Quickly

92
Q

Sale of bobby calves is subject to which laws?

A
  1. At least 4 days old
  2. Bright, alert, strong and vigorous
  3. Must be fed within 6 hours of sale
  4. Dry, shrivelled umbilical cord
  5. Transported in vehicles with enclosed fronts
  6. Must have NLIS
  7. Must observe WHPs
93
Q

What are achievable targets for 21-day and 6-week in calf rates? What about for:

  • 21-day submission rate
  • conception rate
  • Non-return rate
A

71% and 92% respectively

86%
53%
>65%

94
Q

Adequate passive transfer is IgG>____ (failure is IgG

A

12gm/L (8gm/L

95
Q

Weaning times can be based on…?

A

Age (6-8 weeks)
Weight (70-80kg)
Intake (0.75-1.5kg/day)

96
Q

What are the recommended target mating weights for jersey and Freisian cattle?

A

Jersey: 300-320
Friesian: 350-400

97
Q

What are some common signs of a cow in heat? (8)

A
🔹Sniffing other cows
🔹Standing to be mounted
🔹Mounting
🔹Mucus discharge
🔹Behaviour changes
🔹Squirting urine frequently
🔹Swollen vulva
🔹Turning head to flank
98
Q

How long does oestrus last in a cow?

A

1-28 hours (standing heat for 6-12 hours)

99
Q

What drugs can be used for heat synchronisation in cattle?

A
  1. Prostaglandins (2 doses 11 days apart)

2. Progestagens (device providing endogenous source of progesterone)

100
Q

How do you select bulls to use for AI?

A

ABVs (Australian breeding values)
ASI (Australian selection index)
Proven vs progeny test