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Med Micro Boards > Organism Blood and Skin Tests > Flashcards

Organism Blood and Skin Tests Flashcards

1
Q

streptococcus pyogenes produces toxins called __ and __ which are responsible for the B hemolytic pattern of hemolysis on the blood agar

A

streptolysin O and S

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2
Q

what bacteria produces streptolysin O and S

A

streptococcus pyogenes

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3
Q

which toxin ( streptolysin O or S) stimulates the production of antibodies

A

streptolysin O

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4
Q

streptolysin O is seen in the blood in what diseases

A

rheumatic fever
streptococcal infection
post strep glomerulonephritis

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5
Q

what tests should be performed to identify streptococcal infection

what # indicates infection

A

anti streptolysin O titer

> 160 todd units

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6
Q

what test is uses to distinguish hemolytic anemia, Rhesus factor, and erythroblastosis fetalis in Rhesus (-)negative mothers

HER

A

coombs test

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7
Q

what diseases or markers does coombs test identify

A

hemolytic anemia
erythroblastosis fetalis in Rh negative mother
rhesus factor

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8
Q

what does ELISA stand for

A

enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

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9
Q

what test identifies the diseases HIV and lyme disease in serum

A

ELISA

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10
Q

what does the ELISA test help us identify in serum

A

HIV and lyme disease

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11
Q

ELISA is a __ test but not __ because of false positives

A

sensitive but not specific

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12
Q

what does FTA-ABS stand for

A

fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test

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13
Q

what serum test is used to “confirm” syphilis

A

FTA-ABS test

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14
Q

when is FTA-ABS positive

A

positive when infection is present

and

remains positive long after the syphilis is treated

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15
Q

what does FTA-ABS test for

A

syphilis

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16
Q

what is a special serum test for chlamydia organisms

A

ligase chain reaction

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17
Q

ligase chain reaction is a variation of what test

A

nucleic acid amplification test

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18
Q

what test would we use to identify chlamydia in serum

A

ligase chain reaction

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19
Q

what test is used to detect leprosy in serum

A

mitsuda test

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20
Q

how is mitsuda test performed

A

intradermal injection of lepromin

reaction in skin at site of injection indicates + for mycobacterium leprae

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21
Q

what test uses sheep red blood cells

A

paul bunnel test

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22
Q

what is paul bunnel test used to detect

A

mononucleosis

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23
Q

what does RPR stand for

A

rapid plasmid reagin

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24
Q

what is RPR test used for

A

blood screening test for syphilis

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25
Q

what does VDRL stand for

A

venereal diagnostic research lab

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26
Q

what is VDRL test used for

A

blood test screening test for syphilis

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27
Q

when is VDRL positive in the serum

A

positive when syphilis is present

negative when syphilis is successfully treated

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28
Q

when screening syphilis, if ___ is positive and the ___ is negative, it is probably a FALSE POSITIVE

A

VDRL +
FRA-ABS -
then false positive

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29
Q

what are the causes of a false positive VDRL

A 
VDRLS 
viral infections - mono and hepatitis 
durgs 
rheumatic fever 
leprosy 
SLE
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30
Q

how is the weils felix test performed

A

patients serum mixed with proteus antigens
if patient has antibodies to rickettsia, then antibodies will react with proteus antigens and cause aggluntination of red blood cells

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31
Q

when is weils felix test positive?

when is it negative?

A

positive if patient has rickettsia

negative if patient has coxiella infection

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32
Q

what test is used to confirm HIV after a + ELISA

A

western blot

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33
Q

what two tests would you perform for HIV

A

ELISA first to screen

then western blot to confirm

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34
Q

what does western blot test for in blood?

A

tests viral protein fragments

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35
Q

what are the 3 blot tests and what do they test for

A

western - viral protein fragments
southern - DNA
northern - RNA

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36
Q

which test is highly specific for HIV and is used to rule IN or CONFIRM the disease

A

western blot

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37
Q

what is test is used to detect typhoid fever

A

widal test

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38
Q

what does widal test detect in blood

A

typhoid fever

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39
Q

what is kveim skin test used to detect

A

sarcoidosis

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40
Q

what is the test for sarcoidosis

A

kveim skin test

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41
Q

how is kveim skin test performed

A

injection of sarcoidosis into patient

skin reaction should occur 4-6 weeks after injection showing non caseous granulomas

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42
Q

What is the name of the test for TB

A

mantoux or heaf or tine test

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43
Q

what does mantoux/heaf/tine test indicate

A

TB infection

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44
Q

how is mantoux/heaf/tine test performed

A

intradermal injection of PPD or purified protein derivative from TB bacillus

45
Q

what is a positive skin test for TB

A

mantoux/heaf/tine test

mark > 10mm indicates TB

46
Q

what test is used to identify H pylori

A

urea splitting bacteria

47
Q

what does the urea splitting bacteria test for

A

H pylori
proteus mirabilis
klebsiella pneumonia

48
Q

what are the 3 bacteria that secrete urease

A

H pylori
proteus mirabilis
klebsiella pneumonia

49
Q

what does urease enzyme do

A

breaks down urea into ammonia and CO2

50
Q

what does ammonia do to the stomach

A

neutralizes the HCL in the stomach preventing gastric acid from destroying the bacteria which allows them to multiply and proliferate causing gastritis and ulcers

51
Q

what bacteria contains urease that creates an alkaline environment in the urine and promotes the precipitation of struvite stones

A

proteus mirabilis

52
Q

what bacteria is associated with struvite stones in urine

A

proteus mirabilis

53
Q

what is a biological assay that assesses the mutagenic potential of chemical compounds

A

ames test

54
Q

what bacteria does ames test use during the test to indicate if the chemicals are causing mutagenic changes

A

salmonella typhimurium

55
Q

what does a positive ames test indicate

A

the chemical has the potential to cause mutation in genes and may be considered carcinogenic

56
Q

what is the german word for swelling

A

quellung

57
Q

what is a test that causes a biochemical reaction which causes anticapsular antibodies bind to capsule of bacteria causing it to swell and become more visible

A

quellung reaction

58
Q

what bacteria shows a positive quellung reaction

A

streptococcus pneumonia **

others 
klebsiella pneumonia 
hemophilus influenza 
salmonella 
neiserria meningitides
59
Q

what test looks at carcinogenicity and mutagenicity

A

ames test

60
Q

what is used in ames test

A

salmonella typhimurium

61
Q

what test is for anthrax

A

ascholi test

62
Q

what test is for strep pyogenes antibodies

A

anti-streptolysin O titre

ASO titer

63
Q

what test is for rheumatic fever

A

anti-streptolysin O tire

ASO titer

64
Q

what is test to check percent of butterfat in milk

A

babcock test

65
Q

what test determines difference between pneumococcus and alpha hemolytic streptococcus viridans

A

bile solubility

66
Q

what is the best test for water pollution

A

BOD test

67
Q

what does BOD stand for

whats it mean

A

biologicial oxygen demand

best test for water pollution

68
Q

what is known as complement fixation

A

bordet gengou phenomenon

69
Q

what test determines between stap and strep

A

catalase

70
Q

what is a virus culture

A

chick embryo culture
or
tissue culture

cant grow on agar

71
Q

what is a agar for gonnorrhea

A

chocolate agar

aka
thayer martin agar
heated blood agar

72
Q

what test is used to differentiate different staphylococcus bugs

A

coagulase

staph aureus +
all else negative

73
Q

what test checks for e coli in the water purification process

A

colliform test

74
Q

what test checks fecal contamination in water

A

colliform test

*tests for ecoli

75
Q

what test check hymolyss and cell lysis

A

complement fixation

76
Q

what test checks rbc antigens, hemolytic anemia, erythroblastosis, and rh factor

A

coombs test

77
Q

what is the test for scarlet fever

A

dick test

78
Q

what is the stain for protozoa

A

giemsa stain

79
Q

what is the test for seronegative arthropathies such as psoriatic, enteropathic, as, and reiters syndrome

A

HLA B27

80
Q

what tests are for AIDS

A

ELISA - checks DNA
western blot - checks proteins

HLA DR5/CD4

81
Q

what agar is used for staphylococcus

A

mannitol salt agar

82
Q

what is dx if patient has nuchal rigidity and stuff neck

A

meningitis

glucose decrease in CSF if present

83
Q

what is the heterophile agglutination test for mononucleosis

A

paul bunnel test

84
Q

what test is to determine if milk pasteurization was adequate?

what makes it adequate

A

phosphatase test

adequate if all phosphatase enzyme is destroyed

85
Q

what test is for streptococcus pneumonia

A

quellung reaction

86
Q

what is the agar for testing fungi

A

sabouraud agar

87
Q

what tests for immunity to diphtheria

A

schick

88
Q

what is the antitoxin reaction to scarlet fever

A

schultz carlton reaction

89
Q

what is the serology test for rickettsia

except which

A

weil felix test

except coxiella burnetti aka Q fever

90
Q

what is the typhoid fever test

A

widal test

91
Q

what test looks for altered epithelioid cells

A

tzank test

herpes zoster
herpes simplex
varicella aka chicken pox

92
Q

what are the test for syphilis /treponema pallidum

A 
kline kahn 
wassserman 
TPI 
VDRL 
darkfield
93
Q

what what are the TB tests

A

mantoux test = tine test = skin prick test
PPD - purified protein derivative
delayed hypersensitivity test
ziehl nielson staining - acid fast organisms - myco.
chest xray - gohn complex in lung
BCG - bacillus calmette guerin vaccine - uses myco. bovis

94
Q

what are acid fast stains used for

A

mycobacterium

95
Q

what are blood agar stains used for

A

streptococcus

96
Q

what demonstrates types of hemolysis / destruction of RBCs

A

blood agar

97
Q

what are the different types of hemolysis on agar plate

A

alpha = partial hemolysis = green ring
alpha strep pneumonia
strep viridans
subacute bacterial endocarditis

beta = complete hemolysis = clear ring
beta is bad
strep pyogenes

gumma = none = red ring
strep mutans

98
Q

agar for gonorrhea

A

chocolate
heated blood agar
thayer martin agar

99
Q

agar for protozoa

A

giemsa

100
Q

what is the gram stain procedure

A

primary stain - crystal violet or methylene blue

fixer - iodine / mordant

decolorizer - acetone or ethyl alcohol - removes crystal violet from gram -

counterstain - suffarin - red pink that goes in gram -

101
Q

manitol salt agar is used for what

A

staphylococcus

102
Q

what is the only way to differentiate treponemas species

A

dark field microscopy

103
Q

clue cells

A

gardenella

104
Q

whiff test +

A

gardenella

105
Q

tabes dorsalis

A

tertiary syphilis

106
Q

ophthalamia neonaturm

A

neisseria

107
Q

hand foot mouth disease

A

coxsackie

108
Q

hemophilia a lacks what

hemophilia b lacks what

A

a - factor 8

b - factor 9

Med Micro Boards (35 decks)

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