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B-Rad's Study Decks > 64E Gunnery (1-227 ARB) Dec 2017 > Flashcards

64E Gunnery (1-227 ARB) Dec 2017 Flashcards

1
Q

The engagement process is a systematic fires cycle and a continual process on any mission and has five tenets; What are they? (TC 3-04.45 Pg 11-1)

A

Detect, Identify, Decide, Engage and Assess (DIDEA) (TC 3-04.45 Pg 11-1)

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2
Q

A target is ________ when it is temporarily taken out of the battle. _________ing a unit allows the maneuver commander to decide whether to continue to engage with indirect fires, maneuver to the target and engage with direct fires or bypass a target and proceed with other missions. (TC 3-04.45 Pg 15-3)

A

Neutralized / Neutralizing

(TC 3-04.45 Pg 15-3)

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3
Q

_____________ is a decisive engagement that puts a target out of action permanently. A unit with ____ percent or more casualties is usually rendered permanently ineffective, depending on the type and discipline of the force. Direct hits are required on hard materiel targets. (TC 3-04.45 Pg H-23)

A

Destruction / 30% (TC 3-04.45 Pg H-23)

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4
Q

The method of attacking a target is governed by the results desired: What are they? (TC 3-04.45 Pg H-23)

A

Suppression, Neutralization, or Destruction

(TC 3-04.45 Pg H-23)

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5
Q

The four types of ballistics influencing projectiles fired from helicopters are? (TC 3-04.45 Pg A-6)

A

Interior, Exterior, Aerial, and Terminal. (TC 3-04.45 Pg A-6)

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6
Q

Gravity, Yaw, and Wind Drift are what type of ballistics? (TC 3-04.45 Pg A-7)

A

Exterior (TC 3-04.45 Pg A-7)

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7
Q

___________ and ___________ combine to constitute the port-starboard effect. (TC 3-04.45 Pg A-13)

A

Trajectory shift and Projectile drift

(TC 3-04.45 Pg A-13)

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8
Q

Aerial-fired weapons characteristics derived from fin or spin-stabilized munitions and whether they are fired from a fixed or flexible mode. Common errors for these munitions are:

(TC 3-04.45 Pg A-9)

A

Rotor down-wash error

Angular rate error

Turning bank error

(TC 3-04.45 Pg A-9)

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9
Q

In general, at ranges _____ than ___________ , the effect of trajectory shift is greater. At ranges ______ than ___________, the effect of projectile drift is greater and tends to cancel the effect of trajectory shift.

(TC 3-04.45 Pg A-14)

A

Less than 1,000 meters

Greater than 1,000 meters

(TC 3-04.45 Pg A-14)

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10
Q

_________________ is caused by the motion (pitch, roll, and/or yaw) in the launch platform as a projectile leaves the weapon. (TC 3-04.45 Pg A-10)

A

Angular rate error

(TC 3-04.45 Pg A-10)

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11
Q

_________________ is effectively negligible for 30mm projectiles, but it can affect rocket accuracy if rates are appreciable. __________ ___________ induce angular rates in the pitch axis up to ___ º per second.

(TC 3-04.45 Pg A-24)

A

Angular rate error

Articulating pylons 10º

(TC 3-04.45 Pg A-24)

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12
Q

What are three factors that affect dispersion? (TC 3-04.45 Pg A-15)

A

Vibrations, Sights, Boresights

(TC 3-04.45 Pg A-15)

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13
Q

Angle of Impact is a characteristic of what type of ballistic? (TC 3-04.45 Pg A-15)

A

Terminal Ballistic

(TC 3-04.45 Pg A-15)

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14
Q

Because the rocket is accelerating as it leaves the launcher, the force acting upon the fins causes the nose of the rocket to turn into the wind. This is known as the ______________. (TC 3-04.45 Pg A- 12)

A

The relative wind effect.

(TC 3-04.45 Pg A- 12)

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15
Q

Maximum effective range is defined as:

(TC 3-04.45 Pg A-4)

A

The longest range at which a weapon has a 50% probability of hitting and defeating a target.

(TC 3-04.45 Pg A-4)

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16
Q

Running fire performed at airspeeds ______ ________ will offer a mix of aircraft survivability and weapons accuracy. (DATM Task 1422 Perform Firing Techniques)

A

Above ETL (DATM Task 1422 Perform Firing Techniques)

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17
Q

________ ________ is the most accurate type of fire for unguided ordinance and offers the advantages of reduced vulnerability to small arms fire, increased armament load, and better target acquisition and tracking capabilities. (DATM Task 1422 Perform Firing Techniques)

A

Diving fire

(DATM Task 1422 Perform Firing Techniques)

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18
Q

Normally, the IP is selected about ___ to ___ ___________ from the target and acts as a starting point for the attack run. (DATM Task 1422 Perform Firing Techniques)

A

8 to 10 kilometers

(DATM Task 1422 Perform Firing Techniques)

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19
Q

The 30-mm audible signature travels at approximately ____ _______ per second. Engagements at ________ than _______ meters can be heard by the dismounted personnel before the first round impacts; therefore, getting the first burst accurately on target will be worth the extra seconds to set up the shot. (TC 3- 04.45 Pg 14-44)

A

331 meters

Greater

2,000 meters

(TC 3- 04.45 Pg 14-44)

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20
Q

The base line TADS can take up to ___ _________ to establish a good track history and generate a quality ballistic solution. (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-44)

A

Three seconds (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-44)

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21
Q

At approximately _____ knots _________ forward airspeed, the influence vector is moved just aft of the rocket launcher forward bulkhead, thus reducing down wash to zero. (TC 3-04.45 Pg A-24)

A

33 Knots indicated

(TC 3-04.45 Pg A-24)

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22
Q

Crewmembers will not use __________ affiliated graphic control measures/icons/symbols to mark enemy locations and vice-versa to avoid fratricide and other unnecessary confusion. (DATM Task 2412 Perform Evasive Maneuvers)

A

Friendly (DATM Task 2412 Perform Evasive Maneuvers)

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23
Q

Evasive Maneuvers are broadly characterized by whether the enemy weapon system is ________ or _________ Generally, the aircrew must defeat the _____________ for guided weapons and defeat the __________ for unguided weapons systems. (DATM Task 2412 Perform Evasive Maneuvers)

A

Guided or Unguided

Weapon System

Gunner

(DATM Task 2412 Perform Evasive Maneuvers)

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24
Q

When conducting, receiving and executing an Army Attack Aviation Call For Fire (5-line) the most important factor is the __________________and the importance of accurately delivered fires. (DATM Task 2128 Respond to Troops in Contact)

A

Proximity of the enemy forces to the friendly forces.

(DATM Task 2128 Respond to Troops in Contact)

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25
Q

Rotary wing delivered ordinance has an __________ beaten zone; therefore the RED (risk estimation distance) is only valid when ________ __________ to friendly locations. (DATM Task 2128 Respond to Troops in Contact)

A

Elliptical

Shooting Parallel (DATM Task 2128 Respond to Troops in Contact)

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26
Q

When operating in close proximity to friendly forces, the AMC or flight lead must have direct communication with the ground commander or observer on the scene to provide ____________ . (JFIRE, 2016 Pg 62)

A

Direct fire support (JFIRE, 2016 Pg 62)

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27
Q

After receiving the army attack aviation call for fire from the ground forces, the aircrews must ________ __________ the location of the friendly element and the target prior to conducting any engagement. (JFIRE, 2016 Pg 62)

A

Positively identify (JFIRE, 2016 Pg 62)

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28
Q

Methods for marking the location of friendlies and the enemy include, but are not limited to: (JFIRE, 2016 Pg 62)

A

Laser hand off, tracer fire, marking rounds (flares or mortars), smoke grenades, signal mirrors, VS-17 panels, IR strobe lights, laser target marker, or chemical sticks. (JFIRE, 2016 Pg 62)

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29
Q

Army Attack Aviation and Special Operations Forces Gunship Call for fire transmission of the five-line brief is clearance to fire unless _____________ is stated. (JFIRE, 2016 Pg 63)

A

“danger close” or “at my command” (JFIRE, 2016 Pg 63)

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30
Q

The 4 “T”s associated with aircraft control (firing techniques) during rocket engagements are? (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-22)

A

Target, Torque, Trim, Target re-verified. (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-22)

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31
Q

The five techniques of fire are? (DATM Task 1422 Perform Firing Techniques)

A

Hover fire

Running fire

Diving fire

Low altitude bump

Diving/Running fire IP

(DATM Task 1422 Perform Firing Techniques)

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32
Q

Low-altitude bump maximizes the benefits of both running and diving fire involving a low-altitude run-in with a ______ to ______ bump about ______ to _______ prior to the target. (DATM Task 1422 Perform Firing Techniques)

A

300 to 1,000-foot

1,500 to 2,000 meters

(DATM Task 1422 Perform Firing Techniques)

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33
Q

During Hasty Attacks, The AMC will select the appropriate team employment technique and will brief the team utilizing TPM-R: (DATM Task 3043 Perform Team Tactical Employment)

A

Technique (Hover, Running, Diving, Low-Altitude Bump)

Pattern (Racetrack, Cloverleaf, L- attack, Figure 8, Butterfly pattern, 45-degree attack, Circular/Wheel pattern)

Munitions

Range

(DATM Task 3043 Perform Team Tactical Employment)

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34
Q

The AMC assigns team member responsibilities within the team based on the tactical situation utilizing the following terminology: (DATM Task 3043 Perform Team Tactical Employment)

A

Shooter/cover

Shooter/shooter

Looker/shooter

(DATM Task 3043 Perform Team Tactical Employment)

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35
Q

Moving fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter _______ than ____ but _________ Running fire is an engagement from a moving helicopter _____ and ______ (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-2)

A

Greater than ETL but less than 40 KTAS

40 KTAS and (Vne)

(TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-2)

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36
Q

You fire a burst of 30mm at a target, which misses to the left about 10 meters. You then adjust your line of sight to the right of the target and fire again, hitting the target. What method of Burst on TGT (BOT) is this? (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-21)

A

Recognition Method or “Kentucky Windage” method of BOT. (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-21)

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37
Q

You fire a pair of rockets at a target, which miss long. You then laze the approximate center of the rocket’s impact point and adjust your range down (manual range) to fire your next pair. What method of Burst On TGT (BOT) is this? (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-21)

A

Laser rangefinder-method of BOT. (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-21)

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38
Q

Steep dive angles _________ result in large rates of change in aircraft flight parameters and present flight safety challenges (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-24)

A

>25 degrees (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-24)

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39
Q

Steeper dive angles compress the range error for rockets significantly and result in ______ ________ around the rocket aim point. (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-24)

A

Less dispersion (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-24)

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40
Q

Pilots must plan the ______ _________ in time to avoid abrupt recovery maneuvers. ________ ________ may cause a pilot to fly the aircraft into the ground. (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-24)

A

Dive recovery

Target fixation

(TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-24)

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41
Q

___________ may make dive recoveries difficult. If the aircraft enters __________ , the pilot must reduce the severity of the dive recovery by reducing the amount of aft cyclic and/or reducing the collective pitch on the rotor system. (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-24)

A

Mushing / mushing (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-24)

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42
Q

The two types of fires are? (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-2)

A

Direct and Indirect (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-2)

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43
Q

Fire delivered on a target, which cannot be seen by the firing unit, is known as? (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-2)

A

Indirect fire (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-2)

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44
Q

What are the three levels of safing? (DATM Task 1422 Perform Firing Techniques)

A

a. Weapons trigger switch released
b. Weapons action switch deselected
c. SAFE/ARM button – SAFE

(DATM Task 1422 Perform Firing Techniques)

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45
Q

What are the visual markings of the M789 30mm HEDP round? (TC 3-04.45 Pg B-16)

A

Black projectile with yellow band and yellow markings

(TC 3-04.45 Pg B-16)

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46
Q

What are the visual markings of the M788 30mm TP round? (TC 3-04.45 Pg B-16)

A

Blue projectile with aluminum nosepiece and white markings (TC 3-04.45 Pg B-16)

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47
Q

To accomplish AWS dynamic harmonization, maintain a heading to target of ____ degrees, at a range of _____-______ meters. (DATM Task 1464 Engage Target with Area Weapon System)

A

+/- 5 degrees

500-1500 meters

(DATM Task 1464 Engage Target with Area Weapon System)

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48
Q

The nominal burst radius is ___ ________ ; however, the lethal fragment impact pattern is dependent upon the _____ _____ _____ . (TC 3-04.45 Pg B-19)

A

4 meters

impact angle, velocity, and the target type

(TC 3-04.45 Pg B-19)

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49
Q

When viewed from above the fragment pattern of each individual round is a flattened “X” shape with the majority of the fragments moving to the side and slightly forward, with the highest concentration spiking at the ______ and _______ o’clock positions. (TC 3-04.45 Pg B-20)

A

2:00 and 10:00 (TC 3-04.45 Pg B-20)

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50
Q

To ensure effective fragment performance when engaging troops in the open, the crew selects a Desired Mean Point of Impact (DMPI) selection should be ______ and/or ______ of the target to achieve the desired effects. (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-44)

A

Offset and/or Short (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-44)

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51
Q

When actioning the gun or rockets from the cyclic in either crew station the range will change to the last valid ______ _______ when HMD is the selected sight. (AWS Student Handout)

A

Manual Range (AWS Student Handout)

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52
Q

When FXD is selected by the pilot, the _______ will only be displayed in the _____ format symbology. When FXD is selected by the _____ , both crewmembers will have the Continuous Computer Impact Point (CCIP) displayed in their respective formats. (DATM Task 1462 Engage Target with Rockets)

A

CCIP,

PLT

CPG

(DATM Task 1462 Engage Target with Rockets)

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53
Q

Fixed gun may be utilized during degraded system operations (IHADSS Invalid LOS). When selecting FXD gun, the gun will be commanded to _________ in elevation and forward in azimuth to the helicopter armament datum line (ADL). (DATM Task 1464 Engage Target with Area Weapon System)

A

+ 0.87º

(DATM Task 1464 Engage Target with Area Weapon System)

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54
Q

The gun duty cycle is as follows: (-10 Pg 4-124)

A

6 x 50 round bursts w/ 5 seconds between bursts followed by a 10 minute cooling period. For burst limiter settings of other than 50 – no more than 300 rounds within 60 seconds before allowing gun to cool for 10 minutes, after which the cycle can be repeated. (-10 Pg 4-124)

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55
Q

If ______ or more rounds have been fired in the preceding ________ , and a stoppage occurs, personnel must remain clear of the aircraft for _________ . Aircraft crewmembers should remain in the aircraft and continue positive gun control. (-10 Pg 4-125)

A

300

10 min.

30 min.

(-10 Pg 4-125)

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56
Q

The maximum effective range of the 30mm is _____ to _________ . (DATM Task 1464 Engage Target with Area Weapon System)

A

1500 to 1700 meters

(DATM Task 1464 Engage Target with Area Weapon System)

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57
Q

When firing the AWS in NORM, LOS INVALID is a safety inhibit. When firing the ________________________ , and the operator can override the inhibited via the weapon trigger second detent. (AWS Student Handout)

A

AWS in FIXED mode, LOS INVALID becomes a performance inhibit (AWS Student Handout)

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58
Q

The gun turret is capable of azimuth movement of ____ degrees left or right of the helicopter centerline, +11 degrees elevation, ( +9 degrees elevation within ____ degrees of aircraft centerline), and ____ degrees depression. (-10 Pg 4-122)

A

86º left or right

10º of acft centerline

-60º of Depression

(-10 Pg 4-122)

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59
Q

The 30mm is limited to ___________ in azimuth when the rockets are actioned simultaneously. (AWS Student Handout)

A

+/-60º in azimuth (AWS Student Handout)

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60
Q

The 30mm is limited to ____________ in azimuth on the side of the next missile to be fired if it is on the inboard pylon. (AWS Student Handout)

A

+/-52º in azimuth (AWS Student Handout)

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61
Q

There is no indication in the cockpit when the SQUAT ORIDE switch is in the AIR position. What is the hazard associated with the SQUAT ORIDE switch being in the AIR position with the aircraft on the ground? (-10 Pg 4-117)

A

The possibility exists that the AWS could inadvertently be driven into the ground. (-10 Pg 4-117)

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62
Q

What is the “WARNING” associated with the 30mm Gun Duty Cycle? (10 Pg 4-124)

A

Failure to adhere to the published gun duty cycle may result in catastrophic failure, loss of aircraft, injury or death (10 Pg 4-124)

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63
Q

The aircraft will provide fire control solution for the 30mm up to a range of _________ . (DATM Task 1464 Engage Target with Area Weapon System)

A

4200 meters

(DATM Task 1464 Engage Target with Area Weapon System)

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64
Q

The laser pointer is activated by actioning the gun in _______ mode and then selecting the Laser Pointer Switch on either collective or the ______. (-10 Pg 4-123)

A

NORM mode

RHG (HDD button RT ring finger)

(-10 Pg 4-123)

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65
Q

When the laser pointer is activated, gun __________ ____________ are removed from the gun drive commands such that the laser will be aligned to the _________ . (-10 Pg 4-123)

A

Ballistic Compensations

Selected LOS

(-10 Pg 4-123)

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66
Q

In the event of a power loss the gun is spring driven to ____________ in elevation to prevent _______ during landing (-10 Pg 4-122)

A

+11º

Dig-in

(-10 Pg 4-122)

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67
Q

In the event of IHADSS failure with gun selected and the HMD as the selected sight, the gun will remain at its last commanded position. Gun firing is ________ . When the gun is de-actioned, it will _______________ . (-10 Pg 4-22)

A

Inhibited

Return to the stowed position.

(-10 Pg 4-22)

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68
Q

The rate of fire for the 30mm is? (-10 Pg 4-122)

A

625 +/-25

(-10 Pg 4-122)

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69
Q

________ _________ is the single largest contributor to perceived dispersion associated with the AH-64 30 mm cannon. (TC 3-04.45 Pg A-24)

A

Turret bending (TC 3-04.45 Pg A-24)

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70
Q

The M230E 30mm can accommodate a variety of 30mm ammunition including?(-10 Pg 4-122)

A

HEDP M789

TP M788

(-10 Pg 4-122)

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71
Q

With Hellfire Rails on pylons 2 and 3, and rocket launchers on pylons 1 and 4, what rocket zones and quantities of each are available? (-10 Pg 4-127)

A

A (24)

B (8)

E (6)

(-10 Pg 4-127)

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72
Q

________ _________ is a ______ ______ that is displayed when vertical acceleration is less than 0.5 G and may cause the main rotor blade to obstruct the trajectory of the rocket. (-10 Pg 4-42)

A

ACCEL Limit is a SAFETY INHIBIT (-10 Pg 4-42)

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73
Q

The _______ __________ to action a weapon (WAS) has control of that weapon. Exception: If the CPG has rockets actioned via the ______ ______ and the pilot actions rockets, ____________ ________ is in effect. (-10 Pg 4-6)

A

Last Crewmember

LHG WAS

Cooperative Mode

(-10 Pg 4-6)

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74
Q

Pylons will remain in the ______ _______ until missiles or rockets are actioned. Pylons are independently controlled through a range of ______ ______ degrees in elevation. (-10 Pg 4-127)

A

Flight Mode

+4º to -15º

(-10 Pg 4-127)

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75
Q

Due to the possibility of surging the engines, do not fire rockets from inboard stations. Fire no more than ________ with two __________ launchers every ____ _________ or fire with only ____________ outboard launcher installed without restrictions. (-10 Pg 4-128)

A

Pairs

Outboard

3 seconds

One

(-10 Pg 4-128)

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76
Q

Cooperative engagements utilize the __________ and __________ for ballistic solution calculations, and provide the PLT with steering data. (DATM Task 1462 Engage Target with Rockets)

A

CPG’s LOS and Range (DATM Task 1462 Engage Target with Rockets)

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77
Q

Spent illumination rocket motors will land ______-_______ meters beyond the target, and approximately ______-______ meters from the launch aircraft.

(TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-38)

A

700-1200 meters

4200-4700 meters

(TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-38)

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78
Q

Is the pilot permitted to make changes to the RKT page when in the cooperative mode? (DATM Task 1462 Engage Target with Rockets)

A

Yes, during the rocket coop mode, both the CPG and PLT share a common WPN’s RKT page both may view, access, edit or fire RKT’s (DATM Task 1462 Engage Target with Rockets)

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79
Q

The “10 pounder” M151 HEDP natural fragmentation of the brittle cast-iron warhead case results in a significant number of small “nuisance” or non-lethal fragments, with the primary fragment beam spray covering 60 to 120 degrees ( _________________ ) perpendicular to the warhead. Approximately 55 percent, of the cast-iron case breaks up into small fragments of less than one grain, with approximately five grains considered the minimum lethal size. (TC 3-04.45 Pg C-3)

A

(Classic “ bow tie” Pattern) (TC 3-04.45 Pg C-3)

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80
Q

The “10 pounder “rocket flies a relatively flat trajectory; firing rockets at ______ ________ ________ will improve anti-personnel lethality by increasing the effective beam spray. (TC 3-04.45 Pg C-3)

A

High Dive Angles (TC 3-04.45 Pg C-3)

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81
Q

The flechette rocket detonates about ________ before the predetermined range. (TC 3-04.45 Pg C-8)

A

150m (TC 3-04.45 Pg C-8)

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82
Q

ROCKET Hover-fire engagements can be achieved at a range of approximately __________ without changing aircraft pitch attitude. (DATM Task 1462 Engage Target with Rockets)

A

4,500 meters

(DATM Task 1462 Engage Target with Rockets)

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83
Q

The MK66 motor fuse/warhead combination currently supported by our software includes: (-10 Pg 4-128)

A

6PD, 6RC, 6IL, 6SK, 6MP and 6FL. (-10 Pg 4-128)

84
Q

Firing MK66 in a hover or low speed at a height of less than _________ , and for all other flight conditions of _________ , is not authorized. (-10 Pg 4-128)

A

7 ft AGL

5 ft AGL

(-10 Pg 4-128)

85
Q

The minimum range to target when firing Flechette rocket is __________. The effective range with MK66 rocket motors is ____ to ______. Effectiveness is reduced with ranges greater than _______. (-10 Pg 4-128)

A

800 meters

1 to 3Km

3Km

(-10 Pg 4-128)

86
Q

Re-inventory and attempting to fire ________________ rocket types, after a NO-FIRE event is not recommended due to significant impact on accuracy. The rockets should not be used for at least _________ to allow the M439 (Base Mounted Resistance Capacitance) fuse to reset. (-10 Pg 4-128)

A

6MP, 6FL, and 6SK

10 days

(-10 Pg 4-128)

87
Q

The M257 Illumination (overt) warhead provides one million candlepower for a ______________ . (TC 3-04.45 Pg C-13)

A

minimum of 100 seconds (TC 3-04.45 Pg C-13)

88
Q

The M442 fuse (used with the M257 and M278) provides a standoff range of approximately ___________ with the MK66 motor. (TC 3-04.45 Pg C-13)

A

3,500 meters (TC 3-04.45 Pg C-13)

89
Q

The M278 IR Illumination warhead will provide IR light for _________________ . (TC 3-04.45 Pg C-15)

A

150-210 seconds (TC 3-04.45 Pg C-15)

90
Q

Firing the missile near the edge of constraints __________ the missiles probability of hit (Ph). Aircrews should attempt to align the missile as close as possible, both ____________ and ______________ , to the gun target line prior to firing. (DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

A

Reduces

Horizontally and Vertically

(DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

91
Q

An offset of _______ degrees, to the firing side, should be used when possible to preclude the missile from flying through the TADS FOV. (DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

A

3 to 5 degrees (DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

92
Q

The _____________ missile constraints box represents a ________________ angular displacement between the aircraft center line and selected target’s bearing. The selected ACQ Source must be represented by a grid within the aircraft’s “POINT” file. This point may be the active acquisition source or present in ____________ within the ACQ grouped options. (DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

A

LOAL LO/HI

7.5 degree

B5

(DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

93
Q

For R-Model Missiles the LOAL ____/_____/____ constraints box represents a ______ degree angular displacement between the aircraft centerline and the selected target’s bearing. In DIR mode the constraints box is driven by the selected LOS, and in FLAT/LOFT mode it is driven by the point present in the _______ option within the ACQ grouped options. (DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

A

DIR/FLAT/LOFT

30º

B5

(DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

94
Q

What are the SAL Hellfire Missile Performance Detractors: (TC 3-04.45 Pg F-2)

A

Backscatter, Boresight Error, Spot Jitter, Beam Divergence, Attenuation, Overspill, Underspill, Entrapment, and Podium effect. (TC 3-04.45 Pg F-2)

95
Q

______________ can NOT be overridden by the trigger second detent (SAFETY INHIBIT). (DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

A

Backscatter

(DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

96
Q

Under severe backscatter conditions it may not be possible to perform LOBL. In these cases, the preferred backscatter avoidance technique is to utilize a _________ _________ to provide missile guidance. “Buddy LASE” (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-56)

A

remote designator (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-56)

97
Q

To eliminate a backscatter lock on, stop lasing the target. Switch to LOAL-Direct, and use a minimum of _____________ of delay from missile separation (approximately three seconds after trigger pull). (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-56)

A

2 seconds (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-56)

98
Q

The Hellfire Missile seeker has a __________ seeker limit from the missile centerline. (LBHMMS Student Handout)

A

+/- 30º (LBHMMS Student Handout)

99
Q

LOAL HI/LO maximum engagement range is ________. (except for R model msl) (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-57)

A

8 Km (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-57)

100
Q

LOAL DIR maximum engagement range is ________ . (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-58)

A

7 Km (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-58)

101
Q

LOBL maximum engagement range is _______ .

(TC 3-04.45 PG 14-58)

A

7KM (TC 3-04.45 PG 14-58)

102
Q

SAL II “K Model” LOBL minimum engagement range:
____º offset: ______m ____º offset: ______m

SAL II “K Model” LOAL DIR minimum engagement range: ____º offset: ______m ____º offset: ______m

SAL II “K Model” LOAL LO minimum engagement range: ____ºoffset: ______m ____º offset: ______m

SAL II “K Model” LOAL HI minimum engagement range: ____º offset: ______m ____º offset: ______m

(TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-59)

A

LOBL:
0º offset: 500m / 20º offset: 700m

LOAL DIR:
0º offset: 1,500m / 7.5º offset: 1,700m

LOAL LO
0º offset: 2,000m / 7.5º offset: 2,500m

LOAL HI
0º offset: 3,500m / 7.5º offset: 3,500m

(TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-59)

103
Q

SAL “R Model” LOBL minimum engagement range:
____º offset: ______m ____º offset: ______m

SAL “R Model” DIR minimum engagement range: ____º offset: ______m ____º offset: ______m
SAL “R Model” LOAL FLAT minimum engagement range: ____º offset: ______m ____º offset: ______m
SAL “R Model” LOAL LOFT minimum engagement range: ____º offset: ______m ____º offset: ______m

(TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-59)

A

LOBL:
0​º offset: 500m / 20​º offset: 700m

DIR:
0​º offset: 1,500m / 30​º offset: 2,000m

LOAL FLAT:
0​º offset: 1,500m / 30​º offset: 2,000m

LOAL LOFT:
0​º offset: 3,500m / 30​º offset: 3,500m

(TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-59)

104
Q

The K/R-Model LOBL missile constraint box is ________ degrees. (-10 Pg. 4-31)

A

+/-20 degrees (-10 Pg. 4-31)

105
Q

The K-Model LOAL missile constraint box is _________ degrees. (-10 Pg 4-31)

A

+/-7.5 degrees (-10 Pg 4-31)

106
Q

The R-Model LOAL missile constraints box is ________ degrees. (-10 Pg 4-31)

A

+/- 30 degrees (-10 Pg 4-31)

107
Q

The R-Model constraints box will be displayed as a small solid box out to _________ . If the missile receives laser energy, the box will go broken until inside ____________ . (-10 Pg 4-31)

A

30 Degrees

20 Degrees

(-10 Pg 4-31)

108
Q

LOAL LO will clear a ______ mask with a ________ standoff. (TC 3-04.45 D-5)

A

300 ft mask / 600 meter standoff (TC 3-04.45 D-5)

109
Q

LOAL HI will clear a _______ mask with a __________ standoff. ( TC 3-04.45 D-5)

A

1,000 ft mask / 1,500 meter standoff ( TC 3-04.45 D-5)

110
Q

The ________________ missile will be identified as a P+ HEAT. The Romeo missile utilizes an Integrated Blast Frag Sleeve (IBFS) warhead that incorporates all three capabilities of the SAL 2 (HEAT, FRAG, BLAST) into one warhead. (-10 Pg. 4-136)

A

AGM-114R (ROMEO) (-10 Pg. 4-136)

111
Q

In the _________ Mode the Romeo Missile impacts the target at _____ to _____ degrees. In the ______ Mode the Romeo Missile impacts the target at ____ degrees. (-10 Pg 4-134)

A

LOFT Mode / -30 to -35 degrees

FLAT Mode / -6 degrees (-10 Pg 4-134)

112
Q

AGM-114R missiles are capable of both _____ and _______ code operations. (-10 Pg 4-136)

A

PRF and PIM (-10 Pg 4-136)

113
Q

Due to seeker look down limits, the minimum engagement range for LOAL engagements should be increased as follows: Increase minimum range by ______ meters for launch altitudes between _____ to ________ feet above target altitude. Increase minimum range by _______ meters for launch altitudes between _____ to _______ feet above the target altitude. (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-60)

A

500 meters - 50 to 400 feet

1,000 meters - 401 and 800 feet

(TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-60)

114
Q

Avoid firing LOAL when the launch altitude is greater than __________ the target due to the limited ability of the missile seeker to look down sufficiently to acquire the laser spot. (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-59)

A

800 feet above (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-59)

115
Q

What is the definition of Ripple fire? (DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

A

Multiple missiles launched with two, or more, unique laser channel codes (DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

116
Q

During a remote designation, the designator should not be within ____ degrees of the gun target line or more than ____ degrees from the target centerline. (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-72)

A

30 degrees

60 degrees

(TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-72)

117
Q

The three conditions that will cause a REMOTE message to be displayed in the HAD are the following: (DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

A

1) The firing ACFT’s LRFD code does not match the requested (PRI) code
2) The selected sight is HMD,
3) The laser is off.

(DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

118
Q

The minimum cloud ceiling to fire a “K” model missile in LOBL mode is? (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-58)

A

400 feet at 3 Km

500 feet at 5Km

600 feet at 7 Km

(TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-58)

119
Q

Targets shall be a minimum of _______ from the firing point when firing AGM-114M/N/K2A missiles. (AWR 2007D-A05)

A

800m (AWR 2007D-A05)

120
Q

When employing a K2A against personnel in the open, aiming at the _________________ the target may achieve the maximum shrapnel dispersion. (AWR 2007D-A05)

A

Ground Just Short Of (AWR 2007D-A05)

121
Q

Do not fly faster than _________ when firing the AGM-114F-A missile. (AWR 2013D-A19)

A

90 KTAS (AWR 2013D-A19)

122
Q

Restrict the forward airspeed of all AH-64 aircraft to no greater than _________ during running fire of the Hellfire AGM-114K2A and AGM-114M/N missiles. (Safety of Use Message 07-004)

A

90 knots (Safety of Use Message 07-004)

123
Q

In the NORM and MAN mode, regardless of actual inventory, how many missiles will the WP reserve for the priority channel? (DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

A

3 (DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

124
Q

To decrease the effect of target velocities building up over time, the crew should attempt to fire the LOAL TADS to RF missile hand over no longer than ____________ after the TARGET DATA message disappears. (TC 3-04.45 Pg 14-68)

A

5 to 7 seconds

125
Q

To achieve the best missile performance, keep the data latencies to a minimum. Sometimes, this requires a new FCR scan or TADS new laze for handover. Some guidelines for use are: (TC 3-04.45 Pg D-16)

A
  • Moving targets tracking on the rail can tolerate trigger pull latency.
  • For RF inhibit FCR moving target, trigger pull latency no more than 15 seconds.
  • For FCR stationary targets, trigger pull latency no more than 15 seconds.
  • For RF handover engagements, trigger pull latency no more than 15 seconds.
  • For TADS stationary target, trigger pull latency no more than 5 seconds.

(TC 3-04.45 Pg D-16)

126
Q

_____ is displayed on the RF missile icon to indicate that transfer alignment has occurred, and that the missile is ready to receive a target. (-10-2 Pg 4-134)

A

“R” (-10-2 Pg 4-134)

127
Q

__________ is when a missile uses a curved trajectory to induce relative motion between a stationary target and its background by flying an off-axis path to the target. (TC 3-04.45 Pg D-24)

A

Doppler beam sharpening (TC 3-04.45 Pg D-24)

128
Q

The RF missile will attempt to launch LOBL on stationary targets between the ranges of __________ . If the target is not detected, the missile will revert to LOAL (DATM Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Hellfire Missile)

A

1KM to 2.5KM

(DATM Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Hellfire Missile)

129
Q

Stationary Targets between __________ are engaged LOAL using DBS fly-out profile to create target movement. The crew may control the direction the missile conducts DBS by ____________________ ___________. (DATM Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Hellfire Missile)

A

2.5K and 8K

Pointing the nose of the aircraft in the desired direction.

(DATM Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Hellfire Missile)

130
Q

The AUTO button will enable automatic missile power management. In the AUTO mode RF missiles will be powered up at _________________ . This does NOT occur when missiles are actioned. (LBHMMS Student Handout)

A

10 minute intervals (LBHMMS Student Handout)

131
Q

A RF missile can receive a target handover from one of the following sources: (-10 Pg 4-134)

A

TADS, FCR, IDM. (-10 Pg 4-134)

132
Q

When a stationary target is handed over to the RF missile between _____________ , the missile will radiate and attempt to LOBL. At this range the missile must achieve LOBL. IF the target is not detected or track is subsequently lost, the message “___________” will be displayed and firing will be inhibited. (DATM Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Hellfire Missile)

A

0.5 KM and 1.0 KM

“NO ACQUIRE”

(DATM Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Hellfire Missile)

133
Q

When an RF missile uses DBS, and the target is on the left side of the missile centerline, the missile will DBS to the _______ side of the target. (TC 3-04.45 Pg D-25)

A

Right (TC 3-04.45 Pg D-25)

134
Q

If the allowable elapsed ON time for a training mode missile is exceeded, what symbol will appear on the affected missile icon? What does this symbol mean? (-10 Pg 4-133)

A
  • OT
  • Overtemperature

(-10 Pg 4-133)

135
Q

Why would the RF missile LOBL INHIBIT option be used? (DATM Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Hellfire Missile)

A

To allow for LOAL shots only, Inhibits RF missile from transmitting which eliminates the RF missile signature.

(DATM Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Hellfire Missile)

136
Q

What does the message “TARGET DATA?” mean in the HAD? DATM Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Hellfire Missile)

A

The FCR is not the selected sight and the RF missile has not received target location data.

DATM Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Hellfire Missile)

137
Q

The missile counter-counter measures (MSL CCM) button enables the counter-counter mea sure routine within the laser missile. This selection __________ the pulse repetition frequency (PRF number of pulses per second) tracking capability of the missile to the precise PRF of the selected laser code. (LBHMMS Student Handout)

A

Narrows (LBHMMS Student Handout)

138
Q

The 2nd target inhibit button is used to prevent secondary target information from being handed over from the FCR to the ________ RF missile during a __________ target engagement. (-10 Pg 4-139)

A
  • Primary
  • Stationary

(-10 Pg 4-139)

139
Q

At a 20 degree offset launch angle an RF missile azimuth flight profile will use a maximum cross range of _______ at 8 km. (TC3-04.45 Pg D-21)

A

990 meters (TC 3-04.45 Pg D-21)

140
Q

If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is greater than or equal to _____ , the allowable constraints angle is _________ . (-10 Pg 4-31)

A

1 KM

20 degrees

(-10 Pg 4-31)

141
Q

If the RF missile is tracking and the target range is less than _____ , the allowable constraints angle is _________ . (-10 Pg 4-31)

A

1 KM

5 degrees

(-10 Pg 4-31)

142
Q

Where is the hazard area for a radiating RF missile located? (TC 3-04.45 Pg D-12)

A

1 meter and a 45 degree cone off the missile nose. (TC 3-04.45 Pg D-12)

143
Q

In what three modes does the RF missile operate? (TC 3-04.45 Pg D-12)

A

Standby, Prelaunch, Post Launch

(TC 3-04.45 Pg D-12)

144
Q

The RF Missile FCR LOAL Range limitation is from ___________ if the target is detected by the firing aircraft’s own FCR. (DATM, Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Hellfire Missile)

A

1.0K to 6.0K (DATM, Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Hellfire Missile)

145
Q

The RF Missile is capable of servicing __________ targets via the TADS and through RFHOs to a maximum range of _____ . (DATM, Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Hellfire Missile)

A

LOAL

8.0K

(DATM, Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Hellfire Missile)

146
Q

The FCR takes approximately _______ to run IBITs and power up (extreme cold weather starts less than -10 degrees Celsius could take as long as ___________ ). (DATM, Task 1144 Fire Control Radar Operations)

A

3 minutes

13 minutes

(DATM, Task 1144 Fire Control Radar Operations)

147
Q
  1. The weapons processor uses position information of the ________________ for computing LOS data and ballistic solutions for gun, rocket and radar frequency (RF) missile engagements. (DATM, Task 1144 Fire Control Radar Operations)
A

Current NTS Target (DATM, Task 1144 Fire Control Radar Operations)

148
Q

________________ have no effect on the detection or classification of moving target indicators (MTI) targets in GTM, RMAP, or ATM. (DATM, Task 1144 Fire Control Radar Operations)

A

Terrain Sensitivity Settings (TSS) (DATM, Task 1144 Fire Control Radar Operations)

149
Q

Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes airborne and stationary ground targets?(-10 Pg. 4- 68)

A

A (-10 Pg. 4- 68)

150
Q

Which FCR priority scheme emphasizes stationary ground targets? (-10 Pg. 4- 68)

A

B (-10 Pg. 4- 68)

151
Q

Which Priority scheme would you use if you expected to engage moving ground targets? (-10-2, Pg 4-68)

A

C (-10-2, Pg 4-68)

152
Q

When an RF missile detects a moving target with a range between __________ , it will radiate and attempt _______ . (DATM Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Missile)

A

0.5K and 8K

LOBL

(DATM Task 1459 Engage Target with Radar Frequency Missile)

153
Q

When the aircraft is armed and the FCR is the selected sight and the weapon system is actioned, the _____ target is _________ and the NTS symbol will become ______ . (-10 Pg 4-58)

A

NTS

Frozen

Solid

(-10 Pg 4-58)

154
Q

Once the NTS target is frozen, and a target is detected that out-prioritizes the NTS target, the ____________ will be automatically displayed on that target symbol and ________________ . (-10 Pg 4-58)

A

ANTS symbol

Flash for 3 seconds

(-10 Pg 4-58)

155
Q

The ____________ switch is used to rapidly orient the FCR antenna to the highest priority RFI emitter. (DATM Task 1144 Perform Fire Control Radar Operations)

A

CUED Search (DATM Task 1144 Perform Fire Control Radar Operations)

156
Q

A cued search may be performed on a Fine Detect or Course Detect as long as the target is within __________ of the __________ . (DATM, Task 1144 Fire Control Radar Operations)

A

+ / - 90 degrees

Aircraft Centerline

(DATM, Task 1144 Fire Control Radar Operations)

157
Q

Up to _____ RFI emitters can be displayed. (-10 Pg 4-70)

A

10

(-10 Pg 4-70)

158
Q

The RFI number one emitter will be displayed with a _________________ around the threat Symbol and target type. (-10 Pg 4-70)

A

Home Plate Symbol (-10 Pg 4-70)

159
Q

After RFI emitters have ceased radiating for ___________ , the symbols will change to ____________ . After ___________ of no transmission receipt, the symbols will _______ . (-10 Pg 4-70)

A

30 seconds

Partial intensity

90 seconds

Blank

(-10 Pg 4-70)

160
Q

Powering the RFI ON enables up to _____ detected RFI threats to be displayed on the _______ of the ASE footprint. (-10 Pg 4-70)

A

Ten

Outside

(-10 Pg 4-70)

161
Q

The RFI system detects and processes what types of radar signals? (-10 Pg 4-147)

A

Pulse, Pulse doppler, Continuous wave (CW) (-10 Pg 4-147)

162
Q

When the Radar Jammer is transmitting a _____ _____ _____ in the center of the Ownship Icon will be present. (-10 Pg 4-150)

A

Flashing lightning bolt (-10 Pg 4-150)

163
Q

What does the message “RFI DATA?” mean? (-10 Pg 4-36)

A

RFI has been commanded to do a CUED search and no threat data is available (-10 Pg 4-36)

164
Q

What is the caution associated with use of the FCR TEMP ORIDE button? (-10 Pg 4-68)

A

Continued operation with the FCR TEMP ORIDE button selected may cause permanent damage to FCR components. (-10 Pg 4-68)

165
Q

What will happen if you press the display ZOOM switch on the RH ORT Grip? (-10 Pg 4-13)

A

The display zoom area will be centered on the NTS target at a 6:1 zoom ratio. (-10 Pg 4-13)

166
Q

Terrain Profile Mode wide format displays a 180-degree scan sector when ground speed _______________ . Narrow format displays a 90- degree scan sector when the ground speed __________________ . (-10 Pg 4-66)

A
  • Decreases below 45 knots and until increasing above 55 knots
  • Increases above 55 knots and until decreasing below 45 knots

(-10 Pg 4-66)

167
Q
  1. Selecting an RFI detected emitter using the display cursor will command ____________ to the line of bearing of the selected emitter. (-10 Pg 4-71)
A

The FCR centerline (-10 Pg 4-71)

168
Q

Continuing to press and release the cued switch will: (-10 Pg 4-71)

A

Continuously cycle the cued search through the existing list of detected emitters. (-10 Pg 4-71)

169
Q

Friendly RFI emitters are displayed in ______ and enemy/gray emitters are displayed in __________ . (-10 Pg 4-70)

A

CYAN

YELLOW

(-10 Pg 4-70)

170
Q

Selection of other than #1 emitter with the CAQ enabled places what over that emitter? (-10 Pg 4-70)

A

An Inverse video home plate (selected emitter symbol) over that emitter. (-10 Pg 4-70)

171
Q

The configuration of the laser sensors of the Laser Detecting Set provides for __________ of coverage in azimuth and _______ in elevation about the helicopter with substantial overlap. (-10 Pg 4-146)

A

360 degrees

+/- 45

(-10 Pg 4-146)

172
Q

Can the flight crew override the “NAV DATA INVALID” message in the sight status field of the High Action Display? (-10 Pg 4-35)

A

NO (Safety inhibit) (-10 Pg 4-35)

173
Q

Can the flight crew override the “ACCEL LIMIT” message in the weapon inhibit status field of the High Action Display? (-10 Pg 4-42)

A

NO (Safety inhibit) (-10 Pg 4-42)

174
Q

Where will an uncorrelated RWR detect icon be displayed? (-10 Pg 4-151)

A

Identified by an icon being oriented directly in front of the ownship (C/D band activity) (-10 Pg 4-151)

175
Q

The LINK function is used in the CPG station to set the ____________________ when the selected sight is TADS or to set the ____________________ when the selected sight is FCR. In the pilot station, it is used only to set the ____________________ . (-10Pg 4-12)

A
  • FCR centerline to the TADS LOS
  • TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS
  • TADS LOS to the FCR NTS LOS

(-10Pg 4-12)

176
Q

The RF missile can engage stationary targets between ________ . (DATM, Task 1144 Fire Control Radar Operations)

A

0.5km and 8Km

(DATM, Task 1144 Fire Control Radar Operations)

177
Q

_________ ________ should take place before initiating SANUC due to the removal of MTADS or PNVS video. The SANUC should not be performed if ________________ cannot be maintained. (-10 Pg 4-92)

A

Crew Coordination

Ground and obstacle clearance

(-10 Pg 4-92)

178
Q

When _______ ________ _________ , or are predicted, and Hellfire operations are expected, the launcher ARM/SAFE switch located on each Hellfire launcher must be manually placed in the ARM position prior to lift off. It is possible for this switch to be rendered inoperative due to _____ . (-10 Pg 8-3)

A

Icing conditions exist

Icing

(-10 Pg 8-3)

179
Q

Pilot and CPG shall perform their ______ _____ _____ prior to entering the Forward Area Refuel Point (FARP). (-10 Pg 8-14)

A

Armament safety checks (-10 Pg 8-14)

180
Q

Target fixation is a known problem in creating a catastrophic loss of aircraft and crew. While on the range we will not fly any closer than ________ from the target and the hard deck for diving fire is ______ AGL. (1-227th APG)

A

500 meters

500 ft AGL

(1-227th APG)

181
Q

Should at any time the ____ __________ __________ audio sound, the aircrew shall give their sole attention to placing the aircraft back above the minimum altitude. The P* will ensure that the nose of the aircraft is placed equal to or above the horizon prior to adding power to preclude accelerating, descending flight. Tactical play, radio transmissions, and nonessential ICS shall cease until the P* states “_____ _______ ” to the P. (DATM Task 1416 Perform Diving Flight)

A

LOW ALTITUDE WARNING

“BACK ABOVE”

(DATM Task 1416 Perform Diving Flight)

182
Q

While maneuvering and tracking a target with LMC, an accurate dynamic range must be maintained to target. _____ should be used anytime the aircraft, target or both are moving. (DATM Task 1140 Perform TADS Sensor Operations)

A

LMC (DATM Task 1140 Perform TADS Sensor Operations)

183
Q

The target and threat file has up to _____ locations protected from overwriting referred to as the safe set. (-10 Pg 3-123)

A

25 (-10 Pg 3-123)

184
Q

What do the TADS FOV brackets surrounding the LOS reticle indicate? What if those gates are not present? (-10 Pg 4-29)

A

The gates indicate what portion of the TADS imagery will be displayed if the next narrower field of view is selected. If the gates are not present then there is no narrower field of view (Zoom). (-10 Pg 4-29)

185
Q

If you have been operating the MTADS/MPNVS on the ground for _________ or longer, perform a SANUC before takeoff. (-10 Pg 8-13)

A

15 minutes (-10 Pg 8-13)

186
Q

What does the LRFD in the “Last” position do? (DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

A

WP uses last laser return pulse.

(DATM Task 1458 Engage Target with SAL Hellfire Missile)

187
Q

Brevity terms:

BLIND

CAPTURED

CONTACT

A

– No visual contact with FRIENDLY aircraft / ground position. Opposite of VISUAL.

– Specified surface target/object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor.

– 1. Sensor SA at the stated position. 2. (Air-to-Surface [A/S]) Acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor).

188
Q

Brevity terms:

LOOKING

LOWDOWN

MOVER(S)

A

– [A/S][UAS] Aircrew does not have the ground object, reference point, or target in sight (opposite of CONTACT).

– A request for the tactical ground picture in an area of interest.

– Unidentified surface vehicle(s) in motion.

189
Q

Brevity terms:

NO JOY

PLAYTIME

POSTURE

A

– [A/A][A/S][S/A] Aircrew does not have visual contact with the TARGET/BANDIT. Opposite of TALLY.

– Amount of time aircraft can remain on station, given in hours plus minutes (e.g., ONE PLUS THIRTY equals 1 hour and 30 minutes).

– [A/S] Communicates sensor posture (offensive, defensive, or neutral) by the JTAC to assets. Does not imply the friendly ground forces’ tactical situation.

190
Q

Brevity terms:

REMINGTON

SQUIRTER

SUNSHINE

A

– [A/A][A/S] No ordnance remaining except gun or self-protect ammo.

– [A/S][S/S][UAS] A ground-borne object of interest departing the objective area.

– [A/S] Illuminating target with artificial illumination.

191
Q

Brevity terms:

TALLY

VISUAL

WINCHESTER

A

– [A/A][A/S] Sighting of a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position. Opposite of NO JOY.

– [A/A][A/S] Sighting of a friendly aircraft or ground position. Opposite of BLIND.

– No ordnance remaining.

192
Q

Brevity terms:

CEASE (activity)

LASER ON

LASING

A

– Discontinue stated activity; e.g., CEASE BUZZER, CEASE LASER, CEASE SPARKLE, etc.

– Start / acknowledge laser designation.

– The speaker is firing the laser.

193
Q

Brevity terms:

NEGATIVE LASER

SPOT

STARE (with laser code and reference point)

A

– Laser energy has not been acquired.

– 1. [A/S] Acquisition of laser designation. 2. Platform is LST capable.

– Cue the laser spot search / tracker function on the specified laser code in relation to the specified reference point.

194
Q

Brevity terms:

ROPE

SNAKE

SPARKLE

A

– [A/S] Circling an IR pointer around an aircraft to help the aircraft identify the friendly ground position.

– [A/S] Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target.

– 1. [A/S][S/S][UAS] Mark / marking target by IR pointer. 2. Platform is capable to IR point.

195
Q

Brevity terms:

HANDSHAKE

HOLLOW

DIRTY

A

– 1. [A/S][UAS] Video data link established. Opposite of HOLLOW.

– 1. Any data link message not received. 2. [A/S][UAS] Lost video data link. Opposite of HANDSHAKE.

– Link is not encrypted

196
Q

Brevity terms:

ANCHOR

ANGELS

BITTERSWEET

A

– Orbit about a specific point

– Height of friendly aircraft in thousands of feet

– Possible Fratricide

197
Q

Brevity terms:

CHICKS

CLOAK

CONTINUE

A

– Friendly Aircraft

– Overt to covert lighting (lights ON: Turn all exterior lights OFF)

– Continue present maneuver, this does not imply a change in clearance to engage or expend ordinance.

198
Q

Brevity terms:

DEADEYE

BUSTER

LAME DUCK

A

– Laser designation system is inoperative

– Fly as quickly as possible using max power (Vh)

– Aircraft in a minor state of emergency

199
Q

Brevity terms:

LINER

SAUNTER

MICKEY

A

– Fly at max range airspeed

– Fly at Max Endurance/Max Rate of Climb

– Havequick time of the day (TOD) signal.

200
Q

ID the rocket steering cursor:

A

Articulating Rkt Steering

201
Q

ID the rocket steering cursor:

A

Stowed Rkt Steering Cursor

202
Q

ID the rocket steering cursor:

A

Fixed Rocket

203
Q

ID the rocket steering cursor:

A

Inhibited Rocket

204
Q

Maximum missile altitude:

A
205
Q

Time of flight and terminal guidance (steady on target time) requirements:

A

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