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Dogs > BB Ch11b > Flashcards

BB Ch11b Flashcards

1
Q

Describe Giardia.

A

A binucleate flagellate protozoan.

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2
Q
  1. What causes the excystation of the Giardia cyst?
A

The pH change from the stomach (acid) to the duodenum (neutral).

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3
Q
  1. In the dog, what are the intestinal coccidia associated with enteropathy?
A
  1. Cystoisospora canis, C. ohioensis, C. burrosi, and C. neorivolta.
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4
Q
  1. True or False. Diarrhea, vomiting, dehydration, and lethargy are clinical signs of intestinal coccidia.
A

True, but most infections are subclinical

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5
Q
  1. How is coccidiosis transmitted?
A

By fecal-oral transmission or by indirect contact.

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6
Q
  1. What predisposing factors can cause illness in animals infected with coccidia?
A

Immunodeficiency, malnutrition, or concurrent disease.

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7
Q
  1. What is the most common ascarid of the dog?
A

Toxocara canis

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8
Q
  1. Name another ascarid that infects both dogs and cats.
A

Toxascaris leonina

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9
Q
  1. List the routes of transmission of T. canis.
A

Transplacental transmission (migration), transmammary transmission, (migration), fecal-oral transmission, and indirect transmission from an intermediate host.

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10
Q
  1. List complications of T. canis infection.
A
  1. Heavy worm burdens can result in intestinal obstruction, intestinal perforation, or intussusception. Lung migrations of larval worms can cause severe lung parenchymal damage and fatal pneumonia.
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11
Q
  1. What is the infective stage of T. canis?
A

3rd stage larva (L3).

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12
Q
  1. What are the 3 possible routes for larval migration after ingestion of infective T. canis eggs?
A
  1. Liver-lung migration
  2. Somatic tissue migration
  3. Intestinal wall migration
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13
Q
  1. What is the most common and pathogenic hookworm of the dog?
A

Ancylostoma caninum.

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14
Q
  1. What are the other hookworms found in dogs in the US?
A
  1. A. braziliense and Uncinaria stenocephala.
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15
Q
  1. What are the clinical signs associated with A. caninum infestation?
A
  1. Bloody diarrhea, anemia, lethargy, anorexia, dehydration, vomiting, and poor weight gain.
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16
Q
  1. True or False. Transplacental migration and transmammary migration does not occur with A. caninum.
A
  1. False. Transplacental migration and transmammary migration does occur with A. caninum.
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17
Q
  1. What is the prepatent period for A. caninum?
A

3 weeks

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18
Q
  1. What is the cause of the severe pathogenicity of A. caninum when compared to other hookworms?
A

It is the direct result of the consumption of blood and body fluids.

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19
Q
  1. In what breed is lymphocytic thyroiditis the major cause of hypothyroidism and appears to be familial?
A
  1. Beagle
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20
Q
  1. Hypothyroidism causes clinical signs in many organ systems. What metabolic, neurologic, and dermatologic abnormalities are seen with this disease?
A

Metabolic: Obesity, lethargy, cold intolerance, & constipation.

Neurologic: lameness, foot dragging, paresis.

Dermatologic: alopecia, hyperpigmentation, seborrhea, & pyoderma.

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21
Q
  1. What breeds of dogs seem to have an higher incidence of hypothyroidism as compared to other breeds?
A
  1. Doberman pinschers and golden retrievers.
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22
Q
  1. True or False. The measurement of serum T3 levels is a good indicator of hypothyroidism.
A
  1. False. The measurement of serum T3 levels is an unreliable indicator of hypothyroidism.
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23
Q
  1. How is hypothyroidism diagnosed?
A

Initiial screen of total T4 in dogs with clinical signs of dz - if total T4 is normal, hypothyroidism is unlikely

Follow up with free T4 + TSH +/- TgAA in suspect cases

Low free T4 +/- high TSH +/- high TgAA may warrant a trial of levothyroxine

Information updated from BB using IDEXX guide

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24
Q
  1. What is the treatment of choice for hypothyroidism?
A
  1. Sodium levothyroxine (L-thyroxine).
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25
Q
  1. What is obesity?
A
  1. Body weight 20-25% over the ideal.
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26
Q
  1. Which breeds of dogs appear to be predisposed to obesity?
A
  1. Labrador retriever, Cairn terrier, dachshunds, basset hounds, golden retrievers and cocker spaniels.
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27
Q
  1. What solutions are most often recommended for wound lavage?
A
  1. 0.05% chlorhexidine diacetate in water and 1% povidine-iodine in saline.
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28
Q
  1. In bite wounds, what bacteria presents a concern?
A
  1. Pasteurella multocida
29
Q
  1. What factors play a role in the development of decubital ulcers?
A
  1. Poor hygiene, self-trauma, low-protein diet, preexisting tissue damage, muscle wasting, inadequate bedding, and ill-fitting casts or bandages.
30
Q
  1. What are hygromas?
A
  1. Fluid filled sacs that develop as a result of repeated trauma over a bony prominence.
31
Q
  1. What area is more frequently affected by hygromas? What other areas have hygromas been reported?
A
  1. The area over the olecranon. The tuber calcis, greater tronchanter, and stifle.
32
Q
  1. Hygromas (are, are not) true cysts because they (have, lack) an epithelial lining.
A
  1. Hygromas are not true cysts because they lack an epithelial lining.
33
Q
  1. How are hygromas managed conservatively?
A
  1. By providing a padded cage surface and/or bandaging the elbow to relieve pressure at the point of the elbow.
34
Q
  1. What are the classic signs of septic shock?
A
  1. Decreased body temperature, pale mucous membranes and a prolonged capillary refill time.
35
Q
  1. What is eschar?
A
  1. A thick covering over deep burn wounds made of coagulated protein and desiccated tissue fluid.
36
Q
  1. List seven drugs that may cause problems when injected perivascularly.
A
  1. Pentobarbital, thiamylal, thiopental, thiacetarsemide, vincristine, vinblastine, and doxorubicin.
37
Q
  1. How are perivascular injections treated?
A
  1. Dilution of the drug with subcutaneous injections of saline, steroids infiltrated locally to reduce inflammation, topical application of DMSO.
38
Q
  1. What is the result of severe impairment of liver function?
A

Hepatic encephalopathy: ammonia, toxic amines, aromatic amino acids and short chain fatty acids accumulate in the blood and these compounds have toxic effects that result in a decrease in cerebral energy metabolism and a decrease in excitatory neurotransmitter synthesis.

39
Q
  1. What type of cells do lymphomas originate from?
A
  1. Lymphoreticular cells.
40
Q
  1. True or False. A viral etiology of lymphomas has been demonstrated in dogs.
A

False

41
Q
  1. __________ and __________ lymphomas account for most cases of canine lymphoma.
A
  1. Multicentric high grade and alimentary lymphomas account for most cases of canine lymphoma.
42
Q

What is the average survival time of dogs after diagnosis of LSA without treatment?

A
  1. 4-6 weeks.
43
Q
  1. What paraneoplastic syndrome is frequently associated with lymphoma?
A
  1. Hypercalcemia.
44
Q
  1. List 4 tumors of dogs usually classified in the fibrosarcoma group of tumors.
A
  1. Undifferentiated leiomyosarcoma, liposarcomas, malignant melanomas and malignant schwannomas.
45
Q
  1. Where are fibrosarcomas most commonly found?
A
  1. In the skin, subcutaneous tissues and oral cavity.
46
Q
  1. What are lipomas?
A
  1. Neoplasms of lipocytes and lipoblasts.
47
Q
  1. Lipomas are most commonly seen in what dogs with what signalment?
A
  1. Overweight female dogs.
48
Q
  1. What are histiocytomas?
A
  1. Benign skin growths that arise from the monocyte-macrophage cells in the skin.
49
Q
  1. What are the most commonly observed skin tumor of the dog?
A
  1. Neoplastic proliferations of mast cells.
50
Q
  1. True or False. Grade I mass cell tumors have the worse prognosis are well differentiated, while Grade III tumors have the best prognosis intermediately differentiated.
A
  1. False. Grade I mass cell tumors have the best prognosis are well differentiated. Grade II tumors are intermediately differentiated, while Grade III tumors have the worst prognosis and are anaplastic or undifferentiated.
51
Q
  1. What type of cells do hemangiosarcomas originate from?
A
  1. Endothelial cells.
52
Q
  1. Hemangiosarcomas most commonly arise from what 3 locations?
A
  1. The subcutis, the spleen and right atrium.
53
Q
  1. What breed of dog is most commonly affected by hemangiosarcomas?
A
  1. German shepherd
54
Q
  1. What are the differential diagnoses for transmissible venereal tumors?
A
  1. Lymphomas, histiocytomas, mast cell tumors and amelantotic melanomas.
55
Q
  1. What breed of dog has the highest incidence of thyroid carcinoma?
A
  1. Beagle.
56
Q
  1. What is the treatment of choice for thyroid carcinomas?
A

Surgery

57
Q
  1. What is a cataract?
A
  1. The opacification of the lens or lens capsule.
58
Q
  1. True or False. The ability to see the fundus during ophthalmoscopy persists with nuclear sclerosis, but is obstructed by a true cataract.
A

True

59
Q
  1. What causes the hyperplasia of the prostate gland in Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
A

BPH occurs in older intact male dogs because increased production of estrogens, combined with decreased secretion of androgens, sensitizes prostatic androgen receptors to dihydrotestosterone.

60
Q
  1. Systemic necrotizing vasculitis is seen in what disease?
A
  1. Juvenile polyartitis syndrome.
61
Q
  1. True or False. Interdigital cysts are true cysts.
A

False - chronic inflammatory lesion

62
Q

What is the most common complication of inestinal access ports?

A

Catheter infection

63
Q

What are the mediators of septic shock?

A

cytokines, endotoxins

64
Q

classic radiographic sign of aspiration lung injury

A

cranioventral lung fields - bronchioalveolar pattern

65
Q

primary etiology of radiation injury

A

formation of free oxygen radicals

66
Q

most common skin tumor of the dog

A

mast cell tumor

67
Q

cell origin of mast cell tumors

A

CD4+ lymphocytes

68
Q

Grades of mast cell tumors

A

Grade 1

Grade2

Grade 3 - most likely to disseminate to LN

Grade 4

69
Q

CTVT

A

Canine Transmissible Venereal Tumors

transmitted horizontally by coitus

histiocytic round cell tumor

around genitals, oral mm

spontaneous regresssion in 6-9 months

TX: vincristine weekly 4-6 weeks

Dogs (3 decks)

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