Psych/Soc 3 & 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between self-concept and self-consciousness?

A

self-consciousness is merely awareness of oneself, self concept is the sum of an individual’s knowledge and understanding of his-herself. e.g. female, student, white, smart, future doctor, funny, etc

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2
Q

self-schema

A

long lasting and stable set of memories that summarize a person’s beliefs, experiences and generalizations about the self,

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3
Q

personal identity vs social identity

A

personal: one’s own sense of personal attributes e.g. smart, funny social: social definitions of who you are e.g. race, religion, gender, occupation, etc

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4
Q

t/f: the “self” is a personal and social construction of beliefs

A

True

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5
Q

Describe the features of the ADDRESSING framework

A
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6
Q

self-reference effect

A

the tendency to better remember information relevant to ourselves

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7
Q

what happens more readily? internalizing an event that runs contrary to self concept or externalizing the event?

A

externalizing: allows us to attribute that thing to an outside factor, thereby protecting our self-concept.

if we internalize it, we are going to have to adjust our self-concept

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8
Q

what are the 3 factors that impact an individuals self concept

A
  1. self efficacy: a belief in one’s own competence and effectiveness
  2. locus of control: whether you believe you are able to influence outcomes through your own efforts and actions
    • internal locus of control: belief that you are
    • external locus of control: belief that outcomes are controlled by outside forces: can lead to learned helplessness
  3. self-esteem: one’s overall self-evaluation of one’s self-worth. related to self-efficacy in that if you are effective at an area that you value, your self-esteem will increase
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9
Q

learned helplessness

A

when a person either has or acts like they lack of control over outcomes for long enough that they exhibit lack of action in other areas even when they have control over that situation

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10
Q

What is the looking glass self

A

the theory that a persons’s sense of self develops from interpersonal interactions such that self concepts are based on their understanding of how others percieve them.

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11
Q

social behaviorism

A

the idea that the mind and self emerge through the process of communicating with others

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12
Q

socialization

A

the process through which people learn (or teach others) to be proficient and functional members of society. It is a lifelong process

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13
Q

social sanctions

A

rewards or punishments for behaviors that are in accord with or against norms

e.g. a disapproving look by a stranger

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14
Q

what’s the difference between norms and mores

A

mores are just more important norms because they are highly important for the benefit of society and are often strictly enforced

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15
Q

folkways

A

are norms that are less important than mores but shape everyday behavior

e.g. ways of greeting

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16
Q

taboo

A

behaviors that customs forbid, may be punishable or not but always elicit disgust for the violator

e.g. cannibalism

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17
Q

anomie

A

“normlessness”

the condition in which individuals are not provided with firm guidelines in relation to norms and vlaues and there is minimal moral guidance or social ethic.

theory was developed by Emilie Durkheim

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18
Q

anomie is more likely to occur in a society where__________________ predominates

A

individualism and autonomy

(even at the expense of the greater social order.)

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19
Q

antinormative behavior (aka non-normative behavior)

A

when individuals do not conform to the expectations implicit in social structures. This is a form of deviance

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20
Q

what is wrong with the label of deviant?

A

it is a social construct and is therefore not free of error. deviance is dependent on context and culture

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21
Q

differential association

A

D for Deviant

a perspective that argues that deviance is a learned behavior resulting from interactions between individuals and their communities. deviance relies on learning the techniques and rationalizations of deviant behaviors from close personal groups:

according to the theory: individuals become deviant when their contacts with favorable atituteds towards deviance outweight their contacts with unfavorable attitudes

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22
Q

labeling theory

A

a perspective that views deviance as a social construct and that the label of “deviant” we put on people increase that person’s deviant behavior. assumes the act in itself is not deviant.

within this view, labels are internalized and can cause people to exhibit the behavior prescribed by their label and have self-fulfilling prophecies/stereotype threat

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23
Q

agents of social control

A

groups that have the power to attach stigmas to certain behaviors, typically the power groups and majorities

e.g. men in business attaching labels to working moms

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24
Q

stereotype threat

A

when people are or feel themselves to be at risk of conforming to stereotypes about their social group.

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25
Q

structural strain theory

A

the perspective that states that deviance is a result of experiencing social strain in which there is a mismatch between the common scoial goals and the institutionalized means of obtaining these goals, causing pressure to use deviant means to avoid failure

e.g. someone born in a lower class my resort to drug-dealing to support herself

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26
Q

social institutions include all of the following EXCEPT:

  1. social networks
  2. families
  3. schools
  4. churches
A

A: social networks

because a social institution is a group of people with a shared purpose or origin but a network is not a group of people (they don’t all know eachother)

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27
Q

Which of the following is not a macro theory of sociology

  1. functionalism
  2. conflict theory

3 feminist theory

4 symbolic interactionism

A

4 symbolic interactionism

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28
Q

how is power defined?

A

the ability to implement one’s decisions despite opposition

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29
Q

collective behavior

A

describes the actions of people operating as a short-lived group. Collective behavior arises in spontaneous situations that may cause an individual to engage in an action that is otherwise socially unacceptable (unlike group behavior) In collective behavior, norms and mores are unclear, but this behavior can also be harmless actions like following a fad. Whether good or bad actions are a result, all collective bahavior is characterized by loss of the individual judgment in exchange for sense of the group.

It takes on 4 forms: crowds, publics, massess and social movements

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30
Q

Crowd vs public vs masses

A

crowd= a group that shares a purpose and can exchibit panic or mob behavior.

public = a group of individuals discussing a single issue. It begins when the discussion begins and ends when it ends.

Masses=a group whose formation is prompted through the efforts of mass media. Masses consist of large number of people who may or may not be in close proximity but still share common insterests

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31
Q

what is a social movement and what are the 2 subgroups

A

social movement is a kind of collective behavior scenario in which there is an intention of promoting change.

2 types:

  1. active movements which attempt to foster social change
  2. expressive moveemnts which attempt to foster individual change e.g. support groups
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32
Q

mass hysteria is an example of what kind of behavor?

A

collective behavior

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33
Q

agents of socialization

A

something that influences our lives and development of culture over time: family, school, peer groups, workplace, religion/government, mass media/technology

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34
Q

cultural assimilation

A

the process in which an individual forsakes aspects of his or her own cultural tradition to adopt those of a different culture, usually this is a member of a minority attempting to conform to the culture of the dominant group.

This usually produces greater social integration and inclusion, BUT when it is forced assimilation, you get the opposite effect, more exclusion

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35
Q

amalgamation vs assimilation

A

amalgamation occurs when a majority and minority group combine to forma a new group with a unique cultural identity.

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36
Q

what is multiculturalism

A

a perspective that endorses equal standing for all cultural traditions. It promotes the ide of cultures coming together in a true melting pot rather than in a hierarchy.

it is under debate as to whether it empowers minorities or encourages segregation

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37
Q

What are the stages in Kohlberg’s stages of moral development?

A

mnemonic: “we’re motivated to be nice so St. Nicholas doesn’t give us KOHL for christmas” This list is about the differences in intrinsic motivation for morality over the lifespan

  1. obedience and punishment orientation
    • “how can I avoid punishment?”
  2. self-interest orientation
    • “what’s in it for me?”
  3. conformity and interpersonal accord
    • “what will make others like me?”
  4. social order and authority orientation
    • “what am I supposed to do?”
  5. social contract orientation
    • “the greatest good for the greatest number of people”
  6. ethics: universal ethical principles (some people never reach this stage)
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38
Q

attribution theory

A

attempts to explain how individuals view their own and others’ behavior as being attributable to external causes (situational attribution) or internal causes (dispositional attribution)

3 factors influence this attribution:

  1. consistency: if the action is consistent with previous behavior for that individual, you would assign dispositional influence, if not, then situational
  2. Distinctiveness: if the same behavior is displayed to everyone rather than benig distinct to just one person, then you would assign dispositional influence, if not, then situational
  3. Consensus: if only that one person is angry rather than a group of people being angry, then you would assign dispositional influence, if not, then situational
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39
Q

fundemental attribution error

A

<strong>Subgroup of Attributional Biases Category</strong>

when we tend to underestimate the impact of the situation and overestimate the impact of a person’s character or personality

e.g. we are more likely to say that a driver who cuts us off is a jerk (personality/internal) rather than assigning his behavior to an external factor such as she’s rushing to see her dying mother

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40
Q

actor-observer bias

A

<strong>Subgroup of Attributional Biases Category</strong>

the tendency to attribute external forces to our actions and behaviors but internal forces to the actions and behavior of others.

e.g. when I cut someone off, I had a good reason, unlike everyone else

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41
Q

self-serving bias

A

<strong>Subgroup of Attributional Biases Category</strong>

Mnemonic: S for successes/failures - related to actor observer bias, but is more related to outcomes (ie successes and failures)

def: the tendency to attribute successes to ourselves and our failures to others or external forces.

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42
Q

Optimism bias

A

<strong>Subgroup of Attributional Biases Category</strong>

the belief that bad things happen to other people, not us

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43
Q

Just world phenomenon (aka just world hypothesis or just world belief)

A

<strong>Subgroup of Attributional Biases Category</strong>

the tendency to believe that the world is fair and people get what they deserve. So when something bad happens to a person, we assume it’s because of something they did rather than accepting that good things happen to bad people

e.g. “Karma will come back around”

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44
Q

halo effect

A

tendency to believe that people have inherently good or bad natures rather than looking at individual characteristics.

e.g. he’s nice so he must be a good dad

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45
Q

physical attractiveness stereotype

A

a specific type of halo effect. Describes how people tend to rate attractive individuals more favorably on personality traits and trustworthiness

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46
Q

What’s an example of how culture affects attributional biases?

A

Western cultures tend to endorse individualistic attitudes and causes them to err on the side of internal attributions

Eastern cultures tend to err on the side of external attributions which causes them to see a situation very differently. (e.g. they would blame insider trading on the company to which the individual belongs rather than on the individual themselves)

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47
Q

social perception

A

the process whereby we try to understand others in our social world. It uses the information we selectively process about other people in order to understand their mindsets and intentions and allow us to predict a range of social phenomenon

different from social cognition the same way that perception of sensation differs from thinking about that perception

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48
Q

social cognition

A

different from social perception in that it refers to the ability of the brain to store and process information regarding social perception (it’s at a more meta level)

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49
Q

false consensus

A

when we assume that everyone else agrees with what we do even when they may not

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50
Q

projection bias

A

when we assume that everyone has th same beliefs as us

it occurs because we have a tendency to look for similarities between people

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51
Q

prejudice

A

thoughts, attitudes, and feelings someone holds about a group that are not based on actual experience

e.g. an employer reading more resumes with white sounding names than black without being consciously aware of it

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52
Q

diff between prejudice and discrimintation ?

A

prejudice is a sentiment discrimination is an action

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53
Q

institutonal discrimination

A

unjust and discriminatory practices employed by a large organization that has been codified into operating procedures or institutional objectives

e.g. dont’ ask don’t tell policy

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54
Q

How does emotion play a role in prejudice

A

prejudice can be coming from a place of fear or frustration, which are emotions. The effect can be:

  1. the tendency to direct that hostility at someone leading to forming scapegoats
  2. or the activation of self-inhibition
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55
Q

scapegoat

A

a person at whom displaced aggression is directed

e.g. blaming the impoverished for an economic collapse or blaming the Jews for economic struggles preceding WW2

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56
Q

How does cognition play a role in prejudice?

A

cognition, in the form of information processing, conributes to bias in that we create conceptual categories (often formed in part by socialization and/or upbrining) in order to categorize and organize data based on similarities or differences; its an automatic shortcut that our brains like to take. When the conceptualization is based on similarity this can lead to stereotypes as well as the thinking that one member of a group is representative of that group.

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57
Q

ethnocentrism

A

when you judge people from another culture by the standards of one’s own culture

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58
Q

cultural relativism

A

judging another culture by its own standards

this can be difficult to do especially when that culture clashes with one’s own

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59
Q

group

A

a group is a collection of any number of individuals as few as 2 (called a dyad) who regularly interact and identify with eachother, share similar norms, values and expectations

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60
Q

primary vs secondary group

A

Primary: a group with whom an individualengages with in person and long-term. Serves expressive functions, meaning that it meets emotional needs. e.g. family

Secondary: a group wtih whom an individual engages with for more specific reasons and for shorter periods of time. They serve instrumental functinos, meaning, they meet pragmatic needs. e.g. study group

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61
Q

in group

A

a group that an individual belongs to and believes to be an integral part of who they are.

subgroup of both primary and secondary groups

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62
Q

outgroup

A

group to which you don’t belong

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63
Q

reference group

A

a group that serves as a standard measure to which you compare yourself.

e.g. your peers who are also studying for the MCAT… whether or not you are in an ingroup with them or not.

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64
Q

What is it called when people share the same space with others but are not part of a group with them

A

aggregate

(there can still be groups within an aggregate, for example if your group is studying in a coffeeshop, the people in the coffee shop form an aggregate but you are still a group)

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65
Q

bureaucracy

A

an administrative body with members at different levels with different tasks, and the processes by which this body accomplishes its tasks.

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66
Q

McDonaldization

A

the process by which the principles of the fast-food restaurant such as rationalizing a task into its component parts, are coming to dominate more and more sectors of American society.

The net effect is:

  • efficiency
  • calculability (assessing performance through output quantity or speed)
  • predictability
  • control (automation where possible)
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67
Q

iron rule/law of oligarchy

A

describes the paradoxical feature of bureaucracies that as they become more complex, they will inevitably become less revolutionary and less capable of adapting. This is because they are predicated on policies/procedures which are the antithesis of adaptation.

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68
Q

Does the mere presence of others have an effect on people’s performance?

A

Yes.

People tend to perform simple, well-learned tasks better when other people are present.

People tend to perform complex or novel tasks more poorly when others are present

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69
Q

What is the Social Facilitation effect?

A

Descibres how people tend to perform differently because of the mere presence of others.

Simple, well-learned tasks better when other people are present.

People tend to perform complex or novel tasks more poorly when others are present

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70
Q

deindividuation

A

when people lose their individual identity in exchange for identifying with a group. Is the result of disconnect between behavior and attitudes, usually stemming from lack of self-awareness

The conditions for deindividuation to occur:

  1. group size “lost in the crowd” feel
  2. physical anonymity
  3. arousing activities (ie escalating from a small start)
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71
Q

T/F: factors that reduce self-awareness increase a sense of deindividuation

A

TRUE

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72
Q

bystander effect

A

describes how a person is less likely to provide help/intervene in a situation whn there are bystanders

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73
Q

forced assimilation

A

the process in which an individual or group is forced to forsake aspects of his or her own cultural tradition to adopt those of a different culture but in such a way that it does not lead to increased inclusion, but rather exclusion

This usually produces greater social integration and inclusion, BUT when it is forced assimilation, you get the opposite effect, more exclusion

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74
Q

social loafing

A

describes how a person is less likely to work hard on a project, the more people there are working on that project. (less effort when evaluated as a gorup)

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75
Q

group polarization

A

the tendency for the viewpoints in a group to get stronger upon interacting with others in that group

*does not indivate that the group gets more divided necessarily

group polarization occurs as a result of:

  1. informational influence: when the most common ideas to emerge are the ones that favor the dominant viewpoint which gives everyone in the group to researse a viewpoint that is in accord with what was just said
  2. normative influence: when you want to be socially desireable so you expound on a view so that you can identify with a group more closely and be admireed.
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76
Q

informational influence aka informational social influence

A

when the most common ideas to emerge are the ones that favor the dominant viewpoint which gives everyone in the group to researse a viewpoint that is in accord with what was just said

compliance when we think others “know something I don’t know”

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77
Q

normative influence aka normative social influence

A

when you want to be socially desireable so you expound on a view so that you can identify with a group more closely and be admireed.

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78
Q

groupthink

A

the tendency for people to not bring up dissenting opinions in an effort to not rock the boat

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79
Q

T/F: Deviance is always bad

A

False, some deviance is good

e.g. rosa parks

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80
Q

what are the 3 ways behavior may be motivated by social influences

A
  1. compliance: motivated by punishment or reward
  2. identification: motivated by the desire to be like another person or group
  3. internalization: motivated by values and beliefs that have been integrated into a person’s value system
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81
Q

status

A

a term that refers to any socially defined position in a society, whether ascribed or achieved

e.g. wife, student, doctor, disabled, resident of california, black

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82
Q

Master Status

A

the status that dominates over the other statuses for a given individual and determines that person’s position in society

e.g. being a doctor or professional football player

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83
Q

what are the 3 components to attitudes?

A

ABCs

affect (feelings)

behavioral inclinations

cognition (beliefs)

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84
Q

role conflict vs role strain

A

role conflict: conflict in society’s expectations for multiple statuses held by the same person

e.g. male nurse

role strain: the conflicting expectations of a single status

e.g. be a good student but don’t be a know it all

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85
Q

social network

A

a web of social relationships

can be:

  1. those in which a person is directly linked to others
  2. those in which people are indirectly connected through others.

Social network theory states that there is great power in weak tie, e.g. someone is more likely to get a job from an acquaintance than a close friend

86
Q

What are the types of organizations

aka formal organizations

A
  1. Utilitarian: people get paid to be a part, e,g a business
  2. Normative: people join and stay because of morally relevant goals e.g AA group
  3. Coercive organizations: members do not have a choice in joining or staying e.g. prison
87
Q

self-handicapping

A

a strategy in which people create obstacles and excuses to avoid self blame when they do poorly.

e.g. not studying for a test so that you and others will blame your poor grade on external circumstances rather than raw intelligence (which is a characteristics that is pesumably more important to the individual).

88
Q

dramaturgical perspective

A

the theory (stemming from symbolic interactionism) that we imagine ourselves playing certain roles when iteracting with others. Our identities are not fixed, but are dependent on our interactions with others

interaction is either:

1. front stage: we play a role and use impression management to craft the way we come across to other people. e.g. how you dress and act at work.

2. back stage: we can led down our guard and be ourselves. e.g. how you act and dress at home

89
Q

T/F: aggression is more likely to occur in situations in which prior experience has led to aggression

A

true

90
Q

T/F frustrating stimuli can lead to aggression

A

True, known as the frustratoin/aggression principle

91
Q

social support

A

family support.

Has major effect on health outcomes

92
Q

game theory

A

an evolutionary theory used to predict large complex systems such as overall behavior of a population.

e.g. using game theory to predict how a crowd might behave in an enclosed space in a disaster

93
Q

what is the difference, according to George Mead, between the “I” and the “me”

A

Me= social self, awareness of what society thinks, the observed. The “me” has the power to influence how the “I” acts in social situations.

I= the observer, contemplates what the me brings to it using value system

94
Q

inclusive fitness

A

defined by the number of offspring an organism has and how it supports its offspring

95
Q

Infants have reflexes, of which there are 7. They are:

A
  1. Moro (startle) - lasting 6 months
  2. Rooting (in response to cheek touch baby will open mouth for nipple)
  3. sucking - in response to anything touching roof of mouth, baby will begin to suck
  4. Babinski reflex: in response to the sole of foot being touched, baby will move toes up and fanned
  5. Tonic Neck - inresponse to its head being turned, baby will reach same side arm out and opposite side arm bends up at elbow
  6. Palmar grasp - in response to stroking the baby’s palm, baby’s hand will grasp
  7. Walking/stepping- in response to the soles of a baby’s feet touching a flat surfacem they will attempt to walk by placing one foot in front of the other.
96
Q

What are the 5 stages of motor development?

A

0-1 years: Reflexive

0-2: Rudimentary

2-7: fundamental

7-14: specialized movement

14+: Application of Movement

97
Q

reflexive movements in babies are those which

A

serve to prime the neuromuscular system for more sophisticated movement to come

98
Q

Rudimentary Movements (child development)

A

are the first voluntary movements such as rolling, sitting, crawling, standing, walking

99
Q

The fundamental movement stage of childhood development

A

one in which the child is learning to manipulate his or her body through actions such as running, jumping, throwing. Highly influenced by environment, more so than others

100
Q

specialized movement stage

A

child learns to combine the fundamental movements and starts to apply specific tasks.

101
Q

application of movement stage

A

begins in adolescence and continues through adulthood: movements are refined and applied to normal daily activities

102
Q

infantile amnesia

A

period from birth to 3.5 years in which we do not have conscious memories although we still use memoring to learn

103
Q

Stranger anxiety occurs at ? months, whereas separation anxiety occurs at ? months

A

7-12 months

12

104
Q

stranger anxiety in babies occurs because

A

babies have developed schemas for familiar faces and when a new face doesn’t fit that schema, they get upset.

105
Q

Which of the following is true regarding Stanley Milgram’s obedience experiments and Solomon Asch’s conformity experiments?

A

B. Stanley Milgram’s famous obedience experiment tested the effects of an authority figure on an individual’s behavior with a cleverly devised study that duped the subject into believing that he was administering real electric shocks to another individual while an authority figure urged him to continue on, even when he expressed concern. Solomon Asch’s famous conformity experiment tested the effects of peer pressure on behavior with a study where subjects were asked to select a specific line out of a set in the presence of others who all picked the wrong answer. Item I is true: Both experiments used confederates to create deception in their studies (choice C can be eliminated). Item II is true: Both experiments were testing how the presence of others has an impact on individual behavior (choice A can be eliminated). Item III is false: While Milgram was interested in examining the impact of obedience to authority on behavior, Asch was interested in examining the influence of conformity on behavior (choice D can be eliminated; choice B is correct).

106
Q

homophily

A

Homophily is the tendency of individuals to associate and bond with others similar to themselves.

107
Q

heterophily

A

Heterophily (the opposite of homophily) is the tendency of individuals to collect in diverse groups.

108
Q

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

A
109
Q

serial position effect

A

Short-term memory is more likely to retain pieces of information from the beginning and end of a list. This phenomenon is called the serial position effect.

don’t confuse with recency and primacy effect

110
Q

anterograde memory

A

memory of events after an event like a stroke ie new memories

*anterograde amnesia is inability to form new memories

111
Q

retrograde memory

A

refers to memories before an event

112
Q

ambient stressor

A

Ambient stressors are those chronic environmental stressors that cannot be changed (or are perceived as unchangeable) by the efforts of the individual subject to them. Things like the economy and climate change would be examples of ambient stressors.

113
Q

acute stressor

A

An acute stressor is one that is present over a short period of time. This does not apply to a persistent issue like the state of the economy.

114
Q

mesolimbic pathway

A

aka reward pathway, is a pathway in the brain connecting the midbrain to the forebrain. It releases dopamine in response to rewarding stimuli, thus reinforcing behaviors that are perceived as pleasurable.

115
Q

aversive conditioning

A

Aversive conditioning is a behavioral conditioning technique in which noxious stimuli are associated with undesirable or unwanted behaviors. If this technique is successful, the individual reduces the frequency of the unwanted behavior.

116
Q

operant conditioning

A

In operant conditioning, extinction refers to the decline of an operant response when it is no longer reinforced. For example, a child who climbs onto a table, a response which has been reinforced by attention, is subsequently ignored until the attention-seeking behavior no longer occurs.

117
Q

psychoanalytic theory posits that:

A

personality is shaped by a person’s unconscious thoughts, feelings and memories in such a way that a person’s consious awareness plays a limited role compared to their unconscious

118
Q

Sigmund Freud was the founder of which theory

A

psychoanalytic theory

119
Q

according to Freud’s iteration of psychoanalytic theory, the 2 instinctual drives that motivate human behavior are:

A

libido (life force) - responsible for behaviors focused on survial, growth, creativity, pain avoidance and pleasure

death instinct - responsible for behaviors fueld by an unconscious wish to die or hurt others

120
Q

Freud: psychic energy is distributed among 3 personality components that function in concert. They are:

A
  1. “Id”: source of energy and instincts, largely unconscious
  2. “Ego”: ruled by logical thinking and exerts control ovr the id and consciousness. The ego tries to find realistic ways to satisfy the Id’s desires
  3. Superego: inhibits the id and influenzes the ego to follow morals and idealistic goals rather than just realistic. Motivated by feelings of pride (psychological rewards) and guilt (psychological punishments)
121
Q

according to Frued, anxiety is ?

A

a feeling that occurs when a person begins to become aware of repressed feelings memories or desires. To protect against this, we develop ego defense mechanisms

122
Q

The ego defense mechanism known as reaction formation is

A

expressing the opposite of what one really feels when it would feel too dangerous to express the real feeling

e.g. acting mean towards someone you are sexually attracted to

123
Q

The ego defense mechanism known as displacement is

A

redirecting aggressive or sexual impulses from a forbidden action or object onto a less dangerous one

e.g. going home and kicking your dog instead of punching your coworker

124
Q

The ego defense mechanism known as rationalization is

A

explaining and intellectually justifying one’s impulsive behavior

125
Q

The ego defense mechanism known as regression is

A

reverting to an earlier less sophisticated behavior in response to a trauma

126
Q

The ego defense mechanism known as sublimation is

A

channeling aggressive or sexual energy into positive, constructive activities such as producing art

127
Q

whereas Freud had a theory of developmental stages known as ___1___, Erikson had a theory of developmental stages known as _____2___

A
  1. psychosexual
  2. psychosocial
128
Q

Freud’s psychosexual stages have the mnemonic “Ooh, Aah, Please, Lick, my Genitals”

What are they?

A
  1. Oral: 0-1 yr
  2. Anal: 1-3 yrs
  3. Phallic: 3-6 yrs
  4. Latency: 6-12 yrs
  5. Genital: 12+
129
Q

what happen’s during Freud’s latency stage?

A

sexual interests subside and the individual pursues school, friends and sports

130
Q

Erikson’s psycosocial stages are described as 2 opposed inclinations e.g. A vs B. what are they?

A
  1. Infancy 0-1: Trust vs mistrust
  2. Early childhood 1-3: Autonomy vs doubt and shame
  3. Preschool age 3-6: Initiative vs guilt
  4. School age 6-12: industry vs inferiority
  5. Adolescence: 12-18: Identity vs role confusion
  6. Young adulthood 18-35: Intimacy vs isolation
  7. Middle age 35-60: generativity vs stagnation
  8. Later life 60+: integrity vs despair
131
Q

in contrast to the psychoanalytic theory, the humanistic theory focuses on

A

healthy personality development and relies on the idea that people are essenially good and are all essentially motivated by the actualizing tendency: the drive to maintain and enhance the organism

132
Q

As developed by Carl Rogers, humanistic theory posits that:

A

People choose actions that are consistent with their self-concepts and they feel incongruence if they experiences something that contradicts their self-concepts. In the developmental stages, a child will internalize (introject) caregivers’ values and take them on as their own self concept, despite the presence of the child’s unconscious true values, which still remain.

The discrepancy between conscious introjected values and unconscious true values is the root of psychopathology.

133
Q

the behavioristic perspective posits that

A

personality is a result of learned behavior patterns based on deterministic environmental conditioning: operant or classical.

*children begin as blank slates

134
Q

what’s the difference between operant and classical conditioning?

A

operant: an operant is a person’s action or behavior that operates on the environment and produces consequencecs that are either positive or negative reinforcements or punishments.

classical: (pavlovian): forming an association between two stimuli resulting in a learned response that was not present before e.g. developing a phobia

135
Q

What are the differences between positive vs negative reinforcement and positive vs negative punishment

A
136
Q

what are the 3 major therapy types?

A
137
Q

Maslow’s Hierarchy of needs

A
138
Q

trait theorists differentiate between ___ and ___ traits

A

source and surface

source: factors underlying human personality and behavior e/g/ exroversion and introversion (factor analysis has reduced the number of souce traits to 5 global factors)

surface: behavioral, adjectives for describing human behavior e,g, talkative vs quiet (factor analysis has reduced the number of possible surface traits to 16, called primary factors)

^ each source/global factor is paired with 4-5 surface/primary traits

139
Q

How do the global/primary trait model (by Cattell) and OCEAN model compare?

A
140
Q

what biological region could be responsible for differences in extroversion between people

A

reticular formation

because it mediates arousal and consciousness

141
Q

what biological region could be responsible for differences in neuroticism between people

A

limbic system because it mediates emotion and memory

142
Q

low dopamine activity corresponds with higher

  1. impulsivity
  2. risk avoidance
  3. approval seeking
A
  1. impulsivity
143
Q

Low norepinephrine activity corresponds to higher

  1. impulsivity
  2. risk avoidance
  3. approval seeking
A
  1. approval seeking
144
Q

low serotonin activity correlates with higher

  1. impulsivity
  2. risk avoidance
  3. approval seeking
A
  1. risk avoidance
145
Q

T/F: research suggests that people act with perfect consistency according to their personalities

A

False

personalities are consistent but behavior is not. Most often people moderate their behavior based on social cues

The average behavior of an individual is the best way to actually determine their personality

146
Q

T/F: Instict is learned

A

false. Instincts are behaviors that are unlearned and present in fixed patterns throughout a species (they represent the contribution of genes, hich predispose a certain species to particular behaviors)

147
Q

what are the 4 factors that influence motivation?

A
  1. instincts: unlearned pattern of behavior based on your species
  2. drives & negative feedback systems: drive = urge arising from a physiological discomfort
  3. arousal: motivation to be reach optimal level of arousal (intellectual and otherwise)
  4. needs: includes biologicacl needs but also need for higher order things like financial safety, belonging, or achievement
148
Q

Drive reduction theory

A

that we are motivated to reduce certain drives through behaviors

the drive is seen as a negative aroused state that moves an organism to reduce that state

e.g. hunger is a negative aroused state that moves us to resolve that drive by eating.

149
Q

incentive theory

A

external stimuli such as objects or events that are positive or negative, motivating us to act or not act

e.g. you get a job offer and the pay is better but the work hours are worse. These would pose positive and negative incentives, respectively

150
Q

what is the value of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

A
  1. it suggests accurately that not all needs are equal to a person
  2. it accounts for higher order needs such as self-actualization, which other theories don’t
151
Q

what structure is responsible for regulating body temp

A

hypothalamus

152
Q

example of how our behavior and negative feedback work in tandem to maintain homeostasis

A

heat → we stretch out to maximize surface area, shed layers of clothing and seek shade → these changes physiologically reduce body temp

153
Q

higher/lower levels or both higher and lower levels on maslows hierarchy are imacted by sociocultural differences

A

both higher and lower levels

154
Q

prevelence of psychological disorders in the US

A

1 in 4

155
Q

psychological disorder def

A

a set of behavioral or psychological symptoms that is not in keeping with social norms and that is severe enough to cause significant personal distress or impariment in social occupational or personal functioning.

diagnosis is based on:

  • symptom quantity and severity
  • impact on functioning
156
Q

Biopsychosocial approach

A

an approach that posits that there are 3 overlapping contributions to mental health although not every mental health problem is a result of an overlap of all 3 or even 2 at a time. These factors are:

  1. biological
  2. psychological
  3. sociocultural
157
Q
A
158
Q

psychoanalytic theory of personality and who were the theorists

A

that personality is shaped by a person’s unconscious thoughts, feelings, and memories, derived from past experiences

Major thinkers in this theory:

  1. Freud
    • 5 psychosexual stages
  2. Erik Erikson
    • 8 psychosocial stages
159
Q

what 2 instinctual drives motivate human behavior according to psychoanalytic theory?

A

death instinct: the unconscious wish to die or hurt others drives aggressive behaviors

libido instinct: life instince drives behaviors focused on survival, growth, creativity, pain avoidance and pleasure

160
Q

according to psychoanalysts, personality has what 3 components?

A

ego: controls consciousness and the id. The realistic one

superego: inhibits the id and influences the ego to follow moralistic and idealistic goals rather than just materialistic ones. seeks feelings of pride and self love and avoids feelings of guilt and inferiority

id: nearly all unconscious, the source of instincts and energy. Ruled by the pleasure principle and does not concern itself with morality

161
Q

Panic disorder

A

ANXIETY DISORDER

a perons has had at least one panic attack and is concerned about having more. attacks can be triggered but are more often unpredictable and spontaneous

162
Q

social anxiety disorder aka social phobia

A

ANXIETY DISORDER

an unreasonable feer of feeling embarrased while one is seen or watched by others, even while performing routine activities such as eating

163
Q

specific phobia

A

ANXIETY DISORDER

a persistent strong and unreasonable fear of certain object or situation.

Types: situational, natural, blood-injection-injury, animal

164
Q

in OCD, compulsions are

A

repeated physical or mental behaviors that are performed in response to an obsession or in accordance with a set of rules done in order to reduce anxiety, often done despite the person’s awarenes that it is unreasonable

165
Q

in OCD, obsessions are

A

repeated intrusive uncontrollable thoughts or impulses that cause distress or anxiety. Often the person knowns they are irrational but still responds through a compulsion

166
Q

Classical conditioning refers to learning as a result of pairing an unconditioned stimulus with a conditioned stimulus as in Pavlov’s dog

does the unconditioned stimulus have to be positive?

A

no, in fact, if it is, then that would probably be considered positive reinforcement

167
Q

the classical conditioning theory of spontaneous recovery refers to ?

A

a phenomenon that occurs when an animal/person will produce the conditioned response in response to the conditioned stimulus even after a period of both extinction and delay as follows:

In extinction, the conditioned stimulus is presented consistently without the unconditioned stimulus, and, eventually, the conditioned stimulus loses its excitatory power.

However, if, after a delay wherein the conditioned stimulus is not presented either, the conditioned stimulus is presented again, it will elicit the conditioned response.

168
Q

What are social schemas?

A

cognitive structures that guide the information processing of ideas about categories of social events and people. When a social schema is made more accessible through priming, it can be activated and used more quickly in a particular situation.

e.g. In a study, subjects’ social schemas regarding African Americans were made accessible by priming them with stereotypic African American trait words. This is evident by the control group subjects’ significantly faster categorization of African American photos after being primed with stereotypic trait words which is a cognitive phenomenon

169
Q

T/F: individuals afflicted with brain damage or a dementia, such as Alzheimer’s disease, often engage in confabulation in order to fill in the gaps left by lost memories.

A

true

170
Q

Feature-detection theory is what?

A

a theory of visual perception that proposes that different neurons fire in response to detecting different features; in other words, some neurons fire only in response to vertical lines or motion or contrast. Feature-detection theory cannot explain how verbal insight problems most likely activate the wrong set of internal representations because these problems are word-based and not image-based.

171
Q

What is the spreading activation model

A

it posits that the mind maintains networks of words that are associated with each other to varying degrees. When one word is activated, those words with the strongest associations to the activated word are also activated.

e.g. The way verbal insight problems use words that lead to incorrect activations is best explained by the spreading activation model

172
Q

hypervigilance commonly occurs with what type of psychological disorder?

A

PTSD

173
Q

acute stress disorder is different from PTSD how?

A

length of duration is less than 1 month

PTSD has to be occuring for a month at least in order to have a diagnosis

174
Q

somatic symptom disorder

A

a psychological disorder in which someone is distressed due to persistent physical symptoms that are not rooted in any pathophysiology

175
Q

what are the disorders related to somatic symptom disorder?

A
  1. illness anxiety disorder: distress is related more to fear of illness rather than actual physical symptoms (somatic aspect not central)
  2. conversion disorder: when an emotional disturbence converts to a physical symptom. e.g. blindness but with blink reflex intact
  3. factitious disorder: when someone falsifies evidence of a fabricated injury or illness (e.g. by self inflicted injury or inflicted on another) in order to substantiate the claim/feeling
176
Q

symptoms of Schizophrenia spectrum

A

delusions,

hallucinations,

disorganized thinking,

disorganized or abnormal motor behavior,

decreased emotional expressiveness,

lack of motivation,

decreased or absent speech

177
Q

T/F: dissociative identity disorder involves amnesia/loss of awareness for one or more of the personality states

A

true

178
Q

which psychological disorders have bases in biology, ie are nervous system disorders?

A

Schizophrenia

Depression

179
Q

what group of psychological disorders do the following belong to?

  1. delusional disorder
  2. brief psychotic disorder
  3. schizoaffective disorder
A

schizophrenia spectrum

180
Q

what are the types of depressive disorders?

A

major depressive disorder: when one has suffered more than one major depressive episode

persistent depressive disorder (aka dysthymic disorder or dysthymia): when someone experiences milder symptoms most days for at least 2 years without major depressive episode

premenstural dysphoric disorder: when the typical symptoms of major depressive episode are present but intesify before the onset of menses

181
Q

which of the two is both a psychotic disorder and a personality disorder:

schizotypal or schizoid

A

schizotypal

182
Q

a person who is irrational, withdrawn, cold and/or suspicious could most likely belong to which of the following groupings of personality disorders

  1. paranoid, schizoid, scizotypal
  2. antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic
  3. avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive
A
  1. paranoid, schizoid, scizotypal
183
Q

a person who is tense, anxious, and/or over-controlled could most likely belong to which of the following groupings of personality disorders?

  1. paranoid, schizoid, scizotypal
  2. antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic
  3. avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive
A
  1. avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive
184
Q

a person who is emotional, dramatic, attention-seeking, intense could most likely belong to which of the following groupings of personality disorders?

  1. paranoid, schizoid, scizotypal
  2. antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic
  3. avoidant, dependent, obsessive-compulsive
A
  1. antisocial, borderline, histrionic, narcissistic
185
Q

what characterizes obsessive-compulsive disorders?

A

a pattern of obsessive thoughts coupled with maladaptive behavioral compulsions. disorders in this category are:

  1. OCD,
  2. body dysmorphic disorder,
  3. hoarding disorder
186
Q

what characterizes somatic symptom disorders?

A

symptoms that cannot be explained by medical condition or drugs. disorders in this category are:

  1. somatic symptom disorder (proper)
  2. illness anxiety disorder
  3. conversion disorder
  4. factitious disorder (self imposed or by proxy)
187
Q

what characterizes bipolar related disorders

A

cyclic mood swings (manic followed by depressive followed by manic etc)

disorders in this category are:

  1. Bipolar I: at least 1 manic or mixed episode
  2. Bipolar II: manic phases less extreme and must have experienced 1+ major depressive episodes
  3. Cyclothymic disorder
188
Q

what characterizes psychotic disorders?

A

loss of contact with reality

disorders in this category are:

  1. schizophrenia (>6 months sxs)
  2. schizophreniform disorder (<6 months of sxs)
  3. schizoaffective disorder
  4. delusional disorder
  5. brief psychotic disorder: positive sxs only, <1 mo
189
Q

what characterizes dissociative disorders?

A

disruptions in memory, awareness, identity, or perception.

disorders in this category are:

  1. dissociative identity disorder: 2 distinct personalities
  2. dissociative amnesia
  3. depersonalization disorder: out of body experience
190
Q

dissociative amnesia is

A

episode of forgetting personal information or events usually because of trauma. usually the amnesia is localized to memories from one time period or occasion.

191
Q

T/F: dissociative disorders are also personality disorders

A

false

192
Q

what characterizes personality disorders?

A

enduring maladaptive patterns of behavior and cognition that departs from social norms.

disorders in this category are: (each with the suffix - <em><strong>personality disorder</strong></em>)

  1. paranoid
  2. schizoid
  3. schizotypal*
  4. antisocial
  5. borderline
  6. histrionic
  7. narcissistic
  8. avoidant
  9. dependent
  10. obsessive compulsive*

*cross-linked to other category in DSM

193
Q

difference between:

paranoid personality disorder

vs

generalized anxiety disorder or panic disorder

A

paranoid personality disorder: characterized by suspicion rather than fear

generalized anxiety disorder or panic disorder: characterized by excessive fear

194
Q

difference between OCD and OCPD

OCPD = obsessive compulsive personality disorder

A

even though they are cross linked in DSM,

OCD is characterized by true repetitive behavior and compulsions based on a sense of necessity

OCPD is characterized by obsesssive behavior that is more based on preference/tendency than necessity from the perspective of the individual

195
Q

histrionic personality disorder is

A

someone who strongly desires to be the center of attention. Other attributes:

  1. dramatic displays of emotion
  2. belief that one’s relationships are more intimate than they are
  3. may resort to seduction and changes in physical appearance to maintain attention
196
Q

borderline personality disorder is characterized by

A

enduring instability in impulse control and mood

197
Q

avoidant personality disorder vs antisocial personality disorder

A

avoidant personality disorder: feels inadequate or inferior and generallyl avoids interactions for fear of being unliked

antisocial personality disorder: someone with a history of serious abnormal behaviors such as aggression, deliberate illegal behavior, and/or lack of remorse for actions that hurt others. typically since age 15

198
Q

narcissistic personality disorder vs histrionic personality behavior

A

narcissistic: doesn’t necessarily want attention but feels overly self-important

histrionic: wants attention but does not necessarily feel overly self-important

199
Q

what hypotheses/evidence support the fact that Schizophrenia has a biological basis?

A
  1. genetic studies done on twins have shown that the other twin has a 50% chance of being schizophrenic if her twin was
  2. stress-diathesis theory: genetics can give a predisoposition to schizophrenia but stressors are what elicit the onset of the disease
  3. dopamine hypothesis: pathway for dopamine is overactive in people with schizophrenia
  4. decrease in size or activity of brain regions
200
Q

what hypotheses/evidence support the fact that depression has a biological basis?

A
  1. diminished functioning of neurotransmitter pathways for:

dopamine

serotonin

norepinephrine

201
Q

anterograde amnesia vs retrograde amnesia

A

anterograde: inability to form new memories

retrograde: degredation of past memories going from most recent → distant

202
Q

what is the biological basis for Alzheimer’s disease

A
  1. formation of plaques in tissue of the cortex
  2. abnormal activity of neurotransmitter acetylcholine in hippocampus
203
Q

which form(s) of memory loss are present in someone with Alzheimer’s disease?

anterograde

retrograde

both

A

both

204
Q

Parkinson’s disease is caused by

A

death of cells that generate dopamine in the basal ganglia and substantia nigra

205
Q

what’s the reasoning behind stem cell-based therapy to regenerate neurons in the central nervous system

A

stem cells have the capacity to differentiate into any of the cell types in the nervous system.

Evidence shows that neural stem cells can migrate and replace dying neurons in the CNS. This is promising for :

Huntingtons

Alzheimers

Parkinsons

MS

206
Q

ABCs of attitude

A

A: affect (emotion)

B: behavioral tendencies

C: cognition

207
Q

in what situations are attitudes most likely to predicit behavior?

A
  1. when social situations are reduced
  2. when general patterns rather than specific behaviors are observed <strong>principle of aggregation: attitude reflects our average behavioral tendency rather than each individual act</strong>
  3. when an attitude is specific to the behaviorrather than too generalized to provide predictive capacity
  4. when an individual has more time to self-reflect before acting
208
Q

in what ways can behavior affect attitudes rather than the normal other way around

A
  1. role playing: fake it till you make it, can be placed on you involuntarily or chosen.. either way the net effect is the same
  2. Public declaration.
  3. Justification of effort: you are more likely to feel strongly compelled to do something that you have already invested in (in terms of money, time, or emotion) *you can also use this tactic on others, called the foot in the door phenomenon
209
Q

cognitive dissonance theory

A

posits that when our attitudes and behavior don’t match, we experience unpleasant feeling of tension and take actions or adjust our attitudes so that attitudes and behaviors align in order to reduce the tension

210
Q
A