Infectious Diseases (12%) Flashcards

1
Q

Management of influenza?

A

Mostly supportive

Antivirals (Oseltamivir) if w/in 48 hours of onset of sx

Side effects: N/V

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2
Q

What are the rashes that can affect the palm and soles? (x8)

A

Coxsackie (Hand Foot & Mouth)

RMSF (especially if wrist/ankles involved)

Syphilis (secondary)

Janeway lesions (cutaneous finding of endocarditis, along with osler nodes)

Kawasaki

Measles

Toxic Shock Syndrome

Reactive Arthritis (Keratoderma Blenorrhagica)

Meningococcemia

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3
Q

When will the prodrome of HSV first appear?

What are common sx of the prodrome?

A

Prodromal sx 24 hours prior

Burning, paresthesias, tingling

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4
Q

How does rubella typically present?

Compared to rubeola, rubella does/does not do what?

What may be present in young women with rubella, especially?

A
  1. Low-grade fever, cough, anorexia, lymphadenopathy (posterior cervical and posterior auricular)

Pink, light-red spotted maculopapular rash on face that spreads to the extremities (lasts 3 days).

Compared to rubeola, rubella spreads more rapidly & does NOT darken or coalesce.

  1. Transient photosensitivity & joint pains may be seen (especially in young women)
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5
Q

How is influenza spread?

What time of year is it most prevalent?

A

Airborne respiratory secretions

Fall/winter

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6
Q

Herpes zoster ophthalmicus: shingles involving the____ division of the _____ nerve

What is Hutchinson’s sign?

_______ lesions will be seen on slit lamp exam if _________ is present

A

1st

Trigeminal (CN V)

lesions on nose usually heralding ocular involvement

Dendritic

keratoconjunctivitis

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7
Q

How to diagnose pinworms?

A

Scotch tape test

performed early in the morning to look for eggs under a microscope

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8
Q

EBV infects ___ cells and is associated mostly with what lymphoma?

It may cause _______ lymphoma, too, and also ____ lymphoma in pts with AIDS.

A

B cells

Hodgkin Lymphoma

Burkitt’s lymphoma

CNS lymphoma

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9
Q

How do you dx a pt with HSV?

What is the most sensitive and specific test?

What will be seen on Tzacnk smear?

A

PCR = most sensitive and specific test for HSV

Clinical diagnosis

Tzanck smear: multinucleated giant cells and intranuclear inclusion bodies

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10
Q

POST HERPETIC NEURALGIA: pain ____ months, hyperesthesias or decreased sensation

A

>3 months

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11
Q

What is the mainstay of tx for pertussis?

Indication for abx?

Potential complications?

A

Supportive care

Abx for decreasing contagiousness, Macrolides are drug of choice (Erythromycin)

PNA, encephalopathy, otitis media, sinusitis, sz

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12
Q

Human Herpesvirus Family:

  1. _____
  2. _____
  3. _____
  4. _____
  5. _____
  6. _____
  7. _____
  8. _____
A

Human Herpesvirus Family:

  1. Oropharyngeal
  2. Genital
  3. Varicella Zoster
  4. Epstein Barr
  5. CMV
  6. Roseola
  7. Pityriasis Rosea
  8. Kaposi Sarcoma
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13
Q

The scientific name for pinworms is _____ ______

A

Enterobius vermicularis

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14
Q

What are the three kinds of oral lesions caused by HSV?

A

Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis

Acute herpetic pharyngotonsillitis

Herpes labialis

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15
Q

Pertussis is MC seen in what age group of pts?

A

<2 y/o

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16
Q

What can both types of coxsackie virus cause in a patient?

A

Aseptic meningitis, rashes, common cold sx, or no sx at all

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17
Q

HSV espohagitis presents as small deep ____ on EGD, and is seen primarily in ______ pts

A

small deep ulcers

immunocompromised

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18
Q

Secondary (Reactivation) TB infections:

Pts (are/are not) contagious

__-__% lifetime incidence of reactivation

Most commonly localized in the ___/___ lobes of the lungs with _____ lesions. Why there?

A

ARE CONTAGIOUS

5-10%

Apex/upper lobes (more O2 content)

cavitary

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19
Q

What is another name for measles?

A

Rubeola

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20
Q

Which influenza is associated with more severe, extensive outbreaks, A or B?

A

A

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21
Q

Mortality from TB is (low/high) when (treated/not treated)

A

High not treated

low when treated! (<5%)

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22
Q

Chronic/latent TB infections:

Pts (are/are not) contagious

____% of the population will control TB infeciton with _____ formation, which may become caseating. Caseating means: ____

A

ARE NOT

90%

granuloma

Caseating: central necrosis, acidic with low oxygen, making a hostile envr. for TB to grow

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23
Q

What is pleurodynia? How does it present?

A

Fever, severe pleuritic chest pain, and paroxysmal spasms of the chest/abdominal muscles including the diaphragm (may have swelling over the diaphragm), headache

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24
Q

Where are myalgias most commonly in a pt with influenza?

A

Legs and lumbosacral area

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25
Q

Influenza vaccines are given annually, usually in ___(months of the year)___

Contraindicated in pts with?

A

October-November

Egg, gelatin, or thimerosal allergies, or if severely ill

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26
Q

How do you dx rubella?

What assay is most commonly used?

A

Clinically

Rubella-specific IgM antibody via enzyme immunoassay

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27
Q

What is the incubation period of varicella zoster?

A

10-20 days

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28
Q

Usually, pts will become PPD + how many weeks after infection with TB?

A

2-4 weeks

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29
Q

In what ages is sixth’s disease most commonly diagnosed?

What is the incubation period?

A

<5 y/o

~10 day incubation period

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30
Q

What are the three phases of whooping cough?

Describe them (how long they last for, when is the pt most contagious, what are the presentations of each stage)

A
  1. Catarrhal phase: URI symptoms lasting 1-2 weeks. Most contagious during this phase.
  2. Paroxysmal phase: severe paroxysmal coughing fits with inspiratory whooping sound after cough fits. ± Post coughing emesis. Often lasts 2-4 weeks. ±Scattered rhonchi.
  3. Convalescent phase: resolution of the cough (coughing stage may last for up to 6 weeks)
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31
Q

Mononucleosis, otherwise known as the “kissing disease”, is caused by what herpes family virus?

How is it transmitted?

In what age group is it most commonly diagnosed in?

_____% of adults are seropositive

A

Epstein Barr virus (HHV 4)

Saliva

15-25 y/o

80%

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32
Q

Will a patient with mono have anterior or posterior cervical lymphadenopathy? Could it also be general?

What organs many be enlarged?

What kind of rash can present, especially if given ampicillin?

A

Posterior, yes

Spleen and possibly liver too

Petechial (~5%)

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33
Q

Describe the presentation of hand foot and mouth disease.

A

Mild fever, URI sx, decreased appetite starting 3-5 days after exposure

Oral enanthem: vesicular lesions with erythematous halos in the oral cavity (especially buccal mucosa & tongue)

Exanthem: 1-2 days afterwards: vesicular, macular or maculolapular lesions on the distal extremities (often includes the palms & soles)

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34
Q

Influenza has a (abrupt/gradual) onset.

Associated sx?

A

Abrupt

HA, fever, chills, malaise, URI sx

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35
Q

Enterobiasis is otherwise referred to as _______

A

Pinworms

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36
Q

How to treat active TB?

Common side effects of each?

After starting therapy, how long until patient is considered non-infectious?

A

RIPE” or “RIPS”:

Rifampin – orange colored secretions

lsoniazid – hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy (which can be prevented by pyridoxine B6)

Pyrazinamide – photosensitive rash, hepatitis

Ethambutol – optic neuritis, peripheral neuropahty

(or Streptomycin) – ototoxicity (CN VIII), nephrotoxicity

2 weeks

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37
Q

When is a CXR indicated in pts with TB or possible TB?

A
  1. indicated to exclude active TB (ex. newly +PPD)
  2. used as yearly screening in pts w/ known + PPD to r/o active TB
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38
Q

The rubella virus belongs to what viral family?

A

Togavirus family

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39
Q

What is gold standard for dx of pertussis?

A

PCR of nasopharyngeal swab

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40
Q

Tuberculosis is caused by what infective agent?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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41
Q

What is the recommended management for 5th disease/ erythema infectiosum?

A

Supportive, anti-inflammatories

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42
Q

What is the recommended management of measles/rubeola?

What are possible complications of measles/rubeola?

A

Supportive, anti-inflammatories (no specific tx)

Vitamin A reduces mortality in all children with measles (decreased morbidity & mortality)

COMPLICATIONS: Diarrhea, otitis media, PNA, conjunctivitis, encephalitis

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43
Q

What is herpes whitlow?

A

Herpes infection of the finger or fingernail

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44
Q

How are pinworms transmitted?

A

Feco-oral

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45
Q

Complications of Chicken Pox include…

Which complication is most common?

A

Most common: Bacterial infection

PNA, Encephalitis, Guillain Barre syndrome

46
Q

What is the recommended management of sixth’s disease?

A

Supportive

Can administer antipyretics to prevent febrile sz

47
Q

How does measles/rubeola typically present?

Prodrome?

What are the “3 C’s”?

A
  1. URI prodrome: high fever

3 C’s”: Cough, Coryza (rhinitis), Conjunctivitis

Koplik Spots: small red spots in buccal mucosa with pale blue/white center) precedes rash by 24-48h, lasts 2-3 days

Morbiliform (maculopapular) brick-red rash on face beginning @ hairline then spreading down to extremities (palms & soles involvement usually seen last if it occurs) that darkens & coalesces.

  1. Rash usually lasts 7 days fading from top to bottom. Fever often concurrent with the rash
48
Q

What medication to use for pinworms?

A

Albendazole, Mebendazole

49
Q

What is the incubation period for pertussis?

A

7-10 days

50
Q

Genital HSV lesions are most often HSV (1/2), which is seen in __% of population

A

2

25%

51
Q

How does mumps usually present?

How do you dx mumps?

A

Low grade fever, myalgias, headache

Parotid gland pain & swelling

Dx clinically, or with serologies, look for elevated amylase

52
Q

Acute herpetic gingivostomatitis: primary infection in (children/adults) with a sudden onset of fever, ______, ______, and ______ in the mouth,

Tongue and lips will have ____(color)____ lesions.

____% ofUS population is infected with HSV 1

A

children

anorexia

gingivitis

vesicles

grey-yellow

>90%

53
Q

What does chronic TB cause in the lungs?

A

Granuloma formation

54
Q

What are sx of having pinworms?

When are sx of pinworms especially noticeable? Why?

A

Perianal itching

At night, because that is when the eggs are laid

55
Q

Describe sixth’s disease presentation, including prodrome, rash, how long it lasts for, and what the child feels like.

A
  1. Prodrome of HIGH FEVER 3-5 days (fever resolves before the onset of a rose, pink maculopapular, blanchable rash on the trunk/back that then spreads to the face.

Rash lasts hours (up to 1-2 days).

ONLY CHILDHOOD VIRAL EXANTHEM THAT STARTS ON TRUNK and then spreads to face

  1. Child appears “well” and alert during the febrile phase.

May be irritable during febrile phase.

56
Q

What are possible complications of mumps?

What is mumps the most common cause of in children?

In what age group are complications of mumps most commonly seen in?

A
  1. Orchitis in males* (usually unilateral), oophoritis (inflammed ovary), encephalitis, aseptic meningitis
  2. Mumps MC cause of acute pancreatitis in children. Deafness, arthritis, infertility.

MC seen in older patients

57
Q

What is the recommended management of mumps?

A

Supportive, antiinflammatories

58
Q

What is the infectious agent that causes 5th disease/ erythema infectiosum?

A

Parovirus B19

59
Q

Rubella is otherwise known as?

A

German Measles

60
Q

How is rubella transmitted?

What is the rash of rubella commonly referred to as, due to its length of presentation?

A

Respiratory droplets

3 day rash

Has a 2-3 week incubation period

61
Q

To be diagnosed with latent TB, one must meet x3 criteria:

  1. patient must be _____
  2. have a (positive/negative) PPD
  3. have NO evidence of ______ infxn on CXR/CT
A
  1. asymptomatic
  2. positive PPD
  3. Active infxn
62
Q

What is considered gold standard for diagnosing active TB?

A

AFB cx (acid fast smear and sputum cx x3 days)

63
Q

HERPES ZOSTER OTICUS, otherwise known as _________, follows the ____ nerve. It can cause sx such as …

A

Ramsey Hunt Syndrome

facial nerve (CN VII)

otalgia, lesions on the ear, auditory canal & tympanic membrane, facial palsy, auditory sx: tinnitus; vertigo, deafness, ataxia.

64
Q

How is TB transmitted?

A

Airborne droplets

65
Q

In patients with TB and HIV infection, there is a ___-___% yearly chance of reactivation of latent infection

A

7-10%

66
Q

How do you tx a pt with rubella?

What do patients with rubella typically NOT have compared to patients dx’d with rubeola?

A

Supportive, antiinflammatories

Generally, there are NO complications in pts with rubella, compared to those with rubeola.

67
Q

What can be done to prevent mumps in patients?

A

MMR vaccine

Given at 12-15 months, with a second dose at 4-6 y/o

68
Q

What does 5th disease/ erythema infectiosum present like?

What can it cause in older children and adults?

What can it cause in pregnant women?

A
  1. Coryza, fever –> “slapped cheek” rash on face with circumoral pallor 2-4 days –> lacy reticular rash on extremities (especially upper).
    * Spares the palms & soles*

Resolves in 2-3 weeks

  1. Arthropathy/arthralgias: older children & adults
  2. Associated with fetal loss in pregnancy (fetal hydrops, CHF, spontaneous abortion)
69
Q

What are sx that a patient with pulmonary TB may present with?

PE findings?

A

Pulmonary TB: chronic, productive cough, chest pain (often pleuritic), hemoptysis if advanced, night sweats, fever /chills, fatigue, anorexia, weight loss

PE: signs of consolidation, rales or rhonchi near apices/involved areas, dullness.

May have normal exam

70
Q

Varicella (chicken pox) is the primary infection of HSV ____.

Sx include fever and malaise, and a rash that is described as … with all lesions at (the same stage/different stages), beginning on the ___ & ___ and spreading to the ____.

(Never/Sometimes/Usually) pruritic

More severe presentation may occur in (children/adults)

A

3

“dew drops on a rose petal” (clusters of vesicles on an erythematous base)

Different stages (macules, papules, vesivcles, pustules, and crusted lesions)

Face & trunk

extremities

Usually

adults

71
Q

What is the recommended course of tx for the following:

  1. Chicken Pox: _______
  2. Shingles: _______
  3. Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: _______
  4. Ramsay Hunt syndrome: _______
  5. Post Herpetic Neuralgia: _______
A
  1. Chicken Pox: symptomatic treatment
  2. Shingles: Acyclovir, Va/acyclovir, Famciclovir (given w/in 72 hours to prevent PHN)
  3. HZO: PO antivirals; May add Trifluridine, Acyclovir or Vidarabine ophthalmic
  4. Ramsay Hunt syndrome: oral Acyclovir + corticosteroids
  5. PHN: Gabapentin or Tricyclic antidepressants, Topical (Lidocaine gel, Capsaicin)
72
Q

What would classic miliary TB look like on CXR?

A

Diffuse millet seed size infiltrates throughout the lung fields

73
Q

How is varicella zoster spread?

A

respiratory droplets and direct contact

74
Q

High risk populations for TB include those with:

A

high risk of exposure (health care workers)

high risk of infection (immigrants, homeless)

high risk of active TB once infected (immunocompromised)

75
Q

How do you dx a pt with mono?

Within what timeframe will this test be positive?

What will be seen on a peripheral smear?

A

Heterophile (Mono) Ab Test {monospot}

Postive within 4 weeks

Peripheral smear: Atypical lymphocytes

76
Q

What is the recommended management for HSV?

A

Acyclovir (IV for encephalitis)

Valacyclovir, Famciclovir

77
Q

What two conditions are caused primarily by coxsackie A?

Coxsackie B?

A

A: Hand foot and mouth disease, Herpangina

B: Pericarditis and myocarditis, pleurodynia

78
Q

What are Forcheimer spots? What other exanthem are they typically present in?

A

Forchheimer spots: small red macules or petechiae on soft palate –> also seen in Scarlet fever)

79
Q

What time of year and in what age group does coxsackie virus usually occur in?

How is coxsackie virus transmitted?

What are the different types of coxsackie virus?

A

Late summer/early fall

children <5 y/o

Feco-oral and oral-orally

Coxsackie A and B

80
Q

Pertussis, or whooping cough, is caused by what infectious agent?

A

Bordetella pertussis

81
Q

Describe the potential complications that could occur if a pt is pregnant and contracts rubella.

A

Teratogenic esp 1st trimester

Congenital syndrome –> sensorineural deafness, cataracts, TTP (“blueberry muffin rash”), mental retardation, heart defects

(part of the TORCH syndrome)

(T)oxoplasmosis, (O)ther Agents, (R)ubella (also known as German Measles), (C)ytomegalovirus, and (H)erpes Simplex.

82
Q

What is the recommended management of coxsackie A?

A

Supportive

83
Q

How to tx a pt with mono?

When to use corticosteroids?

What to recommend if +splenomegaly?

A

Supportive!

Corticosteroids only used if there is airway obstruction from lymphadenopathy

Avoid contact sports x1+ month if splenomegaly is present

84
Q

Bell palsy is associated with HSV (1/2)

A

1

85
Q

What infectious organism is mumps caused by?

How is it transmitted? What is the incubation period?

What time of year is mumps most commonly diagnosed?

A

Paramyxovirus

Transmission: respiratory droplets

12-14d IP

Increased incidence in the spring

Patients are usually infectious 48 hours prior to and 9 days after the onset of parotid swelling

86
Q

What family is influenza virus a part of?

A

Orthomyxovirus

87
Q

Herpes labialis is a secondary infection caused most often by HSV (1/2). It results in a ____ ____, usually following a periord of _____ or illness

A

1

cold sore

stress

88
Q

How is rubeola/measles transmitted?

What infectious agent is it caused by?

A

Transmission: respiratory droplets, person-person, airborne

Paramyxovirus

89
Q

Extra-pulmonary TB can affect what organ systems?

If a patient has vertebral TB, it is called ____ disease.

If TB presents in the lymph nodes it is called _____.

A

ANY ORGAN SYSTEM

Pott’s disease

Scrofula

TB meningitis, pericarditis, peritonitis, joints, kidney, adrenal or cutaneous involvement

90
Q

What is the most common cause of encephalitis?

A

HSV

91
Q

What is the clinical presentation of HSV?

Can HSV 1 and HSV 2 interchange?

A

Painful, grouped vesicles on an erythematous base

YES, oral (HHV 1) and genital (HHV 2) can be interchanged

92
Q

What are the infectious dz that are associated with arthropathy?

A

Erythema Infectiosum (in older adults)

Rubella (especially in young women)

Coccidiomycosis (Valley fever also associated with erythema nodosum)

93
Q

Herpes keratitis is usually (unilateral/bilaterl)

Upon examination with a slit lamp, one will see ____ _____

Management?

A

unilateral

dendritic ulcers

Antiviral eye drops (ex. Trijluridine, Vidarabine, Ganciclovir) and/or oral Acyclovir

94
Q

Coxsackie virus is a part of the _____ family

A

enterovirus

95
Q

Describe the presentation of herpangina.

Who is herpangina most commonly diagnosed in?

A

Sudden onset of high fevers, stomatitis: small vesicles on the soft palate, uvula & tonsillar pillars that ulcerate before healing, sore throat 3-5 days.

Most commonly seen in children 3-l0 y/o

96
Q

Diagnosis of influenza?

A

Clinical

Rapid influenza test (nasal swab)

97
Q

What is the most common viral cause of pericarditis and myocarditis?

A

Coxsackie (B>A)

98
Q

What would classic reactivation TB look like on CXR?

A

Infiltrates and cavitation in the upper lobe/apices

99
Q

Acute herpetic pharyngotonsillitis is a primary infeciton in (children/adults) with vesicles that (do/do not) rupture, with ulcerative lesions with __(color)__ exudates in the (anterior/posterior) pharyngeal mucosa

A

adults

do rupture

grayish

posterior

100
Q

What would classic primary TB look like on CXR?

A

Lower lobe consolidation, right sided hilar consolidation also seen here:

101
Q

PVB19 may cause ______ in patients with sickle cell disease or with ____ deficiency

A

Aplastic crisis (a temporary cessation of RBC production; b/c of markedly shortened RBC survival time in patients with sickle cell dz, a precipitous drop in hgb occurs in the absence of adequate reticulocytosis)

G6PD

102
Q

T/F: Treatment of latent TB infection reduces risk of reactivation TB in the future

A

True!

103
Q

On CBC with Diff, what is the finding in a patient with pertussis?

A

Lymphocytosis (60-80%)

Elevated WBC count (50,000)

104
Q

What is another name for Sixth’s Disease?

What is it caused by?

How is it transmitted?

A

Roseola Infantum

Human herpes virus 6 or 7

Respiratory droplets

105
Q

What is 5th disease otherwise known as?

A

Erythema infectiosum

106
Q

PPD testing for TB:

Is + vs - based off of erythema or induration?

In what kinds of pts would >=5mm be considered a + test?

In what kinds of pts would >=10mm be considered a + test?

In what kinds of pts would >=15mm be considered a + test?

A

INDURATION

5: Immunosuppressed/HIV
10: High risk/prevalence populations
15: Everyone else

107
Q

Primary TB infections:

Pts (are/are not) contagious

Common in (children/teens/adults) in endemic areas

A

ARE CONTAGIOUS

children <4 y/o

108
Q

How do you dx a pt with 5th disease/ erythema infectiosum?

A

serologies

109
Q

How is 5th disease/ erythema infectiosum transmitted?

In what age group is 5th disease/ erythema infectiosum most commonly seen in?

What is 5th disease/ erythema infectiosum’s incubation period?

A

Respiratory droplets

<10 y/o

4-14 day incubation period

110
Q

HERPES ZOSTER (aka _______) is the VZV reactivation along one _______ of the dormant virus in the spinal root & _____ _____ ganglia

± Disseminated in pts with _____

A

Shingles

dermatome

cranial nerve

HIV