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175.302 Abnormal and Therapeutic Psychology > 1602/175.302 WGTN Distance > Flashcards

1602/175.302 WGTN Distance Flashcards

1
Q 
1. Which of the following is (are) our best hope for reducing the stigma against those diagnosed with a psychological disorder?
A. Increase contact
B. Increase education
C. Increase equality legislation
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

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2
Q
  1. Defining mental disorder on the basis of personal distress is problematic for which reason?
    A. High levels of distress and suffering are normal in modern society
    B. Some mental disorders do not involve personal distress
    C. It ignores the suffering that family members of disturbed people experience
    D. It does not apply to physiological disorders
A

B. Some mental disorders do not involve personal distress

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3
Q
  1. The discovery of the cause of syphilis was important to the field of mental illness for which reason?
    A. Syphilis was widely feared and exacerbated mental illness
    B. It increased interest in determining biological causes for mental illness
    C. More asylum patients were diagnosed with syphilis
    D. It highlighted the need for valid diagnostic systems
A

B. It increased interest in determining biological causes for mental illness

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4
Q
  1. The psychoanalytic theory rests upon the assumption that psychopathology is the result of
    A. incomplete superego development.
    B. unconscious conflicts.
    C. ego defence mechanisms.
    D. over-control of the pleasure principle.
A

B. unconscious conflicts.

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5
Q
  1. Behaviourists advocate that
    A. abnormal behaviour arises from discussions of abnormal behaviour.
    B. abnormal behaviour is learned.
    C. insight is important in changing behaviour.
    D. defences are associated with resolving anxiety.
A

B. abnormal behaviour is learned.

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6
Q
  1. Contemporary views on genetic and environmental factors in behaviour emphasize that
    A. genes are important for only some behaviours.
    B. a good environment can overcome genetic limitations.
    C. both factors influence each other.
    D. the percentage of genetic influence on a behaviour can be measured
A

C. both factors influence each other.

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7
Q
  1. A reciprocal gene-environment interaction
    A. involves the idea that genes may predispose individuals to seek out certain environments.
    B. involves how adopted children take on the characteristics of their adopted parents.
    C. is a useful research method in adoption studies.
    D. suggests that individuals who spend a lot of time in bars are more likely to develop alcohol dependence than those who do not frequent bars.
A

A. involves the idea that genes may predispose individuals to seek out certain environments.

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8
Q
  1. The neuroscience paradigm
    A. suggests that genes are responsible for most types of psychopathology.
    B. suggests that dopamine is linked to most types of psychopathology.
    C. asserts that mental disorders are linked to aberrant processes in the brain.
    D. asserts that mental disorders are linked to environmental disturbances.
A

C. asserts that mental disorders are linked to aberrant processes in the brain.

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9
Q 
9. One would expect items on a depression assessment measure to have
A. interrater reliability.
B. alternate-form reliability.
C. internal consistency reliability.
D. external reliability.
A

C. internal consistency reliability.

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10
Q 
10. The highest priority of the DSM-5 is that it
A. is reliable.
B. is useful to clinicians.
C. is shorter than the DSM-IV-TR.
D. is bilingual.
A

B. is useful to clinicians.

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
    A. Culture can have a large influence on which symptoms of a given disorder are expressed
    B. For most diagnoses in the DSM-5, it is advised not to consider cultural context
    C. All symptoms of psychiatric disorders manifest themselves in similar ways across cultures
    D. The DSM-II was the first edition of the DSM to consider cultural and ethnic variations in psychopathology
A

A. Culture can have a large influence on which symptoms of a given disorder are expressed

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12
Q 
12. Xavier is recording his thoughts each time he feels depressed. This is also referred to as a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ assessment.
A. projective
B. behavioural
C. cognitive
D. neuropsychological
A

C. cognitive

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13
Q
  1. A theory
    A. is derived from hypotheses.
    B. is the result of long deliberation by a scientist.
    C. attempts to explain a class of phenomena.
    D. All of the above.
A

D. All of the above.

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14
Q
  1. Meta-analysis is
    A. a method of analysing data for an individual study.
    B. a method of examining the findings from many studies in a quantitative manner.
    C. a procedure that has solved the problem of psychotherapy.
    D. None of the above.
A

B. a method of examining the findings from many studies in a quantitative manner.

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is not considered a common symptom of depression?
    A. Psychomotor retardation or agitation
    B. Sleeping too much or too little
    C. Feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt
    D. All of the above are common symptoms of depression
A

D. All of the above are common symptoms of depression

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16
Q 
16. The DSM-5 recognizes which of the following forms of bipolar disorders?
A. Bipolar I and Bipolar II
B. Bipolar I, Bipolar II and Cyclothymia
C. Bipolar and Cyclothymia
D. Bipolar I, Bipolar II and Bipolar III
A

B. Bipolar I, Bipolar II and Cyclothymia

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17
Q
  1. Stressful life events appear to be a causal factor in depression, on the basis of research showing that
    A. depressed people experience more losses of marriages and jobs.
    B. many people report life stresses before they become depressed.
    C. depression rates increase after major disasters.
    D. lab induced stress leads to increased depression.
A

B. many people report life stresses before they become depressed.

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18
Q
  1. The hopelessness theory of depression is predicated on
    A. depression resulting from previous helplessness situations.
    B. biological features of depression resulting in negative attributions.
    C. a return to the animal lab to further understand factors leading to depression.
    D. cognitive diatheses that lead to negative attributions.
A

D. cognitive diatheses that lead to negative attributions.

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19
Q 
19. In regard to suicide and gender, more \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ attempt suicide and more \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ actually kill themselves.
A. women; men
B. women; women
C. men; men
D. men; women
A

A. women; men

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20
Q
  1. Including symptoms of severe recurrent temper outbursts and persistent negative mood for at least one year beginning before age 10, _____________________ is a new diagnosis in the DSM-5.
    A. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
    B. Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder
    C. Major Depressive Disorder
    D. Persistent Depressive Disorder
A

A. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder

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21
Q
  1. The difference between anxiety and fear is that
    A. anxiety is a response to immediate danger, while fear is defined as apprehension over an anticipated problem.
    B. anxiety is immediate and fear is anticipated.
    C. anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, while fear is defined as a response to immediate danger.
    D. anxiety is always adaptive, whereas fear is not.
A

C. anxiety is apprehension over an anticipated problem, while fear is defined as a response to immediate danger.

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22
Q
  1. Panic attacks
    A. occur only in people with panic disorder, by definition.
    B. can occur in people who do not have panic disorder.
    C. occur in greatest frequency among people with schizophrenia.
    D. occur primarily in people with agoraphobia.
A

B. can occur in people who do not have panic disorder.

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23
Q 
23. Imagine that a man is bitten by a dog and then develops a phobia of dogs. The dog bite would be considered the
A. UCS.
B. UCR.
C. CS.
D. CR.
A

A. UCS.

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24
Q 
24. The principal cognitive explanation for the aetiology of agoraphobia is the
A. fear-of-fear hypothesis.
B. interoceptive conditioning.
C. two-factor model.
D. operant conditioning.
A

A. fear-of-fear hypothesis.

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25
Q 
25. Which of the following is a prominent behavioural technique for the treatment of GAD?
A. Cognitive restructuring
B. Imaginal exposure
C. Relaxation training
D. SSRIs
A

C. Relaxation training

26
Q
  1. Which of the following is a compulsion?
    A. A persistent fear of getting dirty
    B. Having persistent doubts about whether the stove was turned off that morning
    C. Persistent checking for one’s keys
    D. Persistent thoughts about harming one’s spouse
A

C. Persistent checking for one’s keys

27
Q 
27. Attempting to stop an obsession is called
A. thought suppression.
B. compulsive suppression.
C. ceasing behaviour.
D. reinforcement attempts.
A

A. thought suppression.

28
Q 
28. The most widely used psychological treatment for OCD-related disorders is
A. interpersonal psychotherapy.
B. psychoanalysis.
C. exposure and response prevention.
D. operant conditioning.
A

C. exposure and response prevention.

29
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the DSM-5 categories for PTSD?
    A. Intrusively re-experiencing the traumatic event
    B. Avoidance of stimuli associated with the event
    C. Mood and cognitive changes following the trauma
    D. Forgetfulness and disorientation following the trauma
A

D. Forgetfulness and disorientation following the trauma

30
Q
  1. Symptoms of PTSD are grouped into which of the following major categories?
    A. Re-experiencing of traumatic event, avoidance of stimuli associated with event, negative alterations in mood or cognition, and increased arousal or reactivity
    B. Re-experiencing of traumatic event, avoidance of stimuli associated with event, and anxiety
    C. Hypervigilance, avoidance of stimuli associated with event, and exaggerated startle response
    D. Avoidance of stimuli associated with event, symptoms of increased arousal, and symptoms of suicidality
A

A. Re-experiencing of traumatic event, avoidance of stimuli associated with event, negative alterations in mood or cognition, and increased arousal or reactivity

31
Q
  1. Dissociative disorders share
    A. obsessive thoughts.
    B. an alteration in consciousness or identity.
    C. an inability to distinguish reality from fantasy.
    D. physical symptoms with no physiological basis.
A

B. an alteration in consciousness or identity.

32
Q
  1. Dissociative identity disorder must involve
    A. at least three distinct personalities.
    B. selective amnesia.
    C. at least two distinct personalities.
    D. depersonalization.
A

C. at least two distinct personalities.

33
Q
  1. Dissociative identity disorder and schizophrenia
    A. are two entirely different disorders.
    B. are synonyms.
    C. are very similar; the person with schizophrenia has two personalities, while the person with dissociative identity disorder has three or more.
    D. are similar in that both have hallucinations and delusions.
A

A. are two entirely different disorders.

34
Q 
34. All of the following are found in the somatic symptom disorders chapter in the DSM-5 EXCEPT:
A. illness anxiety disorder.
B. somatic symptom disorder.
C. hypochondriasis.
D. conversion disorder.
A

C. hypochondriasis.

35
Q 
35. Miguel experienced a sudden, inexplicable blindness. Tests have shown no physical basis for his symptoms. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Conversion Disorder.
B. Somatic Symptom Disorder.
C. Dissociative Identity Disorder.
D. Illness Anxiety Disorder.
A

A. Conversion Disorder.

36
Q 
36. Schizophrenia most commonly appears in
A. early childhood.
B. middle or late childhood.
C. adolescence or early adulthood.
D. late adulthood.
A

C. adolescence or early adulthood.

37
Q 
37. A negative symptom of schizophrenia is
A. restricted affect.
B. asociality.
C. agitation.
D. Both A and B.
A

B. asociality.

38
Q 
38. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. hallucinations.
B. delusions.
C. excesses and distortions of emotion.
D. sociality
A

D. sociality

39
Q 
39. When people with schizophrenia are hearing voices, one of the parts of the brain that appears to be activated is
A. the cerebellum.
B. the reticular formation.
C. Broca’s area.
D. Werner’s region.
A

C. Broca’s area.

40
Q 
40. The DSM-5 refers to the pathological use of substances as
A. substance abuse.
B. substance dependence.
C. substance use disorder.
D. None of the above.
A

C. substance use disorder.

41
Q
  1. ‘Delirium tremens’ refers to
    A. a symptom of conversion disorder.
    B. the symptoms that accompany an overdose of heroin.
    C. the symptoms that may accompany withdrawal from alcohol.
    D. the hallucinations common in schizophrenia.
A

C. the symptoms that may accompany withdrawal from alcohol.

42
Q
  1. The incentive-sensitization theory of substance dependence considers
    A. cravings for the substance and the pleasure that comes with taking the substance.
    B. the extremes a person will go to obtain the substance.
    C. the age of a person when they first use the substance.
    D. how much a person likes the substance.
A

A. cravings for the substance and the pleasure that comes with taking the substance.

43
Q
  1. A first step for treating people dependent on drugs is
    A. helping them identify why they began to use drugs.
    B. detoxification.
    C. helping them understand why the drug is not good for them.
    D. committing to abstinence.
A

B. detoxification.

44
Q
  1. People with anorexia nervosa
    A. stop eating because of an abnormal increase in blood sugar, which alters their perceptions of hunger.
    B. fear gaining weight so much that they stop eating.
    C. have lost their appetite, leading them to stop eating.
    D. stop eating but do not lose weight.
A

B. fear gaining weight so much that they stop eating.

45
Q 
45. Binge eating disorder is characterized by bingeing
A. between periods of starvation.
B. and purging afterwards.
C. with weight under 85% of normal.
D. without compensatory behaviours.
A

D. without compensatory behaviours.

46
Q
  1. The principal form of psychological treatment for anorexia nervosa is
    A. reinforcing appropriate eating behaviours.
    B. providing a safe inpatient environment.
    C. social skills training.
    D. family therapy.
A

A. reinforcing appropriate eating behaviours.

47
Q 
47. Persistent and troubling attractions to unusual sexual activities or objects is called
A. sexual dysfunction.
B. sexual function.
C. paraphilia.
D. All of the above.
A

C. paraphilia.

48
Q 
48. Bill and Deborah are in sex therapy. One exercise that they are directed to practice involves touching each other and feeling comfortable with contact, but without any sexual intercourse. This intervention is called
A. sensate focus.
B. sensuality training.
C. physical redirecting.
D. cognitive restructuring.
A

A. sensate focus.

49
Q
  1. You witness a young child in the grocery store kicking and screaming because his mother won’t buy him candy. Which of the following DSM-5 disorders would apply to the child?
    A. Conduct disorder
    B. Oppositional defiant disorder
    C. It depends on the mother’s response; if she gives in, the behaviour is probably not a disorder, but the result of poor parenting strategies
    D. There is not enough information provided to make a diagnosis. In addition, it depends on the child’s age and other factors.
A

D. There is not enough information provided to make a diagnosis. In addition, it depends on the child’s age and other factors.

50
Q 
50. Which of the following distinguishes children with ADHD from other children?
A. Extreme distractibility
B. Anxiety
C. Problems only in the classroom
D. Poor social understanding
A

A. Extreme distractibility

51
Q
  1. Epidemiological studies indicate that ADHD is
    A. about equally common in boys and girls.
    B. more common in boys.
    C. more common in girls.
    D. more common in girls with conduct disorder but in boys with oppositional defiant disorder.
A

B. more common in boys.

52
Q
  1. Shannon, a young high school student, was recently suspended from school for stealing money from younger children, writing graffiti on the bathroom walls, and beating up another student. Shannon’s teacher reports that she has very few friends. The most likely diagnosis for Shannon would be
    A. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.
    B. antisocial personality disorder.
    C. oppositional defiant disorder.
    D. conduct disorder.
A

D. conduct disorder.

53
Q 
53. Which of the following symptoms manifest in children with PTSD, but usually not in adults with PTSD?
A. Sleep problems
B. Extreme temper tantrums
C. Flashbacks
D. Hopelessness
A

B. Extreme temper tantrums

54
Q 
54. Down’s syndrome is the result of
A. environmental insult, usually during the birth process.
B. a recessive-gene disease.
C. a specific chromosomal abnormality.
D. None of the above
A

C. a specific chromosomal abnormality.

55
Q
  1. The age at which one is considered ‘old,’ currently 65, is based upon
    A. clear biological changes that begin at about that age.
    B. social policy.
    C. the age at which individuals begin to refer to themselves as old.
    D. a scientific standard.
A

B. social policy.

56
Q 
56. The most prominent symptom of dementia is
A. difficulty remembering things.
B. disorientation.
C. aggressive behaviour.
D. depression.
A

A. difficulty remembering things.

57
Q
  1. Psychoactive drugs can be dangerous when used by elderly people because
    A. they are not tested on the elderly, only on young people.
    B. side effects are more common.
    C. toxicity is more of a problem.
    D. All of the above.
A

D. All of the above.

58
Q
  1. Personality disorders are defined as
    A. maladaptive behaviours that consistently violate the rights of others.
    B. long-standing, pervasive, and inflexible patterns of behaviour and inner experience that deviate from the expectations of a person’s culture.
    C. any psychological disorder having an onset before age 12 and recurring at least three times during adult life.
    D. chronic patterns of extreme instability in relationships, mood, and self-image.
A

D. chronic patterns of extreme instability in relationships, mood, and self-image.

59
Q 
59. Which of the following is a characteristic of borderline personality disorder?
A. Emotional dysregulation
B. Low extraversion
C. Bland, dull affect
D. Panic attacks
A

A. Emotional dysregulation

60
Q
  1. The three clusters of personality disorders are
    A. odd/eccentric, anxious/fearful, and dramatic/erratic.
    B. odd/avoidant, anxious/fearful, and dramatic/attention-seeking.
    C. odd/eccentric, anxious/withdrawn, and dramatic/erratic.
    D. odd/avoidant, anxious/fearful, and attention-seeking/erratic.
A

A. odd/eccentric, anxious/fearful, and dramatic/erratic.

175.302 Abnormal and Therapeutic Psychology (4 decks)

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