Spot Diagnosis Flashcards

1
Q

Neonatal Jaundice

A

G6PD deficiency

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2
Q

G6PD deficiency how would this present in a new born

A

Neonatal Jaundice

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3
Q

A 24 year old woman, 7 days’ postpartum, presents to her GP because she has noticed foul smelling vaginal discharge. She is feeling a little feverish and on examination she has a temperature of 37.9°C, pulse 95bpm, BP 110/78. She is tender in the suprapubic area and her uterine fundus measures 1cm above the umbilicus. When asked about the birth she mentions that the doctors had to manually remove the placenta.

A

D - Endometritis
This lady is suffering from endometritis, probably due to manual removal of the placenta. There is subinvolution of the uterus and so it remains above the level of the umbilicus - normally the uterus will shrink down to the level of the umbilicus immediately after birth, by two weeks it should no longer be palpable above the pubic symphysis and by 6 weeks it should be back to normal. Endometritis commonly occurs 5-10 days postpartum and examples of risk factors are prolonged labour, prolonged rupture of membranes, retained products of conception, caesarean section and manual removal of the placenta. The uterus is tender on palpation and lochia may be offensive/purulent or normal. It is often polymicrobial but group A strep must be treated with particular caution due to the risk of fulminating sepsis.

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4
Q

A 26 year old woman, 8 days’ postpartum, presents to her GP due to suprapubic pain and dysuria for the last 2 days. During the birth she sustained a 3rd degree tear and for a few days after found it painful to urinate so she tried to go as little as possible. Her temperature is 37.4°C, pulse 78bpm and BP115/84

A

Urinary Tract Infection
This lady has a UTI due probably to inadequate pain management. She was not urinating regularly due to the pain leading to stagnant urine and so there is risk of infection. Other examples of UTI causes in the postpartum period are intermittent catheterisation and trauma to the bladder, which she probably had as she would have been catheterised immediately postop. Often no symptoms are present other than a fever. There is risk of pyelonephritis.

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5
Q

A 31 year old woman, 4 days’ postpartum, explains to the health visitor that she has been experiencing pain in both breasts for the last day and a half. She describes the breasts as feeling heavy, warm and more firm than normal. She began breast feeding after the birth but decided to stop after the second day due to finding it too difficult

A

Breast Engorgement
This lady has breast engorgement, which is common among women who are not breast feeding their baby or feeding has become interrupted for some reason. Both breasts typically feel heavy, painful, warm and firm and this is due to vascular and lymphatic stasis. It commonly occurs 2-4 days postpartum but it may accompany the start of expression of mature milk on days 4-5. Treatment involves wearing a tight fitting bra, ice-packs, analgesia and possibly bromocriptine, which suppresses prolactin production.

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6
Q
  1. A 35 year old lady, 9 days’ postpartum, presents to A+E following a collapse at home. Her husband reveals that she was feeling extremely short of breath beforehand and that she complained of a pain in her chest particularly on breathing in. When asked, he did not remember her complaining of any calf or thigh pain, swelling or redness
A

Pulmonary Embolus
This lady has had a PE. There is an increase in production of clotting factors during the 10 days postpartum increasing the risk of DVT and PE. DVTs commonly occur at 7-10 days compared to amniotic fluid embolism, which occurs at or just after birth. The DVT may be silent and so a history of calf pain, swelling or redness is not always available. DVT/PE is more common in those who have had a caesarean section, prolonged labour, women who are more immobile during the postpartum period, those with thrombophilias etc. Important points on management - PE treated the same as with non-pregnant women (with slightly higher heparin doses in pregnancy) but if a thromboembolic event occurs during pregnancy the heparin/lmwh is discontinued during labour and recommenced shortly after delivery due to the risk of bleeding. Heparin does not cross the placenta but warfarin is teratogenic. Effects on the fetus include frontal bossing, midface hypoplasia, saddle nose, cardiac defects, short stature, blindness and mental retardation. Warfarin should be avoided during the first trimester. It should also be avoided around the time of delivery.

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7
Q

A 19 year old girl presents to the sexual health clinic with frothy yellow vaginal discharge, vulval itching and pain on urination. She had a one night stand with a man she met in a bar four nights ago. On examination the discharge smells offensive and a strawberry cervix is visualised.

A

Trichomonas vaginalis
Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoan, which can cause a green/yellow frothy discharge, offensive odour (fishy), dysuria, dyspareunia, vulval/urethral itching and rarely prostatitis in males. On examination a strawberry cervix may be seen in females and tests include wet preps of vaginal/urethral swabs - sample is mixed with some normal saline and then put onto a slide to be visualised under a microscope. The protozoan should be seen as it is motile and has special features. Treatment is with metronidazole. It increases the risk of HIV transmission in those who are exposed and there is an increased risk of IUGR and preterm delivery in women who are pregnant.

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8
Q

A 20 year old male presents to his GP with white, cloudy discharge from his penis, pain on urination and painful swollen testicles. He has a long-term girlfriend but their relationship has been strained recently and he fears they may be breaking up. She has no symptoms herself.

A

Chlamydia trachomatis
This man is most likely to have chlamydia trachomatis - due to the symptoms (including epididymo-orchitis). His partner has been having intercourse with another man who was infected and she has passed it on to him - she is not symptomatic because 90% of those infected are asymptomatic. Chlamydia trachomatis can cause intermenstrual/postcoital bleeding, dyspareunia and white cloudy vaginal discharge in women and in both - urethral discharge and dysuria. Proctitis is rare. Complications in women include pelvic inflammatory disease in 5-20% (resulting in increased risk of subfertility, ectopic pregnancy and also chronic pain), early miscarriage and premature birth if pregnant and transmission to the baby at birth resuting in trachoma (infectious eye disease) or pneumonia. Trachoma is contracted in other ways and is the most common cause of preventable blindness in the world. In men it results in fewer serious complications including epididymo-orchitis). In both it may cause reactive arthritis. Treat using doxycycline or azithromycin. Contact tracing is important.

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9
Q

An 18 year old girl presents to the sexual health clinic with a fishy smelling vaginal discharge but no other symptoms. She is beginning to find it embarrassing so wants some advice. The discharge is thin and white, there are clue cells noted on the gram-stain and the PH is 4.8.

A

Bacterial vaginosis
Bacterial Vaginosis is the most common cause of vaginitis and although it is not strictly an STI, it is more common in those who are sexually active. As the name suggests, it only affects women and it is caused by an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms replacing the normal commensals, lactobacilli. The patient may have fishy smelling vaginal discharge (particularly after sex or in immediate post-menstrual phase of cycle) but pruritis/soreness are often not present. 50% are asymptomatic.

BV is diagnosed using the Amsel criteria:

1) Thin, white, yellow, homogeneous discharge
2) Clue cells on microscopy
3) pH of vaginal fluid >4.5
4) Release of a fishy odour on adding alkali-10% potassium hydroxide (KOH) solution. At least three of the four criteria should be present for a confirmed diagnosis.It is treated if symptoms/pregnant/pre-op with metronidazole for 5-7 days.

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10
Q

A 27 year old male presents to his GP with a painless ulcer on the end of his penis. He said it has been there for 3 weeks. He has no other symptoms. He mentions that he slept with a prostitute around 4 weeks previous to this and is worried that he may have HIV. On examination the ulcer is shallow and he has lymphadenopathy.

A

Syphilis (Treponema palidum)
This man has primary syphilis and this is characterised by a primary chancre 3 weeks post-infection. It is a shallow/painless ulcer, which persists for 2-6 weeks and then spontaneously heals. It typically occurs at the site of entry, which may be the vulva, penis, anus or even mouth and lymphadenopathy is present. In the UK this infection is more prevalent in homosexual men and sex workers. It is diagnosed by taking a swab of the chancre and examining it under a microscope using the dark-field examination technique. For secondary syphilis onwards blood tests are taken to look for serology. This is negative up to 4 weeks post-infection. T. pallidum is highly penicillin sensitive.

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11
Q

A 24 year old student presents to her GP complaining of PV bleeding after intercourse. It is only small amounts, mainly spotting. She has no past medical history to date and has taken a pregnancy test recently, which was negative.

A

This is a history suggestive of cervical carcinoma. It typically presents with postcoital and/or intermenstrual bleeding. Pain is a late sign. It may just be an incidental finding on smear testing - screening is every 3 years from 25-50 years and every 5 years up to 65 years. 75% are squamous cell carcinoma and 25% adenocarcinoma. HPV is a risk factor - types 16+18 confer a 10x increase in risk.

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12
Q

A 33 year old woman presents to her GP complaining of heavy periods, which are also very painful. She has finally decided to seek medical advice. She has had no children and currently has no partner so is not taking any contraception. She had a tonsillectomy aged 9 years but there is no other past medical history. A smoothly enlarged uterus is found on bimanual examination.

A

Adenomyosis
Adenomyosis occurs in 20% of women and presents as dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia. Examination reveals a smoothly enlarged uterus and investigations should include pelvic ultrasound +/- MRI. Hysterectomy is the definitive treatment.

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13
Q

A 57 year old postmenopausal lady who presents to her GP due to intermittent PV bleeding. It started off as small spots but has increased over the last couple of weeks resulting in the need to use about 6 sanitary towels per day. Her last period was 7 years ago. She has been on holiday in Spain and so has not had a chance to see anyone about it. She does not complain of any pain. Examination is unremarkable and the GP refers her to the gynaecological team. She has a transvaginal ultrasound, which reveals an endometrial thickness of 5cm.

A

Endometrial Cancer
This is likely to be endometrial carcinoma. It is predominantly a disease of postmenopausal women (75%) but can present before the menopause as intermenstrual bleeding (5% <40 yrs). Risk factors associated are those that involve an excess of oestrogen. The COCP is said to confer some protection. Investigations involved are endometrial biopsy (pipelle), transvaginal/pelvic ultrasound (endometrial thickness <4mm is considered normal but it doesnt completely rule the diagnosis out) and hysteroscopy/biopsy. Patients with low risk stage I disease i.e. well differentiated, only superficially invasive, may be treated with a total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. Patients with high risk stage I disease i.e. poorly differentiated, deeply invasive, are treated as above with additionally, post-operative radiotherapy. Stage II disease is managed as for high risk stage I. Stages III and IV (rare) are managed on an individualised basis. Surgery is rarely used. Progestogen therapy may be helpful. Chemotherapy may occasionally be used in metastatic disease.

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14
Q

A 14 year old girl presents to her GP because she has not started her periods yet and is worried because all her friends have. However, she does get cyclical abdominal pain and on examination she has a palpable swelling in the suprapubic area and a bulging bluish swelling at the entrance to the vagina

A

Imperforate Hymen
This is a typical history of a young girl with an imperforate hymen. They may also have problems with micturition. It is often picked up earlier on in the neonate/infant but some may go undiagnosed up until menarche.

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15
Q

A 32 year old lady presents to her GP due to amenorrhoea. She had a baby around 18 months ago and has not had a period since. She thought it was normal but her friend told her to ask her GP. The baby was delivered via caesarean section and the delivery was complicated by a massive postpartum haemorrhage.

A

Sheehan’s Syndrome
This lady has had a pituitary infarct due to the postpartum haemorrhage. This is rare. Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of lactotrophs during pregnancy results in the enlargement of the anterior pituitary, without a corresponding increase in blood supply. The posterior pituitary is usually not affected due to its direct arterial supply.

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16
Q

A 16 year old girl has short stature and lacks secondary sexual characteristics.

A

Turner’s Syndrome
In most cases Turner Syndrome is due to the absence of an X chromosome (X0) but sometimes only part of the chromosome may be missing. It occurs in 1:2,500 girls. There are characteristic physical abnormalities, such as short stature, broad chest, low hairline, low-set ears, and webbed necks. They are often infertile due to failure of ovarian development. Other problems include amenorrhoea, congenital heart disease (e.g. coarctation of the aorta, aortic dissection, bicuspid aortic valve), hypothyroidism (esp. Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis), diabetes, vision and hearing loss, and osteoporosis.

17
Q

A 33 year old lady and her husband have been attempting to conceive for the past two years. She has a regular 28 day cycle but suffers from dysmenorrhoea and deep dyspareunia. On examination she has a fixed retroverted uterus and tender adnexa.

A

Endometriosis
This lady has endometriosis suggested by the history and examination findings. It occurs in 5-10% of reproductive aged women and is present in 30% of infertile women. The most common sites are the ovary (44%), utero-sacral ligament (20%) and the pouch of Douglas. However, it can occur anywhere in the body including the lung, which presents as haemoptysis. It can be detected by ultrasound, but laparoscopy may be needed. It can be treated medically but surgical intervention may be required.

18
Q

A 28 year old lady attends a gynaecology clinic having been referred by her GP due to problems conceiving. She has irregular menses, having had her last bleed 8 weeks ago. She also mentions that she has problems with acne and weight gain. On examination she has a BMI of 30 and male pattern hair distribution.

A

Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
This lady has PCOS - classical features including oligo/amenorrhoea, hirsutism, acne, high BMI and sometimes Type 2 diabetes. Ovaries are enlarged and may be palpable vaginally, on ultrasound 20-100 cystic follicles per ovary are seen with echogenic ovarian stroma. LH:FSH levels are typically around 2:1, testosterone is usually at the higher end of normal and the sex hormone-binding globulin is low.

19
Q

A 39 year old man and 32 year old woman present to their GP about difficulties conceiving a second child. Their first child is six years old. They have regular intercourse but are reluctant to talk about it. After investigation, her hormone profile and pelvic ultrasound are normal. The man was diagnosed with type I diabetes when 14 and has some evidence of neuropathy and vasculopathy

A

Sexual Dysfunction
The man has sexual dysfunction suggested by his diabetes and the fact that complications have already developed. Erectile dysfunction is common amongst those with diabetes and may be the first complication seen (amongst type I diabetics). It is due to both vasculopathy and autonomic neuropathy. It is often embarrassing for men to talk about so it may not be the evident cause of infertility at first. Semen analysis is unlikely to be abnormal

20
Q

A 14 year old girl books an appointment at the family planning clinic. She has been seeing her boyfriend for the past 6 months. At a party 4 days ago, she had a few too many drinks and had unprotected sex with him. She is really distressed and wants to make sure that there is no chance that she could become pregnant.

A

Copper IUCD
A copper IUCD is an appropriate choice because it is now 4 days post-intercourse and so the levenorgestrel-only emergency contraceptive pill would not be an effective option. These intrauterine devices can be used up to 5 days after intercourse or even 5 days after the earliest possible ovulation (so if they had sex 3 days before the start of ovulation, she can have the coil inserted up to 8 days after). They are an extremely effective emergency contraceptive and have a <0.1% failure rate. They work by impairing fertilization, altering sperm motility and integrity and impair implantation. It is recommended that swabs for chlamydia etc are taken beforehand and prophylactic antibiotics should be used if there is any suspicion of an STI. They can be kept in for up to 10 years for long term contraceptive use.

21
Q

A 22 year old girl presents to her GP complaining of menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea that has been going on for the past 4 years. She normally takes Mefenamic acid but has decided to see if there is an alternative. She is currently sexually active with a stable partner of two years. They normally use condoms but no other form of contraception. She is a smoker.

A

Combined oral contraceptive pill
COCP would be an effective treatment of dysmenorrhoea /menorrhagia and if she hasn’t had children would probably be the primary recommendation. The mirena coil is a possible choice and an effective contraceptive; it is also licensed for idiopathic menorrhagia and reversible. However, it is painful to insert and particularly so in nulliparous young women.

22
Q

The mother of a 19 year old girl with learning difficulties has a discussion with her GP about the fact that her daughter has recently become sexually active. The mother is worried about the number of partners her daughter has had in the past few months and realises that she will find it difficult to remember to take regular contraception. The daughter is clear that she would not want a child at the moment

A

Depo-Provera
Depo-Provera is an injectable contraceptive containing medroxy progesterone acetate. It is licensed for long and short term use. It is useful in this case because it means that she does not have to remember to take tablets as it is injected every 3 months. When injected between day 1 and day 5 of the menstrual cycle, contraception starts immediately. If given after day 5 of the menstrual cycle then additional contraception (i.e. barrier method) is required for 7 days. Disadvantages include a delay in return to fertility (mean= 5.5months), slight reduction in bone mineral density and amenorrhoea. Its failure rate is <0.5%.

23
Q

A 35 year old woman books an appointment at her GP surgery to discuss the fact that after her fourth child she now wants reliable contraception. In her past medical history it is noted that she suffers from focal migraines and she is a smoker.

A

Mirena Coil
The mirena coil is again the most appropriate due to the low failure rate of <0.1% compared to the progesterone only pill <0.5%. She will not have to remember to take a pill at exactly the same time every day and she has already had children so it should not be difficult to insert the device. She is also a smoker and suffers from migraines so the risk of stroke/MI is greatly increased if on the combined pill. The standard coil could also be used is associated more with menorrhagia.

24
Q

A 26 year old lady (G1P0) at 30 weeks gestation mentions to her midwife that she recently experienced a small amount of vaginal bleeding following intercourse. She is feeling well in herself and on abdominal examination she has a soft, non-tender uterus, which is the correct measurement for her dates. The midwife does notice that the fetus is in an oblique lie.

A

Placenta praevia
This lady has a placenta praevia suggested by the history of a painless PV bleed related to intercourse and abnormal fetal lie. These women often have their first bleed at 27-32wks, it may be associated with intercourse and a small bleed often precedes a large bleed later on in the pregnancy. The grade of placenta praevia is determined via ultrasound (1-4). Examination reveals a non-tender, soft uterus. If the bleed is large, the degree of shock is proportional to the amount of blood. If the mother and fetus are well then the pregnancy is encouraged to go as near to term as possible but if the fetus is distressed or at term then delivery is favourable. This is normally via caesarean section.

25
Q

A 31 year old woman (G2P1) at 37 weeks gestation presents to the labour ward with severe abdominal pain, a feeling of “light headedness” but there is no vaginal bleeding. She is experiencing regular contractions (4 in 10 mins) and on vaginal examination she is fully dilated and effaced. Her abdomen is hard and tender, she is tachycardic and her BP is 90/50. Earlier on in the pregnancy she was diagnosed with pre-eclampsia for which she was being closely monitored for.

A

Concealed placental abruption
Concealed placental abruption occurs when the haemorrhage is located between the placenta and the uterine wall. The uterus increases in size, appearing larger for dates and no PV bleed is seen. The uterus feels rock-solid, is tender on palpation and the patient experiences severe pain. The haemorrhage may penetrate through the uterine wall making the abdomen appear bruised (couvelaire uterus). The degree of shock is out of proportion to the lack of bleeding. The patient is often in labour when it occurs and in 30% the fetus is stillborn. The fetus needs to be delivered as soon as possible and the method of delivery is dependant on whether the fetus is alive/dead and whether distressed/not distressed.

26
Q

A 32 year old woman (G3P0+2) presents to the labour ward at 39 weeks gestation with regular contractions, which are increasing in intensity. On vaginal examination her cervix is 3cm dilated and is 1-2cm long. 30 minutes after admission there is spontaneous rupture of membranes. Whilst the midwife is out of the room the woman notices a bloody/mucous discharge but there is no abdominal pain. When the midwife returns, the woman is panicking and her pulse rate is 85bpm. Otherwise her observations are normal and the fetus is showing no signs of distress.

A

Normal Labour
This lady is in normal labour and has just noticed “show”. She is distressed because of her 2 previous miscarriages and so is afraid it may happen again.

27
Q

A 28 year old lady (G3P0+2) presents to the labour ward at 20 weeks gestation with a history of mild constant supra-pubic pain, accompanied by a fresh vaginal bleed measuring a cup full in quantity. The pain began to become more severe with a worsening of the bleeding but both have since ceased. She has passed the fetus and placenta.

A

Complete miscarriage
This lady has a threatened miscarriage, suggested by the initial bleed, the pain and worsening of bleeding that followed and then the cessation of both.

28
Q

A 28 year old lady (G2P1) with a past medical history of congenital heart disease, is on the central delivery suite in the second stage of labour. She is currently at 40 week+3 days gestation and has had an uneventful pregnancy to date. She has been actively pushing for 1 hour 30 minutes and the baby is +1 to the ischial spines and descends with pushing. Her contractions are beginning to drop off (2 in 10 minutes) and she is feeling increasingly tired. She gave birth to her last child with no difficulties and would like a normal delivery if possible

A

Ventouse delivery
This lady would like a normal delivery but there is failure to progress in the second stage of labour. She has congenital heart disease and although it did not present with any problems in the last birth, she is becoming exhausted and needs some assistance. Ventouse delivery is less traumatic for the fetus than forceps delivery and so is preferable.

29
Q

A 32 year old lady (G1P0) is pregnant with dichorionic diamniotic twins at 37 weeks gestation. An ultrasound scan confirms that twin number 1 is lying in a breech position whilst twin number 2 is cephalic. Both have some degree of intrauterine growth restriction due to pre-eclampsia, which was diagnosed earlier on in the pregnancy.

A

Planned caesarean section
Both twins and IUGR are relative contraindications to external cephalic version so planned caesarean is the correct answer.

30
Q

A 24 year old lady (G1P0) is being induced at 39 weeks gestation due to her type I diabetes mellitus. She has already been given two 3mg prostin pessaries, which have resulted in the cervix becoming fully effaced and 4cm dilated. The fetus shows no signs of distress but progression is still relatively slow. The head is at -1 to the ischial spines. The midwife on CDS wants to help her along.

A
Amniotomy
Amniotomy (artificial rupture of membranes) may be used for induction or augmentation of labour. It involves using an "amni-hook", allowing endogenous prostaglandins to stimulate uterine contraction and should be carried out on CDS due to risk of fetal bradycardia and cord prolapse. Contraindications are HIV, active herpes, viral hepatitis. It is best used in combination with syntocinon
31
Q

A 27 year old lady (G2P1), at term + 10 days, is admitted with a plan for induction. She has had the relevant examinations and investigations performed. She is deemed suitable for induction of labour. On vaginal examination the cervix admits a finger tip, it is >4cm long firm, posterior in position and the head is at -3cm to the ischial spines.

A

Give 3mg prostin pessary or 10mg dinoprostone (Propess)pessary
A 3mg pessary of prostin can be used to efface, dilate and soften the cervix. Later on when these changes have occured, an amniotomy could be considered. Pessaries are given 6 hours apart but gels are also available. There is an increased risk of uterine rupture, especially if the woman has had a previous caesarean.

32
Q

Lower back pain, which is worse at night

A

Third Trimester
Lower back pain is due to relaxation of pelvic muscles and ligaments nearer the end of pregnancy. It is mostly worse at night and can be improved by posture, flat shoes and a firm mattress.

33
Q

Morning sickness

A

4-8 weeks
Morning sickness usually occurs between weeks 4 and 8, and is mainly caused by circulating ?-HCG. It is managed by eating frequent small amounts of food and may require an anti-emetic eg. cyclizine. Hyperemesis gravidarum occurs in 1:1000 pregnancies and cause dehydration, weight loss and acidosis. Anti-emetics are given IM and IV fluids are set up. Twins and trophoblastic disease must be excluded by a pelvic US if severe.

34
Q

Fetal movements first felt by a primiparous woman

A

18-22 weeks

Often fetal movements are felt at 20 weeks in a primiparous woman and 16-18 in a multiparous woman.

35
Q

Enlarged and darkened nipples

A

First Trimester
Nipple and breast enlargement occur in the first few weeks due to increase in HPL and oestrogen. Nipple darkening occurs at around 12 weeks due to increased vascularity and melanocyte-stimulating hormone.