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15W > Board Q > Flashcards

Board Q Flashcards

1
Q

Four types of waste

A

Human, garbage, rubbish, liquid

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2
Q

600 – 8–22

Difference between award and decoration

A

Award: a badge, ribbon, metal bestowed on eight individuals or unit

Decoration: is awarded to a individual for specific act of gallantry

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3
Q

Three phases of PRT

A

Initial conditioning
Toughening
Sustainment

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4
Q

What is a ADP 7–0

A

Training units and developing leaders

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5
Q

What covers drills and ceremonies

A

FM 3–21. 5

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6
Q

TC 3–21.5 drill and ceremonies

what is a review

A

A military ceremony used to:

  • Honor a visiting, high-ranking commander, official, or dignitary and or permit them to observe the state of training of a command.
  • Present decorations and awards.
  • Honor or recognize unit or individual achievements.
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7
Q

What DA PAM covers army maintenance

A

DA PAM 750–8

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8
Q

AR 601–280 army retention program

What is RCP

A

Retention control point

  • PVT and PFC five years
  • CPL and SPC 8 years
  • CPL and SPC (prom)10 years
  • SGT 14 years
  • SGT (prom) 15 years
  • SSG 20 years
  • SSG (prom) 20 years
  • SFC 24 years
  • SFC (promo) 24 years
  • First sergeant and Master Sergeant 26 years
  • First sergeant and Master Sergeant promo 30 years
  • Command Sergeant Major and Sergeant Major 30 years
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9
Q

TC 3–21.5 drill and ceremonies

How many steps should separate platoons when in a company formation

A

Five steps

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10
Q

What is ADP 6–22

A

Army leadership.

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11
Q

3-11

Three types of nuclear burst

A
  • Air
  • ground
  • surface
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12
Q

3-22.9

What does CLP stand for

A

Cleaner
Lubricant
Preservative

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13
Q

DA circular 608–06–1

Who is the senior enlisted advisor to Boss and approves Boss committees

A

Installation CSM

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14
Q

TC 3–21.5 drill and ceremony

2 prescribe formations for platoons.

A
  • line

- column

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15
Q

What is required for maintenance of health in a survival situation

A
  • food
  • water
  • hygiene
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16
Q

Army history

What document originally governed the United States

A

Articles of confederation

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17
Q

AR 601–280

What is a bar

A

Administrative action taken to prevent substandard soldiers from re-enlisting military service

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18
Q

Land nav

Three elements of dead reckoning

A
  • Known starting point
  • Known distance
  • Known azmith
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19
Q

Three steps in marching

A
  • 15 inch
  • 30 inch
  • 30 inch in double time
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20
Q

7-22.7

Three types of duties NCO’s have

A
  • directed
  • specified
  • implied
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21
Q

TC 3-21.5

Steps that require 15 inch steps

A
  • left/right step
  • backward march
  • half step
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22
Q

How many articles are in UCMJ

A

158

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23
Q

3-05

Critical capabilities of special ops

A

Surgical strikes

Special warfare

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24
Q

6.22.1

What are some human needs

A

Physical

Social

Security

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25
Q

5 F’s in sanitation

A 
Fingers
Flies
Food
Feces
Fluids
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26
Q

Name some defensive tasks

A

Area defense

Mobile defense

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27
Q

Four micro organisms found in biological agents

A

Bacteria
Virus
Ricketts
Fungi

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28
Q

600–9

What three things must happen if a soldier fails height and weight?

A

Flagged

Weight control program

Counseling for exercise/diet

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29
Q

Muzzel specs for M4

A

3600m Max
500m point
600 m area

2970 fps velocity

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30
Q

When will a soldier be flagged for failing body fat

A

Three working days

DA form 268

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31
Q

Three types of heat injuries

A

Heat cramps

Heat exhaustion

Heat Stroke

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32
Q

What is the armies motto

A

This we’ll defend

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33
Q

Land Nav

A

FM 3–25.26

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34
Q

What covers leave n pass

A

AR 600-8-10

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35
Q

What FM covers marksmanship

A

FM 3-22.11

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36
Q

3 components of PRT

A

Strength

Mobility

Endurance

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37
Q

2 basic fractures

A

Open

Closed

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38
Q

Name different types of rounds for the M4

A 
Ball
Tracer
Dummy
Blank 
Plástic
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39
Q

Level of responsiveness

A

Alert

Verbal

Pain

Unresponsive

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40
Q

ADP 3-09 Fires

What does AMS and EA stand for

A

Air to missile defense

Electronic attack

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41
Q

3-22.9

About how much does a M4 weigh

A

7.5 lbspko

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42
Q

4-0

What is logistics

A

Movement of support forces

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43
Q

AR 27-10 Military justice

What are the 3 classifications of article 15’s

A

Summarized

Company grade

Field grade

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44
Q

NCO History

Name the 5 most recent SMA of the army

A 
Incumbent Michael A. Grinston
Daniel A Dailey
Raymond F Chander lll
Kenneth O Preston
Jack L Tilley
Robest E Hall
Gene C McKenney
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45
Q

NCO History

How many SMA of the army have there been

A

16

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46
Q

AR 27-10 Military justice

What articles in the UCMJ are know as punitive articles

A

Article’s 77-137

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47
Q

Principles of PRT

A

Precise

Progression

Integrative

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48
Q

General rule of reading grid coordinate

A

Right and up

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49
Q

5 factors that affect the range of radio equipment

A

Weather, terrain, Athena, power, and location

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50
Q

What Jewlery is authorized for wear in uniform

A

Wristwatch, wrist ID bracelets, 2rings, a wedding set is considered 2 rings

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51
Q

What army regulation covers uniform and appearance

A

AR 670-1

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52
Q

What covers ASAP

A

AR 600-85

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53
Q

What AR covers army weight control program

A

AR 600-9

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54
Q

Why is the flag on the right sleeve

A

To give the effect it is blowing in the breeze

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55
Q

What does tabe stand for

A

Test for adult basic education

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56
Q

True or false. Graduates of the UAS qualification course who are on their first utilization tour can be designated RL 2 or RL 1 based on records review

A

False

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57
Q

What acronym ATP stand for

A

Aircrew training program

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58
Q

Who is responsible for ATP

A

Union commander

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59
Q

What is the goal of ATP

A

To produce mission ready UAS units

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60
Q

What does Commander evaluation consist of?

A

It consists of records review and possible a proficiency flight evaluations

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61
Q

How many days after signing into the unit does the commander or designated representative have to complete the commander’s evaluation

A

45 calandre days

62
Q

How long does each crew member have to present his or her individual flight records and Individual aircrew training folder (IFRF and AITF) to the new unit to which assigned or attached for ATP purposes after reporting for duty

A

14 Calendar days (AR 95-23 2-7)

63
Q

If the inertial RL cannot be determined by a records review alone or if the commander desires, the crew member will undergo a proficiency flight evaluation(PFE). What tasks should the PFE include

A

The PFE should include tasks from each flight mode in which the crew member can expect to perform duties. TC 1-696 2-10

64
Q

True or False. Graduates of the UAS qualification course who are on their first utilization tour can be designated RL 2 or RL 1 based on a records review

A

False

65
Q

The ATP training year is divided into semiannual training periods. When does the first training period begin for active army and USAR crew members

A

First day following their birth month

66
Q

How many FAC are there and ATP

A

3

67
Q

What are the semiannual flying hours requirements for FAC 2 personnel?( )hours, of which( )hours must be flown in each crew station.

A

12/4

68
Q

What are semi annual simulation hour requirements for FAC 2 personnel?(. ) of which(. ) hours must be flown in each crew station.

A

4/1

69
Q

What the semiannual flying hour requirements for FAC 1 personnel?(. )hours, of which(. ) hours must be flown in each crew station.

A

24/8

70
Q

What are semi annual simulation hour requirements for FAC 1 personnel?(. ) of which(. ) hours must be flown in each crew station.

A

8/3

71
Q

What are semi annual simulation hour requirements for FAC 3 personnel?(. )hour, in either seat.

A

3

72
Q

FAC 1 UAC’s may apply a maximum of ( ) simulation hours flown in a semi annual period toward’s that period’s semiannual flying hour requirements.

A

12

73
Q

FAC 2 UAC’s may apply a maximum of ( ) simulation hours flown in a semi annual period toward’s that period’s semiannual flying hour requirements.

A

6

74
Q

A FAC demonstrated proficiency in Base tasks to an IO/SO initially within 90 days of being designated FAC 3, how often must he now demonstrate his proficiency in Base tasks to an IO/SO?

A

Annually

75
Q

True or False. Simulator requirements for a FAC 3 UAC can’t be waived. (Should not be waived)

A

False

76
Q

True or False. The commander can change a UAC’s FAC level to reduce flying hour requirements.

A

False

77
Q

According to ATM, the commander may direct a proficiency flight evaluation to be conducted for 3 reasons. What are 2 of them?

A

Initial RL determination.
When proficiency is in question.
When currency has lapsed.

78
Q

What does CSP stand for

A

Common Sensor Payload

79
Q

Type of hand grenades?

A

Fragmentation, concussion, riot control, smoke and incendiary

80
Q

First aide

Care under fire

A
  • return fire and move to cover
  • determine if casualty is dead or alive
  • apply tourniquet
  • move casualty to shelter
81
Q

First aide

Tactical field care: RESPONSIVENESS

A

Really Big Birds Chirp More

RESPONSIVENESS

A) Alert (shake)
v) Verbal (Are u OK)
P) Pain (Sternum Rub)
U) Unresponsive

BLEEDING

  • Stop bleeding (hemorrhage)
  • I.D. & control bleeding (dress wound)
    1. Pressure dressing
    2. Tourniquet

BREATHING

  • Look, listen, and feel respiration.
  • Head tilt, chin lift

BURNS

82
Q

First aide

Tactical field care: BLEEDING

A
  • Stop bleeding (hemorrhage)
  • I.D. & control bleeding (dress wound)
    1. Pressure dressing
    2. Tourniquet
83
Q

First aide

Tactical field care: BREATHING

A
  • Look, listen, and feel respiration.

- Head tilt, chin lift

84
Q

First aide

Tactical field care: BURNS

A
  • eliminate source of burns
  • uncover burn
  • apply sterile dressing
  • Monitor/treat for shock
  • medical aid
85
Q

First aide

Tactical field care: COMBAT PILL PACK

A

Administer pain medication and antibiotics to casualty

86
Q

First aid

Tactical field care: MONITOR FOR SHOCK

A

CPR TLC FB NV

Cool and clammy skin
Pale skin
Restlessness or nervousness
Thirst
Loss of blood
Confusion
Faster than normal breathing rate
Blotchy blue skin
Nausea
Vomiting
87
Q

Treatment for shock

A

PELCRN

Position
Elevate legs
Loosen clothing
Climatize
Reassure
Notify higher
88
Q

ISR

A

Intelligence surveillance reconnaissance

89
Q

MQ-1C

A

Multi mission

Unmanned

90
Q

ATP

A

Aircrew Training Program

91
Q

What does METL stand for?

A

Mission
Essential
Task
List

92
Q

3-22-9

How to clear an M4

A 
Point safe direction - on safe
Remove mag 
Lag bolt to rear
Inspect chamber
Ride bolt forward
Semi
Pull trigger
Safe/ close ejection port
93
Q

What is AR 600–85

A

ASAP

94
Q

Three components of PRT

A

Strength
Mobility
Endurance

95
Q

How many articles in the constitution

A

7

96
Q

How many officers are on the BOSS counsel

A

3

97
Q

How many articles the code of conduct

A

6

97
Q

Male & Female ABCP FORMS

A

Male 5500

Female 5501

98
Q

3-21.5

Five types of command drill

A

Two-part
Combined
Directive
Supplementing

99
Q

ADP 2-0

What are the intelligence core competencies

A

Intelligence synchronization
Intelligence operations
Intelligence analysis

100
Q

ADP 3-05 SPECIAL OPERATIONS

Special operations core principles

A

Discrete
Precise
Scalable operations

101
Q

4-0

Principles of personnel services

A

Synchronization
Timelines
Stewardship
Accuracy

102
Q

What is a map

A

A graphic representation of the position of the earth surface drawn to scale as seen from above using colors, symbols, and labels to represent features on ground

103
Q

Map choice for land navigators

A

1 : 50,000 scale military

Topographic map

104
Q

1-0

What are three rolls of the army

A

Prevent
Shape
Win

105
Q

What covers risk management

A

AR 385-10

106
Q

ADP 7-0

Unit Training Management Process

A 
Operations process
Plan
Prepare
Execute
Asses
107
Q

601-280

Who may issue and lift a bar

A

Issue - Any commander in chain of command

Lift - Same initiating authority with written recommendation from unit commander

108
Q

3-07

Intent of stability

A

Local populace feels mission is legitimate

109
Q

AR 350–30

A

Code of conduct

110
Q

6.22.1

What are some human needs

A

Physical
Social
Security

111
Q

6-22

What are three categories of counseling

A

Event
Performance
Professional growth

112
Q

4.25-11

Signs of heat injury

A

Dizziness, weakness, headache, cramps

113
Q

AR 600-20 command policies

What are key elements of command

A

Authority and responsibility

114
Q

AR 27-10 military justice

What articles in the UCMJ are known as punitive particles

A

77-134

115
Q

Name some offensive task

A

Movement to attack, attack, exploitation, pursuit

116
Q

What FM covers counseling

A

6-22.1

117
Q

5 communicable diseases

A

Respiratory, intestinal, insects, veneral, miscellaneous

118
Q

AR AR 600-20 command policy

How does the chain of command support the NCO support channel

A

Commanders to find the responsibility and authority of the in NCO’s

119
Q

6-22FM

In what areas can leaders improve effectiveness

A

Confident, resilience, PT

120
Q

Steps in CRM

A

Identify hazards, assess hazards, develop controls, implement control, supervise and evaluate

121
Q

Who was the first sergeant major of the army

A

SMA William D Woodridge

122
Q

ADP 3-09 FIRES

What does AMD and EA a stand for

A

Air to missile defense and electronic attack

123
Q

Principles of PRT

A

Precise, progression, integrative

124
Q

President Lincoln signed Emancipation Proclamation act and went into affect on what date

A

1 Jan 1863

125
Q

What is the ADP for sustainment

A

4-0

126
Q

What is required for the maintenance of health in a survival situation

A

Food, water, hygiene

127
Q

Where on the map or commonly used symbols explained

A

Legend

128
Q

3.23.9

About how much does an M4 weigh

A

7.5 lbs

129
Q

TC 3-21.5 Drill and ceremonies

How many steps should separate platoons when in a company formation

A

5 steps

130
Q

TC 3-21.5. Drill and ceremony

How many steps does each rank take at the command of open ranks

A

First rank- 2
Second rank -1
Third rank- 0
Fourth rank -2 (5’’ steps to the rear)

131
Q

DA 268

A

Form for a flag

132
Q

AR 600-20

Is the command Sergeant Major in the chain of command

A

No (But he supervises the NCO support channel)

133
Q

Two basic fractures

A

Open & closed

134
Q

What are skills that would help you be an effective army counselor

A

Active listening
.
.
.

135
Q

M4 discription

A 
556mm
Mag fed
Gas operated 
Air cooled 
Shoulder fired
136
Q

3 Training domains

A

Institution
Operational
Self-development

137
Q

2 proficiencies the army uses to train

A

Individual proficiency

Collective proficiency

138
Q

Principles of training

A

Train as you fight
Train to standard
Train to sustain
Train to maintain

139
Q

TOP

A

Trainer of personnel

1st Sgt

140
Q

2 major elements of the body

A

Lean muscle

Body fat

141
Q

What is satisfactory progress for ABCP

A

Loose 3-8 lbs per month

Or 1% body fat

142
Q

Maximum allowed percent of body fat

A

Male 20

Females 30

143
Q

4 step for counseling process

A

Identify the need
Prepare the counseling
Execute the counseling
Follow up

144
Q

6 mandatory NCO ER (evaluation report)

A 
Change of rater
Annual
Extended annual
Change of duty 
Part temporary duty
Temporary duty
145
Q

How many NCO ER are there

A

6

146
Q

Who laid the foundation for modern NCO Corps

A

Baron von Steuben

Prussian Baron Friedrich Wilhelm August Heinrich Ferdinand von Steuben

147
Q

Who created the Blue book

A

Baron von Steuben

148
Q

Counseling form

A

DA 4856

149
Q

General Orders

A

1st General Order
“I will guard everything within the limits of my post and quit my post only when properly relieved.”

2nd General Order
“I will obey my special orders and perform all of my duties in a military manner.”

3rd General Order
“I will report violations of my special orders, emergencies, and anything not covered in my instructions, to the commander of the relief.”

15W (16 decks)

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