Infectious disease Flashcards

1
Q

endemic disease

A

sporadic in the community

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2
Q

epidemic

A

clusters of disease in an area or region with rapid spread

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3
Q

pandemic

A

excessive epidemic that crosses continents

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4
Q

what are three diseases responsible for past pandemics

A
  1. smallpox
  2. typhus
  3. influenza
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5
Q

what is the human metagenome

A

the human genome plus the DNA of the symbiotic microorganisms that live in humans

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6
Q

why is restoring a normal microbiome important?

what is one therapy that focuses on this concept?

A

normal microflora help crowd out or actively fight some pathogenic agents

fecal transplant in the case of c diff

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7
Q

what are infectious agents?

A

transmissable cause of disease

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8
Q

three types of microbe

A
  1. bacteria
  2. fungi
  3. unicellular eukaryotes
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9
Q

what are the three classifications of infectious agents (2 examples each)

A
  1. Eukaryotes (protists and fungi)
  2. prokaryotes (bacteria, mycoplasm)
  3. non-living (viruses, prions)
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10
Q

what is the simplest known infectious agent

A

prions

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11
Q

what do prions cause?

what are two diseases caused by prions

A

transmissable spongiform encephalopathy

creuztfeldt-jakob and BSE

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12
Q

how do viruses infect a host cell?

once insde the cell what will a virus do

A

receptors on the protein coat bind to cell receptors and either inject DNA into the cell or allow for passage of the whole virus

once inside the virus will replicate its genome to produce new viral apparati and assemble new viral particles

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13
Q

three diseases caused by RNA viruses

A
  1. influenza
  2. HIV
  3. Polio
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14
Q

three diseases caused by DNA viruses

A
  1. Herpes
  2. Hep B
  3. Adenovirus
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15
Q

four problematic viral pathogens (examples of diseases)

A
  1. Herpes (HHV)
  2. Hepatitis A/B/C etc
  3. influenza
  4. retroviruses (HIV)
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16
Q

what are four common viruses in the herpes family

A
  1. HSV 1
  2. varicella
  3. Epstein Barr
  4. Cytomegalovirus
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17
Q

what three divisions make up the prokaryote category of infectious agents

A
  1. Eubacteria
  2. small bacteria with no cell wall
  3. obligate intracellular bacteria
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18
Q

which type of prokaryote is most commonly a pathogen (examples)

A

eubacteria (staph, strep, e coli)

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19
Q

what is an example of a small bacteria with no cell wall

A

mycoplasm

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20
Q

what are two examples of obligate intracellular bacteria

A
  1. chlamydia
  2. rickettsia
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21
Q

in what three ways are eubacteria classified

A
  1. gram stain
  2. general shape
  3. oxygen requirement
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22
Q

three common shapes of eubacteria

A
  1. cocci
  2. bacilli
  3. spirochetes
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23
Q

are most pathogenic bacteria aerobic or anaerobic?

what are two examples of disease processes caused by anaerobes

A

aerobic

abcesses or necrosis from clostridium

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24
Q

who invented the gram stain?

what does it do

A

hans christian gram

it stains bacterial cell walls accoring to their structure

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25
Q

why are some bacteria gram positive and some gram negative

A

gram positve bacteria have a thick layer of peptidoglycan in their cell wall that holds crystal violet dye

gram negative have less peptidogylcan as well as an outer membrane that slows down dye absorption

26
Q

three examples of pathogen gram positive cocci

A
  1. staph aureus
  2. strep pyogenes
  3. entercoccus faecalis
27
Q

three examples of gram positve pathogen bacilli

A
  1. bacillus anthracis
  2. corynebacterium diphtheriae
  3. clostridium species
28
Q

two examples of gram negative pathogens

A
  1. neisseria gonorrhoeae
  2. neisseria meningitides
29
Q

three examples of gram negative bacilli

A
  1. E coli
  2. salmonella enterica
  3. klebsiella pneumonae
30
Q

two common origins of infection

A
  1. comminty aquired infections
  2. hospital acquired infections
31
Q

example of a pathogenic spirochete

A

treponema pallidum

32
Q

two examples of pathogenic mycobacterium

A
  1. mycobacterium tuberculosis
  2. mycobacterium leprae
33
Q

what does an acid fast stain do

A

removes the outer coating of mycolic acid from mycobacterium so they can be stained

34
Q

how is tuberculosis usually introduced?

where does it intially cause symptoms

A

aerosol particles or ingestion of infected milk

pulmonary or GI, depending on route

35
Q

T/F advanced TB can cause symptoms all over the body

A

true

36
Q

what percent of TB strains are drug resistant

A

10-15%

37
Q

T/F the mortality in multi-drug resistant TB is less than untreated TB due to treatment

A

false, resistant TB has a similar mortality rate despite treatment

38
Q

two types of protist pathogenic parasites

A

protozoans and helminths

39
Q

three common pathogenic protozoans

A
  1. giardia lambia
  2. trichomonas vaginalis
  3. plasmodium vivax
40
Q

what protozans are vulnerable to treatment from metronidazole

A
  1. amoebic dysentery
  2. giardia dysentery
  3. trichmonas
41
Q

what are two treatments for plasmodium infections

A
  1. chloroquine
  2. artemisinins
42
Q

four common pathogenic fungi

A
  1. candida albicans
  2. pneumocystis jirovecii
  3. histoplasma capsulatum
  4. cryptococcus neoformans
43
Q

what are four general pathologies associated with fungal infections (examples)

A
  1. skin infections
  2. pulmonary infections (pneumonia)
  3. CNS infections (meningitis, encephalitis)
  4. systemic
44
Q

common defintion of antibiotics

A

any substance that kills or inhibits the growth of other microorganisms

45
Q

what are two other uses for antibiotics

A
  1. cancer chemotherapy
  2. immune modulators
46
Q

four methods of antibiotic action

A
  1. cell wall inhibitors
  2. inhibition of protein synthesis
  3. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
  4. inhibitors of folate biosynthesis
47
Q

what are three antibiotics that inhibit cell wall formation

A
  1. penicillin
  2. cephalosporins
  3. vancomycin
48
Q

three antibiotic inhibitors of protein synthesis (example)

A
  1. tetracylines (tetracyline)
  2. macrolides (erythromycin)
  3. aminoglycosides (gentamycin)
49
Q

what class of antibiotic inhibits nucleic acid synthesis (example)

A

fluoroquinolones (cirpofloxacin)

50
Q

what is a class of antibiotic that inhibits folate biosynthesis (example)

A

sulfa (sulfonamide)

51
Q

T/F 20% of all bacteria causing hospital acquired infections are resistant to 1 or more antibiotic

A

false, >70%

52
Q

what type of infection is MRSA a common acronym for?

what would be a more appropriate title?

A

methicillin resistant staph aureus

multiple resistant staph aureus

53
Q

statistically, why is MRSA more serious that normal staph?

A
  1. 3x longer hosptial stay
  2. 3x cost of stay
  3. 5x increased mortality
54
Q

what four ways providers and patients have encouraged antibiotic resistance

A
  1. improper treatment
  2. improper dose or duration
  3. reliance on chemotherapy
  4. improper utilization of cultures and sensitivities
55
Q

how would a reliance on chemotherapy increase antibiotic resistance

A

relying on drugs to fight infections caused by abcesses or necrosis rather than removing the infectious material increases the length of treatment

56
Q

three drugs that are useful to treat herpes

A
  1. acyclovir
  2. famciclovir
  3. valaciclovir
57
Q

what are two effect drugs in treating hepatitis

A
  1. interferon
  2. ribavirin
58
Q

what are two drugs that are used to provide prophylactic treatment for the flu

A
  1. amantadine
  2. rimantadine
59
Q

what type of drugs are zanamivir and oseltamivir?

what are they used to treat

A

neuraminidase inbihitor antivirals

influenza

60
Q

six categories of drugs used to fight HIV

A
  1. nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  2. nucleotide inhibitors
  3. non-nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitors
  4. protease inhibitors
  5. fusion inhibitors
  6. integrase inhibitors
61
Q

two drugs used to fight systemic anti fungal infections

A
  1. amphotericin B
  2. fluconazole
62
Q

two drugs used to treat superficial fungal infections

A
  1. miconazole
  2. clotrimazole