Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMR > Practice Tests > Flashcards

Practice Tests Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major responsibility of responders?

a) Ensuring safety for themselves and bystanders
b) Obtaining advanced medical care
c) Gaining access to the patient
d) Diagnosing a patients specific problem

A

Diagnosing a patients specific problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In comparison to the chest, the neck is said to be _________, whereas the pelvis is __________

a) anterior; posterior
b) distal; proximal
c) superior; inferior
d) lateral; medial

A

superior; inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is the pulse point most frequently used to determine pulse rate and quality on a conscious patient during the secondary survey?

a) Radial artery
b) Temporal artery
c) Carotid artery
d) Popliteal artery

A

Radial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The normal breathing rate for an adult is:

a) 5 to 10 breaths per minute
b) 12 to 20 breaths per minute
c) 16 to 24 breaths per minute
d) 20 to 32 breaths per minute

A

12 to 20 breaths per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The purpose of the secondary survey is to:

a) find injuries or conditions that are not immediately life-threatening
b) determine if patient is bleeding severly
c) survey the scene for hazardous conditions
d) find out if the patient has medical insurance

A

find injuries or conditions that are not immediately life-threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When taking blood pressure, the point at which the pulse is first heard as the pressure in the cuff is released indicates the:

a) diastolic pressure
b) arterial pressure
c) systolic pressure
d) venous pressure

A

systolic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

For which conditions should you give rescue breathing?

a) Respiratory distress
b) Cardiac arrest
c) Asthma
d) Respiratory arrest

A

Respiratory arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The cycle of compressions to ventilations in two rescuer CPR for an adult is:

a) 30 compressions for every 2 ventilations
b) 15 compressions for every 2 ventilations
c) 15 compressions for every 1 ventilation
d) 5 compressions for every 1 ventilation

A

30 compressions for every 2 ventilations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

During two-rescuer CPR, the person giving the breaths should:

a) count aloud to keep the person giving the compressions at the proper rate
b) call for a stop in the compressions after every minute to check for a return of signs of circulation (carotid pulse)
c) periodically check the effectiveness of the compressions by checking for signs of circulation (carotid pulse) during CPR
d) all of the above

A

periodically check the effectiveness of the compressions by checking for signs of circulation (carotid pulse) during CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is (are) considered to be a “shockable rhythm”?

a) Ventricular Tachycardia
b) Asystole
c) Ventricular Fibrillation
d) A and C

A

A and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following breathing devices would you use in caring for a patient who is breathing only 4 times per minute?

a) Nasal Cannula
b) Non-rebreather mask
c) Bag-valve-mask resuscitator
d) A or B

A

Bag-valve-mask resuscitator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A woman has full thickness burns covering the front of her chest and abdomen, and her back. Using the rule of nines, what percentage of her body is burned?

a) 9%
b) 18%
c) 27%
d) 36%

A

36%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In which situation would you remove an impaled object from a wound?

a) When direct pressure around an object in the forearm fails to stop bleeding
b) When the object is impaled in the lower leg, making it impossible to apply a rigid splint to a fractured tibia
c) When an object impaled in a patient’s cheek obstructs breathing
d) All of the above

A

When an object impaled in a patient’s cheek obstructs breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

You have cooling a thermal burn. What should you do next?

a) Remove any clothing that is sticking to the skin
b) Apply a commercial burn ointment, if available
c) Cover the burn with a sterile non-stick dressing, and bandage loosely
d) Place a occlusive dressing over the burn, and apply a bandage

A

Cover the burn with a sterile non-stick dressing, and bandage loosely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which is often the first and most important sign or symptom of a serious head injury?

a) Severe pain or pressure in the head
b) Altered level of consciousness
c) Blood or fluid in the ears
d) Seizures or convulsions

A

Altered level of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In what order should a patient’s body be secured to a backboard?

a) Head, chest, thighs, legs
b) Thighs, legs, chest, head
c) Legs, thighs, chest, head
d) Chest, thighs, legs, head

A

Chest, thighs, legs, head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In caring for a patient with a sucking chest wound, you should:

a) use your bare hand to apply direct pressure
b) use gauze pad to reduce air and pathogens from passing in and out
c) tape an occlusive dressing over the wound, leaving one edge untaped
d) b or c

A

tape an occlusive dressing over the wound, leaving one edge untaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What structures must you immobilize to effectively treat a suspected fracture of the upper arm?

a) Humerus and elbow
b) Humerus, elbow, and forearm
c) Shoulder, humerus, and elbow
d) Shoulder, humerus, elbow, and forearm

A

Shoulder, humerus, and elbow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

All of the following are probably causes of stroke EXCEPT:

a) hypotension
b) blood clot in an artery supplying the brain
c) bleeding from a ruptured artery in the brain
d) head injury

A

hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following poisons should you eliminate from the body by inducing vomiting?

a) Posionous berries
b) Drain cleaner
c) Kerosene
d) None, unless local protocols dictate otherwise or the Poison Control Centre instructs to do so

A

None, unless local protocols dictate otherwise or the Poison Control Centre instructs to do so

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A 72 year-old woman is found confused and shivering after leaving her house without adequate clothing. The outside temperature is -7°C (20°F), and there is snow on the ground. She is able to talk, but does not remember what happened. Which of the following is most likely responsible for her condition?

a) Stroke
b) Hypotension
c) Aneurysm
d) Frostbite

A

Hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following steps is NOT part of the emergency care for a patient with a heat-related illness?

a) have the patient take salt tablets
b) cool the patient
c) lightly stretch and massage a muscle cramp
d) provide small amounts of water or a commercial sports drink to a conscious patient

A

have the patient take salt tablets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following can help a woman cope with the pain and discomfort of labour?

a) assuming a knee-chest position
b) breathing in and out in a shallow “panting” pattern
c) alternately tensing and relaxing all the muscles in her body
d) focusing on an object in the room while regulating her breathing

A

focusing on an object in the room while regulating her breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If you are preparing to assist with the delivery of a baby, what preparations should you make?

a) Place clean sheets, blankets, or towels under the mother’s buttock and over her abdomen
b) Have someone bring a large pot of water to boil on stove
c) Get a sterile obstetric kit ready to use during the delivery
d) Have the mother lie flat on her back with her legs extended

A

a) Place clean sheets, blankets, or towels under the mother’s buttocks and over her abdomen
c) Get a sterile obstetric kit ready to use during the delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When is the triage process used?

a) When you have a patient with multiple injuries
b) Any time the patients outnumber the responders
c) When all patients are under the age of 12
d) All of the above

A

b) Any time the patients outnumber the responders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In the START system, the emergency care you give during the triage process should be limited to:

a) Controlling bleeding and delivering CPR
b) Opening the airway and controlling severe bleeding
c) maintaining body temperature and administering oxygen
d) clearing the airway and immobilizing possible head and/or spine injuries

A

Opening the airway and controlling severe bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which two body systems function together to provide oxygen for the cells of the body?

a) Musculoskeletal, integumentary
b) Respiratory, circulation
c) Integumentary, respiratory
d) Circulatory, musculoskeletal

A

Respiratory, circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When checking a patient’s eyes, you notice larger than normal pupils. The pupils are said to be:

a) constricted
b) dilated
c) unequal
d) unresponsive

A

dilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is your main concern during the primary survey?

a) identifying life-threatening problems
b) identifying all injuries or medical problems
c) monitoring changes in the patient’s condition
d) establishing baseline vital signs

A

identifying life-threatening problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

At the scene of a stabbing, you see a knife you believe was used in the incident next to the unconscious patient. What should you do with the knife?

a) Pick it up, using a dressing or bandage, and place it in a plastic bag to give to the police
b) Avoid touching or move the knife unless it causes a safety hazard, or interferes with care
c) Be careful not to touch the handle as you move the knife carefully away from the patient
d) Note the knifes exact position; move it away from the patient, and save it for the police

A

Avoid touching or move the knife unless it causes a safety hazard, or interferes with care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which purpose(s) do bandages serve?

a) Provide a sterile covering for wounds and control bleeding
b) Apply pressure to control bleeding and provide support to injured body parts
c) Reduce pain in open wounds and hold dressings in place
d) Stop air from reaching a wound

A

Apply pressure to control bleeding and provide support to injured body parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In treating a patient with an electrical burn, you should:

a) push any electrical wires away from the patient with a dry pole or stick
b) cover any burns with a non-stick, sterile dressing
c) look for an entrance and an exit wound
d) b and c

A

b and c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When splinting a possible fracture, all of the following should be done EXCEPT:

a) Check their oxygen saturation levels with a pulse oximeter
b) immbilizing all serious musculoskeletal injuries
c) checking circulation and sensation below the injury site before and after splinting
d) minimizing movement of the injured area

A

Check their oxygen saturation levels with a pulse oximeter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How would you provide care for a patient having a seizure?

1) Place something between the patients teeth
2) If possible, position the patient on one side to maintain a clear airway and allow fluids to drain
3) Restrain the patients movements
4) Protect the patient from injury

a) 1
b) 2 and 4
c) 1, 2, and 3
d) 1 and 4

A

1, 2, and 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How would you care for a frostbitten foot?

a) Rub the foot aggressively to restore circulation
b) Wrap the foot snugly in a moist, warm dressing
c) Separate the toes with a cotton or gauze when bandaging
d) Break any blisters that appear, and cleanse the foot with soap and water

A

Separate the toes with a cotton or gauze when bandaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How do the blood vessels near the surface of the skin allow excess heat to move out of the body?

a) by contracting
b) by dilating
c) by closing the skin pores
d) by opening the skin pores

A

by dilating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which of the following should you do to develop rapport with an injured child?

a) Talk slowly
b) Calm the family
c) Get down to the child’s eye level
d) All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which of the following is (are) important to keep in mind when lifting or moving someone or something?

a) keep the weight as close to you as possible
b) use your legs, not your back
c) keep your body aligned
d) all of the above

A

keep the weight as close to you as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Diabetic coma occurs when:

a) there is too little insulin in the body
b) there is too much insulin in the body
c) there is too little oxygen in the blood
d) there is a low level of sugar in the blood

A

there is too little insulin in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A crush injury may leave the skin intact although it can cause:

a) internal bleeding
b) fractures
c) organ damage
d) all of the above

A

all of the above

41
Q

The following injuries can result from a blast injury: loss of hearing, pulmonary edema, pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism, abdominal hemorrhage, and bowel perforation.

a) true
b) false

A

true

42
Q

Personal protective equipment includes:

a) soap or alcohol-based hand sanitizers
b) containers for sharps
c) disposable gloves, gowns, and masks
d) disinfectants such as bleach

A

disposable gloves, gowns, and masks

43
Q

When can a responder stop care of a patient once care has begun?

a) When a responder with higher or equal training relieves the initial responder
b) If a family member tells the responder the patient is dead
c) If the responder is called to a more serious situation
d) If the responder is unsure of what to do

A

When a responder with higher or equal training relieves the initial responder

44
Q

You have arrived at the scene of a vehicle collision where there are downed electrical wires. You should:

a) use a non-conductive object to move the wires so you can reach the patient
b) assume the wires are energized and move everyone back from the area
c) tell the patient to try to remove herself from the scene
d) check to see if the wires are energized and, if not, move them

A

assume the wires are energized and move everyone back from the area

45
Q

Tuberculosis is transmitted primarily by:

a) vector-borne transmission
b) saliva
c) insect bites
d) airborne bacteria

A

airborne bacteria

46
Q

You arrive at the local community centre, where an unconscious child has fallen off the swings. The child’s parents are not at the community centre. You begin care for this child according to which of the following:

a) duty to act
b) implied consent
c) expressed consent
d) advance directives

A

implied consent

47
Q

While using a suction device, you should suction:

a) for a maximum of 5 seconds
b) for a minimum of 5 seconds
c) until the patients starts to breathe
d) until the patients airway is clear

A

until the patients airway is clear

48
Q

Which is a sign or symptom of shock?

a) skin that is dry and normal in colour
b) slow to normal breathing
c) calm, quiet reactions to surroundings
d) a rapid, weak pulse

A

a rapid, weak pulse

49
Q

The four ways that a poison can enter a person’s body are:

a) through the lungs, by being swallowed, through the skin, or by being injected
b) by being inhaled, through the skin, on the skin, or by being injected
c) by being injected, by being inhaled, through eating/swallowing, and by being ingested
c) by being absorbed, through the lungs, through the skin, and by being injected

A

through the lungs, by being swallowed, through the skin, or by being injected

50
Q

When using a nasal cannula, the flow rate should be:

a) 1-4 lpm
b) 6-10 lpm
c) 12-15 lpm
d) 15-25 lpm

A

1-4 lpm

51
Q

Medical control is the process by which a physician directs the care given by pre-hospital care professionals to patients.

a) true
b) false

A

true

52
Q

Standing orders allow EMR personnel to provide certain types of care or treatments without talking to the physician this is called direct medical control.

a) true
b) false

A

false

53
Q

A group of organs and other structures that perform specific body functions is (are) the:

a) vital organs
b) nervous system
c) respiratory system
d) body system

A

body system

54
Q

The basic unit of life is the:

a) nervous system
b) organ
c) cell
d) body system

A

cell

55
Q

The anatomical term(s) that refers to anything away from the midline is called ______. Anything towards the midline is called ______. Anything towards the front of the body is called _______. Anything towards the back is called ______.

a) posterior; medial; lateral; anterior
b) medial; anterior; lateral; posterior
c) lateral; medial; anterior; posterior
d) medial; lateral; anterior; posterior

A

lateral; medial; anterior; posterior

56
Q

A (The) ______ is a hollow place in the body that contains organs

a) stomach
b) bone
c) body cavity
d) quadrant

A

body cavity

57
Q

Which of the following is not a major body cavity?

a) pelvic
b) thoracic
c) diaphragm
d) spinal

A

diaphragm

58
Q

The small flap of tissue that covers the trachea when you swallow is known as the ________

a) Esophagus
b) Epiglottis
c) Bronchi
d) Alveoli

A

Epiglottis

59
Q

The pumping action of the heart is called a:

a) beat
b) pulse
c) contraction
d) cycle

A

contraction

60
Q

The ongoing breathing process is involuntary and is controlled by the brain.

a) true
b) false

A

true

61
Q

The purpose of the primary survey is to:

a) ensure there are no dangers at the scene
b) determine the number of patients
c) find all life-threatening injuries or conditions
d) expose and treat all injuries

A

find all life-threatening injuries or conditions

62
Q

If the mechanism of injury alerts you to the possibility of a head and/or spine injury, you open the airway using:

a) the cross-over finger technique
b) a head-tilt/chin-lift
c) a two-handed jaw thrust
d) a tongue-jaw lift

A

a two-handed jaw thrust

63
Q

Bones are commonly held together at joints by fibrous bands called ________.

a) tendons
b) ligaments
c) cartilage
d) fascia

A

ligaments

64
Q

What percentage of oxygen is exhaled during normal breathing?

a) 10%
b) 16%
c) 21%
d) 80%

A

16% ?

65
Q

_____ is a condition caused by disease producing micro-organisms, also called pathogens or germs, in the body.

a) Herpes
b) HIV
c) Bacteria
d) Infection

A

Infection ?

66
Q

General impression is part of the:

a) ABCs
b) Scene survey
c) Vital signs
d) Secondary survey

A

Scene survey

67
Q

During a scene survey, you are alerted to the possibility of a fracture due to a fall, or a head injury due to a car collision. This is an example of assessment by means of:

a) a rapid body survey
b) observing hazards at the scene
c) a head-to-toe physical examination
d) the mechanism of injury

A

the mechanism of injury

68
Q

For an infection to occur, all of the following conditions must be present EXCEPT:

a) pathogen
b) sufficient quantity of pathogen
c) pre-existing disease
d) entry site

A

pre-existing disease

69
Q

How often should you ventilate an adult who is not breathing, but does have a pulse?

a) 20-30 times a minute
b) 15-20 times a minute
c) 12-15 times a minute
d) 10-12 times a minute

A

10-12 times a minute

70
Q

Place the components of the primary survey in the order in which they are to be completed.

1) Identify any hazards
2) Administer oxygen
3) Identify other resources that may be needed
4) Open airway
5) Introduce self
6) Suction airway
7) Apply traction splint
8) Ask SAMPLE questions
9) Conduct rapid body survey
10) Check breathing

a) 1, 5, 8
b) 5, 1, 4
c) 5, 4, 10
d) 3, 4, 10

A

c) 5, 4, 10

71
Q

Emphysema and chronic bronchitis are the most common condition associated with:

a) asthma
b) cyanosis
c) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
d) flu

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

72
Q

Pneumonia is a term used to describe a group of illnesses characterized by lung infection and fluid or pus-filled alveoli

a) True
b) False

A

True

73
Q

In measuring blood pressure, two different numbers are usually recorded. The first number reflects the pressure in the ______ when the heart is contracting. This pressure is called ______ blood pressure. The second number reflects the pressure in the arteries when the heart is ______. This is called the _______ blood pressure.

a) veins; diastolic; contracting; systolic
b) arteries; systolic; resting; diastolic
c) arteries; systolic; contracting; diastolic
d) veins; systolic; resting; diastolic

A

arteries; systolic; resting; diastolic

74
Q

The acronym SAMPLE relates to a patient’s signs and symptoms, medical history, allergies, medication, events before the incident, and last meal

a) true
b) false

A

true

75
Q

In which order should the components of the secondary survey be performed?

a) interview, vital signs, head-to-toe physical examination
b) head-to-toe physical examination and interview
c) vital signs, interview, bandaging
d) none of the above

A

interview, vital signs, head-to-toe physical examination

76
Q

The term most commonly used to describe low oxygen level in the cells is:

a) anoxia
b) hypoxia
c) aeroxia
d) monoxia

A

hypoxia

77
Q

After insertion of an oral airway, the patient starts to swallow and gag. Which of the following factors can cause this reaction?

a) the responder is squeezing the BVM too quickly
b) the patient’s level of consciousness is increasing
c) the oropharyngeal airway is too small
d) the patient’s level of consciousness is decreasing

A

the patient’s level of consciousness is increasing

78
Q

________ is a disease in which the lungs lose their ability to exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen effectively. _______ is a severe allergic reaction. ______ is a severe allergic reaction. _______ is a sudden illness involving the death of heart muscle tissue when it does not receive enough oxygen-rich blood. _______ is the absence of electrical activity in the heart.

a) Asystole; Emphysema; Congestive heart failure; Arrhythmia
b) Emphysema; Anaphylaxis; Myocardial infarction; Asystole
c) Asthma; Congestive heart failure; Herpes; Asystole
d) Anaphylaxis; Myocardial infarction; Asystole; Emphysema

A

Emphysema; Anaphylaxis; Myocardial infarction; Asystole

79
Q

A patient has an adequate airway, respirations of 6 per minute, blue lips, and only responds to pain by moaning. Your best treatment is to:

a) insert an oral airway and administer oxygen
b) place the patient in the H.A.IN.E.S. recovery position and administer oxygen
c) use painful stimuli to rouse the patient
d) insert an oral airway and ventilate the patient with a resuscitation mask or bag-valve-mask and oxygen

A

insert an oral airway and ventilate the patient with a resuscitation mask or bag-valve-mask and oxygen

80
Q

If severe bleeding is found during the circulation check, you should:

a) finish the check before intervening
b) stop, control bleeding, then finish your check
c) stop, control and bandage the wound, then finish your check
d) only stop the check to control bleeding if it is life threatening

A

stop, control bleeding, then finish your check

81
Q

Normally the breathing reflex is triggered by:

a) high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood
b) high levels of oxygen in the blood
c) low levels of carbon dioxide in the blood
d) low levels of oxygen in the blood

A

high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood

82
Q

In some people with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the breathing reflex is triggered by:

a) high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood
b) high levels of oxygen in the blood
c) low levels of carbon dioxide in the blood
d) low levels of oxygen in the blood

A

low levels of oxygen in the blood

83
Q

A 67 year-old male was injured in a drive-by shooting. He has been shot through the left thigh and there is a significant amount of blood loss. He has a rapid pulse, and his skin is pale, cool, and sweaty. He tells you he has emphysema. Your treatment would include oxygen by:

a) bag-valve-mask at 5 lpm
b) rescuscitation mask at 3 lpm
c) non-rebreather mask at 6 lpm
d) non-rebreather mask at 10 lpm

A

non-rebreather mask at 10 lpm

84
Q

Shock is best defined as:

a) profuse external bleeding, rapid weak pulse, decreased LOC
b) a psychological or physical state resulting from trauma
c) a condition where a person feels faint and disoriented
d) a condition where body cells do not receive enough oxygen-rich blood

A

a condition where body cells do not receive enough oxygen-rich blood

85
Q

Before applying direct pressure to a bleeding arterial wound, the EMR should:

a) treat the patient for shock
b) apply oxygen at 10 lpm
c) complete the primary survey
d) have gloves on

A

have gloves on

86
Q

The most common and appropriate initial intervention to control bleeding from a lacerated wrist is:

a) direct pressure
b) splinting
c) pressure point
d) tourniquet

A

direct pressure

87
Q

A 22-year old female patient is bleeding from a protruding open fracture on her forearm. Which one of the following methods should be used initially to control the bleeding?

a) Direct pressure
b) Pressure points
c) Tourniquet
d) Bulky dressing around protruding bones

A

Bulky dressing around protruding bones

88
Q

After treating and covering a forearm wound, the patients fingers turn blue. You should:

a) remove and reapply a new bandage
b) loosen the dressing
c) loosen the bandage
d) reposition the arm

A

loosen the bandage

89
Q

When measuring a patient for a nasopharyngeal airway, you measure the distance between the _____ and the ________

a) bridge of the nose; corner of the mouth
b) corner of the mouth, earlobe
c) tip of the patients nose; earlobe
d) maxilla; mandible

A

tip of the patients nose; earlobe

90
Q

It is acceptable to use a nasopharyngeal airway on a patient with a suspected skull fracture

a) true
b) false

A

false

91
Q

To select the appropriate oropharyngeal airway, you should

A

A

a

92
Q

You are ventilating an unconscious patient using BVM. You notice vomit in the throat and mouth. If the suctioning device will not remove all the vomitus you should:

a) place the patient on his side and finger sweep the airway
b) check the suction unit to ensure that it is working properly
c) maintain the head in the position found and finger sweep the airway
d) ventilate with the BVM for 30 seconds, then suction again

A

place the patient on his side and finger sweep the airway

93
Q

During your assessment of a 24 year old female’s level of consciousness, you note that she opens her eyes when a painful stimulus is applied. The patient is also grabbing at your hand (localized pain) when the stimulus is applied. She is making incomprehensible sounds while you assess her. Her GCS would be:

a) 3
b) 6
c) 9
d) 12

A

9

94
Q

Someone who has pathogens enter the body by way of getting stuck with a dirty insulin needle would be an example of:

a) direct contact
b) indirect contact
c) airborne transmission
d) vector-borne transmission

A

indirect contact

95
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered to be a “soft sign” of a heart attack?

a) Gastric discomfort
b) Tiredness
c) Pain radiating to the jaw and arm
d) Flu-like symptoms

A

Pain radiating to the jaw and arm

96
Q

In which of the following cases would you suggest a patient take both his nitroglycerin and ASA?

a) Blood pressure: 120/P; Pulse: 50; no medication at all taken in the last 3 days; no known allergies; recent stroke
b) Blood pressure: 124/P; Pulse 70; no known allergies or illnesses other than angina; no medications at all taken in the last 3 days
c) Blood pressure: 130/P; Pulse 70; no known allergies or illnesses other than angina; no medications at all taken in the last 3 days; has never taken nitroglycerin before
d) Blood pressure: 84/P; Pulse: 110; no known allergies; history of asthma; 1 spray of nitroglycerin taken in the past 48 hours; steroid inhaler taken that morning

A

Blood pressure: 124/P; Pulse 70; no known allergies or illnesses other than angina; no medications at all taken in the last 3 days

97
Q

Which of the following are considered to be a “shockable rhythm”?

1) Ventricular fibrillation
2) Asystole
3) Ventricular tachycardia
4) Sinus bacteria

a) 1 and 3
b) 1, 2, and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) All of the above

A

1 and 3

98
Q

To assess someone who has had a suspected stroke, you should check:

a) reaction time and speech patterns
b) mechanism of injury and onset time of signs and symptoms
c) anxiety level and blood pressure
d) facial droop, arm weakness, and speech abnormalities

A

facial droop, arm weakness, and speech abnormalities

99
Q

Which of the following is most likely NOT to be considered a critical burn?

a) sunburn (superficial) covering the entire back
b) electrical burn
c) burns around the mouth due to inhalation of chemicals
d) a partial-thickness burn to the hands

A

sunburn (superficial) covering the entire back ??

EMR (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions