ACP Questions Flashcards

1
Q

First two tests to evaluate secondary amenorrhea after excluding pregnancy

A

FSH and Prolactin

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2
Q

Precise time of day for testosterone measurement in evaluation of hypogonadism

A

At 8:00 AM

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3
Q

Specific diagnostic antibody associated with Graves disease

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone receptor antibody

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4
Q

All normotensive patients with adrenal incidentaloma are screened for these 2 endocrine disorders

A

Pheochromocytoma and Cushing syndrome

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5
Q

Autosomal dominant disorder causing benign hematuria

A

Thin basement membrane disease

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6
Q

HYVET study systolic blood pressure target associated with reduced mortality

A

≤ 150 mm Hg

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7
Q

Surgical procedure associated with oxalate nephropathy

A

Gastric bypass surgery (accept bowel resection)

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8
Q

Preferred statin for patients on dialysis for end-stage kidney disease

A

None

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9
Q

Most common disease cause of proximal RTA (Fanconi’s syndrome) in adults

A

Monoclonal gammopathy (accept multiple myeloma, amyloidosis, light chain disease)

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10
Q

Classical presentation is painless localized cervical lymphadenopathy

A

Hodgkin disease (accept Hodgkin lymphoma)

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11
Q

Preferred drug class for postmenopausal women with HR-positive early stage breast cancer

A

Aromatase inhibitor

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12
Q

A monoclonal antibody to RANKL for the management of bone metastases from solid tumors

A

Denosumab

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13
Q

Most common kidney complication of endothelial growth factor inhibitors

A

Proteinuria (accept hypertension)

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14
Q

Positive staining for S100 protein, HMB-45 antigen, and vimentin supports this diagnosis

A

Amelanotic melanoma (accept melanoma)

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15
Q

Positive staining for S100 protein, HMB-45 antigen, and vimentin supports this diagnosis

A

Amelanotic melanoma (accept melanoma)

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16
Q

Indication for infective endocarditis prophylaxis following cardiac transplantation

A

Valvulopathy

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17
Q

The two most important human ehrlichial diseases

A

Human monocytic ehrlichiosis and human granulocytic anaplasmosis

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18
Q

Cause of an acute febrile reaction, headache and myalgia within the first 24 hours of erythema migrans treatment

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

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19
Q

Interval following Td vaccination appropriate for Tdap vaccination

A

At any time.

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20
Q

L. monocytogenes meningitis treatment in penicillin allergic patient

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

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21
Q

Most common presenting severe symptom of diabetic amyotrophy

A

Pain

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22
Q

Most effective drug treatment for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

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23
Q

Name of syndrome describing delayed neurologic sequelae following carbon monoxide poisoning.

A

Delayed neuropsychiatric syndrome

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24
Q

Tremor that occurs exclusively with writing

A

Primary writing tremor

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25
Q

Ice-pack test is associated with this autoimmune neuromuscular disorder

A

Myasthenia gravis

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26
Q

Specific quantitative criterion represented by R in the CURB-65 score

A

Respiratory rate >30/min

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27
Q

High resolution CT shows diffuse, homogeneous, < 1cm diameter thin-walled cysts

A

Lymphangioleiomyomatosis (accept LAM)

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28
Q

Pulmonary artery wedge pressure required for a diagnosis of pulmonary arterial hypertension

A

≥ 15 mm Hg (accept < 15 mm Hg)

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29
Q

TB test for lymphocytic pleural fluid when initial smear and culture TB are negative

A

Adenosine deaminase

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30
Q

Warming strategy that combines warm blankets, heating pads, radiant heat, warm baths, or forced warm air

A

Active external rewarming (AER)

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31
Q

Two most common structural cardiac diseases associated with syncope

A

Aortic stenosis and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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32
Q

Statin therapy decreases risk of this post-CABG arrhythmia

A

Atrial fibrillation

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33
Q

Term for chronic but potentially reversible ischemic myocardial dysfunction

A

Hibernating myocardium

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34
Q

Condition associated with rising venous pressure, falling arterial pressure, and decreased heart sounds

A

Pericardial tamponade

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35
Q

Cardiac condition associated with Carney complex

A

Atrial Myxoma

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36
Q

Acronym for law that protects the privacy of individually identifiable health information

A

HIPPA

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37
Q

Name for federal regulations providing research subject protections

A

Common Rule

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38
Q

Medical ethics principle that obliges the physician to act in the patient’s best interests

A

Beneficence

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39
Q

Name for decision making for a patient whose preferences are not known that is based on the best evidence of what the patient would have wanted

A

Substituted judgment

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40
Q

Statement of medical professionalism by ABIM Foundation, ACP Foundation and European Federation of Internal Medicine

A

Physician Charter

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41
Q

Most common diagnosis accounting for elbow swelling

A

Olecranon bursitis

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42
Q

The SLE skin diagnosis responsible for the “butterfly rash” (malar rash)

A

Acute cutaneous lupus erythematosus

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43
Q

A noninflammatory disease associated with calcification and ossification of spinal ligaments and of peripheral entheses

A

Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (DISH)

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44
Q

Syndrome of entrapment of the median nerve in the proximal forearm where it passes through the pronator teres muscle

A

Pronator teres syndrome

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45
Q

ENT complication shared by primary atrophic rhinosinusitis, relapsing polychondritis, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

Saddle nose deformity

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46
Q

Consequence of complete lack of testosterone during first trimester on male embryo

A

Development of female external genitalia

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47
Q

Antibody predicts poor response to oral hypoglycemic drug therapy

A

Anti-GAD (glutamic acid decarboxylase) antibody (also accept islet cell antibody [ICA])

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48
Q

Next diagnostic step for thyroid nodule associated with low TSH

A

Thyroid scintigraphy (accept iodine or technetium scan or nuclear scan)

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49
Q

Enhanced susceptibility to statin-associated myopathy occurs in patients with this endocrine disorder

A

Hypothyroidism

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50
Q

Chemical form of testosterone replacement therapy associated with liver complications

A

Alkylated androgens (do not accept oral therapy)

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51
Q

Diagnosis suggested by aquagenic pruritus and elevated hematocrit

A

Polycythemia vera

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52
Q

Condition associated with “Waring blender syndrome” causing fragmentation hemolytic anemia

A

Malfunctioning mechanical prosthetic valve (accept prosthetic valve, paravalvular leak)

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53
Q

Hydroxyurea therapy in sickle cell disease increases this hemoglobin type

A

Hemoglobin F

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54
Q

Thalassemia diagnosis associated with 90% hemoglobin A and elevations of A2 and F

A

Beta thalassemia minor

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55
Q

Preferred treatment for RBC transfusion-dependent deletion 5q syndrome

A

Lenalidomide

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56
Q

Non-dietary lifestyle modification to slow the progression of chronic kidney disease

A

Smoking cessation

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57
Q

Which renal tubular disorder is associated with impaired ammoniagenesis

A

Type 4 renal tubular acidosis (accept hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism)

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58
Q

GI procedure most commonly associated with acute phosphate nephropathy

A

Colonoscopy (accept sodium phosphate bowel prep for colonoscopy)

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59
Q

Most common pattern of glomerular injury associated with hepatitis C infection

A

Membranoproliferative (with or without cryoglobulinemia)

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60
Q

A circulating peptide secreted by osteocytes and osteoblasts that causes renal phosphate wasting

A

Fibroblast growth factor 23 (accept FGF23)

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61
Q

Most common indication for treating asymptomatic bacteruria in women

A

Pregnancy

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62
Q

Varicella vaccine can be given to patients with HIV infection and this CD4 count

A

> 200

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63
Q

IDSA definition of the cfu threshold in a voided urine specimen defining asymptomatic bacteruria in women

A

≥105 cfu/mL

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64
Q

Antibiotic always included in a multiple antibiotic regimen for anthrax meningitis

A

Ciprofloxacin

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65
Q

IDSA recommended combination antibiotic therapy for severe Babesia microti infection

A

Oral quinine plus IV clindamycin (drug without routes acceptable)

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66
Q

Severe constipation type diagnosed by delayed passage of radiopaque markers through the proximal colon

A

Colonic inertia (also accept slow transit constipation)

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67
Q

Acute onset of lateral abdominal pain in older patient, followed by diarrhea, bleeding, and this sigmoidoscopy finding

A

Ischemic colitis

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68
Q

Most consistently effective biological therapy for recurrent and antibiotic refractory C. difficile infection

A

Fecal microbiota transplantation (accept fecal transplantation)

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69
Q

To reduce false-negative urea breath test results, the patient should be off antibiotics for this length of time

A

4 weeks

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70
Q

Two conditions associated with the highest serum gastrin level measurements

A

Atrophic gastritis (accept autoimmune gastritis) and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (accept gastrinoma)

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71
Q

Diagnosis for this benign fluid filled cavity with mucous glands lining the epithelium [of inner lip]

A

Mucocele

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72
Q

Diagnosis for this condition also known as “picker’s nodules”

A

Prurigo nodularis

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73
Q

Benign, noninfectious condition located on the sulcus or corona of the glans penis

A

Pearly penile papules

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74
Q

Diagnosis for these painful, chronic and recurrent sterile abscesses [picture of large abscess in Arm pit]

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa

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75
Q

Diagnosis for this condition that is associated with a bacterial infection causing malodorous feet

A

Keratolysis

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76
Q

Meaning of TIMI acronym

A

Thrombolysis in Myocardial Infarction

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77
Q

Valvular heart lesion associated with nail bed pulsations

A

Chronic aortic regurgitation (accept aortic regurgitation)

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78
Q

Postmenopausal women account for most cases of this syndrome of transient regional LV dysfunction

A

Stressed-induced (takotsubo) cardiomyopathy

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79
Q

USPSTF grade assigned to screening for abdominal aortic aneurysm in women

A

Grade D

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80
Q

Most likely congenital heart disease diagnosis for this asymptomatic adult [EKG picture]

A

Dextrocardia

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81
Q

Describes the illusion of either personal or environmental movement

A

Vertigo

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82
Q

First-line oral drug for symptomatic treatment of myasthenia gravis

A

Pyridostigmine

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83
Q

Age exclusion for stroke-related thrombolytic therapy between 3 and 4.5 hours post stroke

A

Age >80 years

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84
Q

Likely diagnosis for neck pain, partial Horner syndrome, and TIA or stroke

A

Carotid artery dissection

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85
Q

Effective injectable therapy for prevention of chronic migraine headache

A

Botulinum toxin (accept OnabotulinumtoxinA, Botox)

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86
Q

Most common joint condition associated with anserine bursitis

A

Osteoarthritis

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87
Q

Disease most commonly associated with “capillary dropout” on nailfold capillary microscopy

A

Systemic sclerosis (accept scleroderma)

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88
Q

A bacterial organism known to trigger reactive arthritis

A

Chlamydia , Yersinia, Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, Clostridium difficile (any one)

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89
Q

Diagnosis for a painful and stiff glenohumeral joint that has lost distensibility of the capsule and range of motion

A

Frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis)

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90
Q

Most common form of lung inflammation associated with Sjögren’s syndrome

A

Nonspecific interstitial pneumonia

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91
Q

Most common congenital malformation of the gastrointestinal tract

A

Meckel diverticulum

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92
Q

Condition associated with periodic acid-Schiff-positive macrophages and negative acid-fast stain

A

Whipple disease

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93
Q

SAAG and ascitic protein concentration thresholds associated with constrictive pericarditis

A

SAAG ≥ 1.1; Protein ≥ 2.5 g/dL

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94
Q

A typically transient anemia complication of TIPS

A

Hemolytic anemia (accept microangiopathic anemia)

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95
Q

Antibiotic most commonly responsible for drug-induced liver disease

A

Augmentin

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96
Q

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC) can produce this toxin

A

Shiga toxin (accept vero toxin)

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97
Q

CDC prefers IGRA over tuberculin skin testing in patients with this medical history

A

Previous BCG vaccination (accept BCG treatment)

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98
Q

The most common organ infected by Nocardia

A

Lung

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99
Q

Infection associated with merozoites arranged in Maltese Cross pattern in peripheral blood smear

A

Babesia

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100
Q

Vancomycin minimum trough concentration recommended for S. aureus vertebral osteomyelitis

A

≥15 μg/mL

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101
Q

INR range for treatment of pulmonary embolism

A

2.0-3.0

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102
Q

Diagnosis in ventilated patient for hypotension, decreased left breath sounds and left deviated trachea

A

Right main bronchus intubation

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103
Q

Most common acid-base disorder associated with malignant hyperthermia

A

Respiratory acidosis

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104
Q

Liver condition that may result in brown pleural effusion

A

Amebic abscess

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105
Q

Most common antecedent of critical illness polyneuropathy

A

Severe sepsis (accept sepsis)

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106
Q

Most patients with leukostasis syndrome are also at risk for this oncological emergency

A

Tumor lysis syndrome

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107
Q

Playing this musical instrument is classically associated with intravascular hemolysis

A

Bongo drum

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108
Q

Two diagnoses most commonly accounting for acute fall in hemoglobin in patients with sickle cell anemia

A

Aplastic crisis and hyperhemolytic crisis

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109
Q

Definitive treatment for porphyria cutanea tarda

A

Phlebotomy

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110
Q

Giant hemangiomas can be associated with this coagulation disorder syndrome

A

DIC (also accept Kasabach-Merritt syndrome)

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111
Q

Eponym for hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer

A

Lynch syndrome

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112
Q

Standard initial therapeutic approach for patients with metastatic prostate cancer

A

Androgen deprivation therapy (accept hormone therapy)

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113
Q

Histological stain used to diagnose AL amyloidosis

A

Congo red (accept thioflavin T)

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114
Q

This mutation in non-small cell lung cancers predicts favorable response to specific tyrosine kinase inhibitors

A

EGRF activating mutation

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115
Q

Cancer suggested by positive immunostaining for chromogranin A or synaptophysin

A

A neuroendocrine carcinoma (accept small cell lung cancer, carcinoid, or islet cell tumor)

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116
Q

‘Popeye’ arm deformity is associated with rupture of this tendon

A

Biceps tendon

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117
Q

Inflammatory condition characterized by quotidian fevers, arthritis, an evanescent rash and markedly elevated serum ferritin concentrations

A

Adult Onset Still’s Disease

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118
Q

Besides the sun, common source of UVB radiation that may result in photosensitive reactions

A

Fluorescent light bulbs

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119
Q

Condition associated with pain at the radial side of the wrist during pinch grasping or during thumb and wrist movement

A

de Quervain’s tenosynovitis

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120
Q

The two most common ocular syndromes associated with giant cell arteritis

A

Amaurosis fugax and anterior ischemic optic neuropathy

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121
Q

Factor that carries factor VIII in the circulation

A

von Willebrand factor

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122
Q

Four vitamin K dependent coagulation factors

A

II, VII, IX, and X (name all)

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123
Q

A metalloproteinase that is deficient in patients with TTP

A

ADAMTS 13

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124
Q

Therapy that decreases recurrent stroke in sickle cell disease

A

Exchange transfusion

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125
Q

Cause of splenomegaly and hepatomegaly in myelofibrosis (myeloid metaplasia)

A

Extramedullary hematopoiesis

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126
Q

Vasculitis that is associated with stenosis and aneurysms of the renal artery

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

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127
Q

Electrolyte-associated syndrome characterized by quadriparesis, “locked in” syndrome, and coma

A

Osmotic demyelination syndrome (accept central pontine myelinolysis or pontine myelinolysis)

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128
Q

Diagnosis associated with this skin finding and angiomyolipomas or tubers of the skin, retina, brain, and kidneys [image of ash-leaf spot]

A

Tuberous sclerosis complex (accept tuberous sclerosis)

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129
Q

Syndrome caused by metabolism of ADH by circulating vasopressinase

A

Gestational diabetes insipidus

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130
Q

Therapeutic infusion associated with type B lactic acidosis, rhabdomyolysis, and hyperlipidemia

A

Propofol infusion

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131
Q

Lung cancer complication suggested by dyspnea, cough, and facial swelling

A

Superior vena cava syndrome

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132
Q

Components of FOLFOX chemotherapy

A

Folinic acid (leucovorin), 5-FU, oxaliplatin

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133
Q

Diagnosis suggested by peripheral blood smear [abnormal leukocytes with hairy protrusions]

A

Hairy cell leukemia

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134
Q

Cancer treatment cause of LV dysfunction that is not dose dependent

A

Trastuzumab

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135
Q

Treatment for this symptomatic, early-stage non-Hodgkin lymphoma [skin rash on back]

A

Topical corticosteroids or PUVA

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136
Q

Atrial fibrillation ablation therapy involves this cardiac structure

A

Pulmonary vein

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137
Q

Most likely finding on ECG prior to this arrhythmia [torsades de pointes EKG]

A

Long QT

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138
Q

Headache drugs implicated as a cause of valvular heart disease

A

Ergotamine and methysergide (either)

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139
Q

Lenient atrial fibrillation heart rate shown to be non-inferior to <80/min

A

<110 BPM

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140
Q

Late gadolinium enhancement on CMR is associated with this condition

A

Myocarditis

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141
Q

Sigmoidoscopic finding associate with anthraquinone laxative abuse

A

Melanosis Coli

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142
Q

Constipation diagnosis associated with failure to relax the puborectalis and external anal sphincter muscles

A

Dyssynergic constipation (accept pelvic floor dysfunction or pelvic floor dyssynergia)

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143
Q

Diagnosis associated with acute upper abdominal pain, vomiting, and an inability to pass a nasogastric tube

A

Acute gastric volvulus

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144
Q

Concurrent inflammatory bowel disease that may be found with celiac disease

A

Microscopic colitis (accept lymphocytic colitis)

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145
Q

Parasitic disease causing Symmer’s pipestem fibrosis, splenomegaly and portal hypertension

A

Schistosomiasis

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146
Q

Dementia intervention associated with increased physical conditioning and delay in cognitive decline

A

Exercise training

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147
Q

Tremor that increases at the end of goal-directed movements

A

Essential tremor

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148
Q

Encephalitis associated with muscle weakness and extrapyramidal symptoms

A

West Nile virus encephalitis (accept Japanese encephalitis)

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149
Q

Treatment as effective as plasma exchange for Guillain-Barr syndrome

A

Intravenous immune globulin

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150
Q

Term describing a form of hypertonia with an involuntary variable resistance during passive movement

A

Paratonia or gegenhalten

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151
Q

Most sting-related reactions are caused by this order of insects

A

Hymenoptera

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152
Q

Condition associated with urticaria pigmentosa

A

Mastocytosis (systemic or cutaneous mastocytosis)

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153
Q

Syndrome characterized by reaction in mouth to eating fresh fruits, nuts, and vegetables

A

Oral allergy syndrome

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154
Q

Fish-related poisoning often misdiagnosed as “seafood allergy”

A

Scombroid poisoning

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155
Q

Eponym for accentuated lines or folds below the lower lids associated with allergic conjunctivitis

A

Dennie-Morgan lines

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156
Q

Most common cause of primary glomerulopathy in developed countries

A

IgA nephropathy

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157
Q

Non-inflammatory, nonatherosclerotic disorder that leads to arterial stenosis, occlusion, aneurysm, and dissection

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

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158
Q

Antihypertensive drug class that decreases risk of acute gout

A

Calcium channel blockers (accept losartan but not ARBs)

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159
Q

Diagnostic urinalysis finding associated with acyclovir acute kidney injury

A

Needle shaped crystals (accept crystals or crystalluria)

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160
Q

Sonographic criteria for the diagnosis of type 1 ADPKD for at risk individuals ages 15 to 30 years

A

≥ 2 unilateral or bilateral cysts

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161
Q

Timing of initial imaging follow up for 4 mm pulmonary nodule on CT scan in high risk patient

A

CT scan in 12 months (accept 12 months)

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162
Q

First line treatment for reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy

A

Lower BP

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163
Q

The strategy of permissive hypercapnia is used to manage this mechanical ventilation complication associated with COPD

A

Auto-PEEP or intrinsic PEEP

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164
Q

Strongest indicator for critical illness myopathy

A

IV glucocorticoids

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165
Q

Acid-base disorder characteristic of propofol infusion syndrome

A

Metabolic acidosis (accept increased anion-gap metabolic acidosis)

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166
Q

MEN 2A and MEN 2B have these 2 conditions in common

A

Medullary thyroid cancer and pheochromocytoma

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167
Q

Syndrome manifesting the most common sex chromosome abnormality

A

Turner syndrome (gonadal dysgenesis)

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168
Q

Syndrome of vitiligo, autoimmune thyroid and adrenal disease , type 1 DM, and hypopituitarism

A

Polyglandular autoimmune syndrome

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169
Q

Adjuvant treatment for thyroid storm that blocks release of T4 and T3

A

Iodine (accept lithium)

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170
Q

Mediator of transient subclinical hyperthyroidism during first half of pregnancy

A

HCG (human choriogonadotropin)

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171
Q

Leukemia most commonly associated with leukostasis syndrome

A

AML or CML in blast crisis

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172
Q

Most common thrombophilia associated with warfarin skin necrosis

A

Protein C deficiency

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173
Q

Patients with hemochromatosis are at risk for this bacterial infection

A

L. monocytogenes, Y. enterocolitica, V. vulnificus, Klebsiella sp (any one)

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174
Q

Diagnosis accounting for Coombs-negative hemolytic anemia and Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

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175
Q

Myelodysplastic syndrome-associated skin condition that may herald change to acute leukemia

A

Sweet syndrome (acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis)

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176
Q

Class of drug for hormone-receptor positive early stage breast cancer in premenopausal women

A

Selective estrogen receptor modulator (accept SERM or tamoxifen)

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177
Q

Recommended type of endoscopic surveillance following colectomy for familial adenomatous polyposis

A

Upper endoscopy

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178
Q

Leukemic variant of cutaneous T cell lymphoma commonly presenting with erythroderma and generalized lymphadenopathy

A

Sézary syndrome

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179
Q

Most likely primary cancer accounting for metastatic squamous cell carcinoma to upper cervical lymph node

A

Head and neck

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180
Q

The Gynecologic Oncology Group definition of optimal cytoreduction for ovarian cancer in terms of remaining residual disease

A

Residual disease < 1 cm in diameter

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181
Q

Systolic blood pressure level that excludes thrombolytic therapy for acute stroke

A

≥ 185 mm Hg

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182
Q

Name of retinal finding associated with subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

Subhyaloid hemorrhage

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183
Q

Name for temporary worsening of multiple sclerosis symptoms in the setting of fever

A

Pseudorelapse (accept Uhthoff phenomenon)

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184
Q

Sustained cervical muscle contractions and abnormal posture of the head

A

Cervical dystonia (torticollis)

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185
Q

Myelitis and optic neuritis and positive NMO-IgG autoantibody

A

Neuromyelitis optica (Devic disease)

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186
Q

The most common somatoform disorder

A

Somatization

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187
Q

Personality disorder characterized by unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsiveness, and self-destructive behaviors

A

Borderline personality

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188
Q

Disorder characterized by excessive fears of scrutiny, embarrassment and humiliation in social situations

A

Social anxiety disorder (accept social phobia disorder)

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189
Q

SSRI-associated syndrome of myoclonus, muscular rigidity, and hyperthermia

A

Serotonin syndrome

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190
Q

First line therapy for post traumatic stress disorder

A

Cognitive behavioral therapy (accept CBT, exposure therapy, cognitive therapy, eye movement desensitization and reprocessing)

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191
Q

Liver disorder associated with platypnea and orthodeoxia

A

Hepatopulmonary syndrome

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192
Q

Vasculitic disorder characterized by chronic rhinosinusitis, asthma, and prominent peripheral blood eosinophilia

A

Churg-Strauss syndrome (allergic angiitis and granulomatosis)

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193
Q

Sudden jerking leg movements that may accompany restless leg syndrome

A

Periodic limb movement of sleep (accept periodic limb movement disorder)

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194
Q

Fleischner criteria for timing of next imaging study for incidentally discovered 3 mm pulmonary nodule in high risk patient

A

12 months

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195
Q

Most common cause of hypopituitarism

A

Pituitary tumor or treatment of tumor (either)

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196
Q

Cause of thyrotoxicosis and elevated TSH, elevated T3, and elevated free T4

A

TSH secreting pituitary adenoma (accept pituitary, pituitary tumor, pituitary adenoma, central hyperthyroidism)

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197
Q

In patients with diabetes, 2 criteria used to unequivocally attribute chronic kidney disease to diabetes

A

Microalbuminuria (or proteinuria) and diabetic retinopathy

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198
Q

Most common manifestation of MEN 1

A

Multigland hyperparathyroidism (accept hyperparathyroidism)

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199
Q

Name for this finding associated with obstructive substernal goiter [red face when hands are held in air]

A

Pemberton’s sign (Pemberton’s maneuver)

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200
Q

Clinical tool used to calculate 10-year probability of fracture risk

A

Fracture Risk Assessment Tool (FRAX)

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201
Q

Gold standard test for diagnosing “white coat hypertension”

A

Ambulatory blood pressure measurement (not home blood pressure measurement)

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202
Q

BMI range defining “overweight”

A

25-29.9

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203
Q

Chronic non-productive cough, atopy and positive sputum eosinophils without airway hyperresponsiveness

A

Nonasthmatic eosinophilic bronchitis (accept eosinophilic bronchitis)

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204
Q

Reasoning error characterized by accepting at face value a previous diagnosis

A

Anchoring heuristic

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205
Q

Major pulmonary complication of bleomycin therapy

A

Interstitial pulmonary fibrosis (also fibrosing alveolitis, pulmonary fibrosis)

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206
Q

Duration of VTE treatment with LMWH in patients with cancer

A

Indefinitely or until cancer is resolved (accept either)

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207
Q

Age when HPV vaccination should be initiated in females

A

Age 11-12

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208
Q

Mutated gene responsible for Gardner’s syndrome

A

APC (adenomatous polyposis coli)

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209
Q

Eponym for cancer syndrome associated with tumor protein p53 gene mutation

A

Li-Fraumeni syndrome

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210
Q

A “box car”-shaped gram-positive bacillus that produces lethal toxin

A

Bacillus anthracis (accept anthrax)

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211
Q

Recommended antibiotic treatment for Campylobacter gastroenteritis

A

Azithromycin or erythromycin

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212
Q

Cause of chronic diarrhea in patient exposed to day care center

A

Giardia Lambia

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213
Q

Bacteria responsible for emetic syndrome related to fried rice

A

Bacillus cereus

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214
Q

Breakbone fever” has been used to describe a symptom of this disease

A

Dengue fever

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215
Q

Most common medical cause of gastroparesis

A

Diabetes

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216
Q

Most common chronic motility complication following Roux-en-Y bypass operation for obesity

A

Dumping syndrome

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217
Q

IDSA recommended drug and route for severe C. difficile colitis

A

Oral Vancomycin

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218
Q

Biliary disease associated with increased risk for colorectal cancer

A

Primary sclerosing cholangitis

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219
Q

Congenital pancreatic anomaly associated with recurrent pancreatitis

A

Pancreas divisum

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220
Q

Most common cause of recurrent episodes of this condition [picture of erythema multiforme]

A

Herpes virus infection (accept HSV infection)

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221
Q

Agent causing this lesion following fish tank exposure [yellow lesion on medial ankle]

A

Tuberculosis marinum

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222
Q

Diagnosis of these lesions distributed in “Christmas tree” pattern on truck and chest

A

Pityriasis rosea

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223
Q

Childhood skin condition that can also be spread sexually

A

Molluscum contagiosum

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224
Q

Diagnosis for this condition [nikolsky sign]

A

Toxic epidermal necrolysis

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225
Q

Autoimmune blistering disease caused by autoantibody to desmoglein

A

Pemphigus vulgaris (accept pemphigus)

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226
Q

Childhood vasculitis associated with red chapped lips and strawberry tongue

A

Kawasaki disease (accept mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome)

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227
Q

Class of allergic drug reaction responsible for contact dermatitis

A

Type IV

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228
Q

Most common malignancy associated with common variable immunodeficienc

A

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma (accept lymphoma)

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229
Q

Atrial septal defect that accounts for 70% of all atrial septal defects

A

Secundum atrial septal defect

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230
Q

Best test for a patient with intermediate risk of coronary artery disease and left axis deviation

A

Exercise stress test.

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231
Q

Blood test distinguishing constrictive pericarditis from restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

B-type natriuretic peptide (accept BNP)

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232
Q

Target resting heart rate for atrial fibrillation therapy suggested by the RACE II Trial

A

Less than 110/min

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233
Q

Denominator in the number needed to treat calculation

A

Absolute risk reduction (accept control rate event-experimental rate event)

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234
Q

Formula to calculate “power”

A

1-(type 2 error rate) or 1-β

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235
Q

Ratio estimating risk of an event occurring at an instantaneous point in time

A

Hazard ratio

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236
Q

A receiver operator characteristics (ROC) curve is a plot of these 2 variables

A

Sensitivity (true positive rate) and 1- specificity (false-positive rate)

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237
Q

Benign skin tumor on the face often mistaken for basal cell carcinoma

A

Sebaceous hyperplasia

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238
Q

ACIP recommended initial age for vaccine to prevent this condition [zoster]

A

Age 60 years

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239
Q

Name for linear depressions in nail that result from chemotherapy

A

Beau lines

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240
Q

Genus of yeast associated with this condition [hyperpigmented lesions]

A

Malassezia (accept older name Pityrosporum)

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241
Q

Diagnosis for these hyperpigmented papules [underneath eyes]

A

Dermatosis papulosa nigra

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242
Q

Polycythemia vera symptom characterized by burning of palms and soles

A

Erythromelalgia

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243
Q

Liver produced peptide that down regulates enterocyte absorption of iron

A

Hepcidin

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244
Q

Name of this cell responsible for secondary pure red cell aplasia

A

Large granular lymphocyte

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245
Q

Scoring system used to estimate pretest probability of heparin induced thrombocytopenia

A

4t score

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246
Q

FDA approved DNA hypomethylating agent that improves survival in myelodysplastic syndrome

A

Azacitidine (accept decitabine)

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247
Q

ACP guideline recommends pulmonary rehabilitation for symptomatic patients with stable COPD and this FEV1

A

FEV1 < 50% predicted

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248
Q

New name of idiopathic form of bronchiolitis obliterans organizing pneumonia

A

Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (accept COP)

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249
Q

New name for bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma

A

Adenocarcinoma in situ (accept minimally invasive adenocarcinoma)

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250
Q

Poisoning associated with diagnostic mnemonic “SLUDGE”

A

Organophosphate (accept insecticide, sarin)

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251
Q

Exposure associated with radiographic finding of progressive massive fibrosis

A

Silica (accept silicosis

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252
Q

Character of tinnitus that suggests an underlying vascular cause

A

Pulsatile

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253
Q

Most common bacterial etiology of otitis externa in immunocompetent patients

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa (accept Pseudomonas)

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254
Q

Name of anterior septal vascular area responsible for 90% of epistaxis

A

Kiesselbach plexus

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255
Q

Subtype of nonallergic rhinitis associated with eating

A

Gustatory rhinitis

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256
Q

Name for mucocele at floor of mouth resulting from obstruction of sublingual glands

A

Ranula

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257
Q

Diagnosis for acute episode of muscular weakness following high carbohydrate meal

A

Hypokalemic periodic paralysis

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258
Q

24 mEq/L-(δ anion gap) calculates this entity

A

Corrected bicarbonate level

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259
Q

Mediator of retinal toxicity associated with methanol poisoning

A

Formic acid

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260
Q

Type of acidosis associated with short bowel syndrome and normal serum lactic acid level

A

D-Lactic acidosis

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261
Q

Cause of anion gap metabolic acidosis and increased osmolar gap associated with intravenous lorazepam

A

Propylene glycol

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262
Q

Word for inflammation at sites of ligamentous or tendon attachment to bone

A

Enthesitis (accept enthesopathy)

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263
Q

Condition significantly associated with high titers of anti-U1-ribonucleoprotein antibodies

A

Mixed connective tissue disease

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264
Q

Indicated pulmonary test for patient with this disorder [psoriasis]

A

Flow volume loop

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265
Q

Diagnosis for spine changes [look up x-ray]

A

Diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis (accept DISH)

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266
Q

Form of scleroderma presenting as localized indurated plaques

A

Morphea

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267
Q

Term denoting transient improvement in insulin production following treatment of newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes mellitus

A

“Honeymoon period”

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268
Q

Cause of retinal changes in this patient with diabetes

A

Photocoagulation therapy

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269
Q

In the evaluation of male hypogonadism, next test if total testosterone level is indeterminate (200-350 ng/mL)

A

Free or bioavailable testosterone

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270
Q

Cause of hypercalcemia associated with mutations of the calcium-sensing receptor gene

A

Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia

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271
Q

Prednisone threshold dose of any duration that does not require perioperative testing or replacement to prevent adrenal crisis

A

Less than or equal to 5 mg/day

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272
Q

AHRQ number 1 strategy to improve patient safety in hospitals

A

VTE prophylaxis

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273
Q

In adults who have never received Tdap, timing of Tdap following last Td vaccination

A

Anytime, regardless of interval

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274
Q

Most effective prophylactic drug for tension headache

A

Tricyclic antidepressant

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275
Q

Antibiotic with highest risk of hyperkalemia

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (accept trimethoprim)

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276
Q

HLA-B5701 allele is associated with this dermatologic condition

A

DRESS syndrome (accept hypersensitivity reaction)

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277
Q

Two USPSTF recommendations to prevent falls in elderly

A

Exercise (or PT) and Vitamin D

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278
Q

Antidepressant for elderly with weight loss and insomnia

A

Mirtazapine (accept Remeron)

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279
Q

Drug implicated in 33% of medication-related emergency hospitalizations

A

Warfarin

280
Q

Important clinical outcome predicted by gait speed for 6 meter walk

A

Survival

281
Q

The two basic components of the Mini-Cog test

A

3-Word recall and clock drawing test (both required)

282
Q

Most common genetic neurodegenerative choreic disorder

A

Huntington disease

283
Q

Seizure characterized by localized discharges without impairment of consciousness

A

Simple partial seizure

284
Q

Longest therapeutic window for rt-PA administration resulting in benefit for selected stroke patients in ECASS 3 trial

A

4.5 Hours

285
Q

Specific treatment for chronic paroxysmal hemicrania

A

Indomethacin

286
Q

Name of tic characterized by repetitive utterances of obscenities

A

Coprolalia

287
Q

Most significant risk factor for ovarian cancer

A

BRACA1/BRAC2 gene

288
Q

Evidence-based 3-component treatment for epidural cord compression

A

Corticosteroids, decompressive surgery and radiation (name all 3)

289
Q

Most common side effect of VEGF pathway inhibitors

A

Hypertension

290
Q

Only cancer where removing just the primary tumor in setting of metastatic disease improves overall outcome

A

Kidney cancer

291
Q

Prophylactic cancer treatment for small cell lung cancer following combination radiation and chemotherapy

A

Cranial radiation

292
Q

Cause of dendritic appearing corneal ulcers

A

Herpes simplex

293
Q

Eponym for this finding associated with infective endocarditis [retinal hemorrhage]

A

Roth spot

294
Q

Most common associated rheumatological disorder [hemorrhage in cornea]

A

RA

295
Q

Charles Bonnet syndrome is associated with this diagnosis [bloody fundoscopic exam].

A

Age-related wet macular degeneration (accept macular degeneration)

296
Q

Eye condition that predisposes to spontaneous occurrence of this condition [retinal detachment]

A

Myopia

297
Q

Best cardiovascular risk prediction tool for a 45-year-old woman

A

Reynolds Risk Score

298
Q

Duration of clopidogrel therapy following insertion of drug-eluting stent

A

1 year

299
Q

Specific name for this rhythm diagnosis

A

Torsades de pointes

300
Q

QT interval/square root of the RR interval calculates this entity

A

Corrected QT interval (accept QTc)

301
Q

Drug toxicity most likely responsible for this rhythm

A

Digitalis

302
Q

Time to initiate colorectal cancer surveillance in patients with inflammatory bowel pancolitis

A

8 years of disease duration

303
Q

Syndrome name for episodic abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting in habitual marijuana user

A

Cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome

304
Q

Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor least likely to metastasize

A

Insulinoma

305
Q

Most common myeloproliferative disorder associated with Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

Polycythemia vera

306
Q

Cost of 30-day supply of rifaximin to treat hepatic encephalopathy

A

$1300 (accept $1100 to $1500)

307
Q

First drug to inhibit the action of the BCR-ABL fusion gene

A

Imatinib

308
Q

First-line drug combination for high risk essential thrombocythemia

A

Hydroxyurea and aspirin

309
Q

Protein structure represented by the dark inclusions in this crystal violet stained cell

A

Denatured hemoglobin (accept Heinz body)

310
Q

Condition most likely associated with this peripheral blood smear [spurr cells]

A

CKD

311
Q

Minimum anticoagulant duration beyond parturition for VTE in pregnant patient

A

6 weeks

312
Q

“Signature injury” of soldiers deployed to Iraq and Afghanistan

A

Traumatic brain injury

313
Q

Descriptive name of severe headache that reaches maximum intensity in 60 seconds

A

Thunderclap

314
Q

Name of self-limited chorea that occurs during pregnancy

A

Chorea gravidarum

315
Q

Parkinson-plus syndrome associated with distinctive eye findings

A

Progressive supranuclear palsy

316
Q

Most common manifestation of temporal lobe epilepsy associated with this coronal FLAIR MRI

A

Complex partial seizure

317
Q

Number of symptoms required to fulfill DSM IV criteria for major depression

A

Five

318
Q

Symptom duration criteria to diagnose dysthymia

A

2 or more years

319
Q

Traumatic brain injury increases the risk of this psychiatric disorder by 6 fold

A

Posttraumatic stress disorder

320
Q

Condition characterized by repeated episodes of aggressive violent behavior grossly out of proportion to situation

A

Intermittent explosive disorder

321
Q

The SCOFF questionnaire screens for this psychiatric disorder

A

Eating disorder (accept anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa)

322
Q

Systemic disease diagnosis responsible for findings [red eyelids and face]

A

Dermatomyositis

323
Q

Eponym for test to detect abnormal lacrimal gland function with tear test strips

A

Schirmer test

324
Q

Spondyloarthropathy associated with this finding [foot rash]

A

Reactive spondyloarthropathy (accept Reiter syndrome)

325
Q

Diagnosis for woody induration of extremities, sparing hands and face, and absent Raynaud phenomenon

A

Eosinophilic fasciiti

326
Q

Crystals associated with highly destructive osteoarthritis including “Milwaukee shoulder”

A

Basic calcium phosphate (accept hydroxyapatite)

327
Q

Hemoglobin A1c level that corresponds to average glucose level of 154 mg/dL

A

7%

328
Q

Age criterion for parathyroidectomy for asymptomatic patients with primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Age <50

329
Q

The single best blood test for making the diagnosis of acromegaly

A

Insulin-like growth factor 1 (accept IGF-1)

330
Q

Cause of thyrotoxicosis and low thyroglobulin level

A

Ingestion of excess thyroid hormone (accept factitious hyperthyroidism)

331
Q

Psychiatric drug that increases set point at which calcium suppresses PTH

A

Lithium

332
Q

Most common cause of health-care related diarrhea

A

C. diff

333
Q

Empiric 2-drug antibiotic therapy for patient with this CSF gram-stain

A

Vancomycin and 3rd generation cephalosporin (e.g., cefotaxime, ceftriaxone)

334
Q

Definition of multidrug-resistant tuberculosis

A

Resistant to at least isoniazid and rifampin

335
Q

Infection associated with properdin deficiency

A

Neisseria infection (accept either Neisseria meningitis or gonorrhea)

336
Q

Condition associated with this rash is transmitted by the Lone Star tick

A

Southern tick-associated rash illness (STARI)

337
Q

Condition associated with ECG J waves (Osborne waves)

A

Hypothermia

338
Q

PO2/FiO2 Berlin criteria for severe ARDS

A

PO2/FiO2 ≤ 100

339
Q

Diagnosis suggested by these findings and interstitial lung disease with hilar adenopathy [findings on face and nose]

A

Sarcoidosis

340
Q

ACP guideline recommends bronchodilators for symptomatic patients with stable COPD and this FEV1

A

FEV1 < 60% predicted

341
Q

Chronic illicit drug abuse associated with bruxism, decreased saliva, and dental decay

A

Amphetamine abuse (accept “meth mouth”)

342
Q

Type of immune reaction mediate by T cells

A

Type IV

343
Q

Name of nonallergic watery rhinitis in response to eating

A

Gustatory rhinitis

344
Q

Preferred pharmacologic treatment for severe eyelid atopic dermatitis

A

Topical tacrolimus or pimecrolimus (accept topical calcineurin inhibitors)

345
Q

Asthma treatment consisting of a monoclonal antibody that binds IgE

A

Omalizumab

346
Q

Most frequent extrapancreatic manifestation of type-1 autoimmune pancreatitis

A

IgG-4 sclerosing cholangitis (accept sclerosing cholangitis)

347
Q

Antihypertensive drug class associated with greatest risk of gout

A

Diuretics (accept thiazides)

348
Q

Cause of acute episodic muscle weakness triggered by high carbohydrate meal

A

Hypokalemic periodic paralysis

349
Q

Name of this urine crystal [hexagonal crystal]

A

Cystine

350
Q

Decoy cells are associated with this infection in kidney transplant patients

A

BK virus (accept polyomavirus)

351
Q

Autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutation of genes coding for the alpha-3 or alpha-4 chains of type IV collagen

A

Thin basement membrane disease

352
Q

Antidote for methanol poisoning if fomepizole is unavailable

A

Ethanol

353
Q

Most common form of amiodarone pulmonary toxicity

A

Interstitial pneumonitis

354
Q

Pulmonary fungal infection that may result in a black pleural effusion

A

Aspergillus (also accept Rhizopus)

355
Q

Hyperthermia and myoclonus syndrome caused by the drug ‘Ecstasy’

A

Serotonin syndrome

356
Q

Eponym for thymoma and acquired hypogammaglobulinemia

A

Good syndrome

357
Q

Diagnosis for this longitudinal melanonychia

A

Subungual melanoma (accept melanoma)

358
Q

Most common autoimmune endocrine disorder associated with this finding [vitiligo]

A

Autoimmune thyroiditis (accept Hashimoto thyroiditis)

359
Q

Condition caused by blockage and rupture of eccrine sweat ducts

A

Miliaria (accept heat rash)

360
Q

Name for this rapidly growing, friable, benign vascular papule

A

Pyogenic granuloma

361
Q

Eponym for this non-invasive skin cancer

A

Bowen disease

362
Q

USPSTF recommends this cervical cancer screening interval when performed with both cytology and HPV testing

A

5 years

363
Q

The CDC recommends one-time screening for hepatitis C for persons born during this interval

A

1945-1965

364
Q

High-dose influenza vaccine is restricted to this group

A

Age ≥ 65 years

365
Q

Cause of lateral knee pain when climbing stairs, tenderness over lateral femoral condyle, and positive Noble test

A

Iliotibial band syndrome

366
Q

ACP guideline specifically identified this VTE prophylaxis for hospitalized medical patients as causing more harm than benefit

A

Graduated compression stockings

367
Q

Most common female sexual disorder

A

Hypoactive sexual desire disorder

368
Q

FDA approved androgen drug for severe mastalgia

A

Danazol

369
Q

Contraceptive class associated with prolonged infertility after discontinuation

A

Long acting progesterone (accept specific examples; long-acting progesterone injection, implants, or IUD)

370
Q

Period of time after intercourse levonorgestrel is effective in preventing pregnancy

A

5 days (120 hours)

371
Q

When indicated, timing of Tdap during pregnancy

A

Between 20 weeks and delivery (accept after 20 weeks; do not accept after delivery)

372
Q

A sudden, temporary edema of a localized area of skin or mucosa

A

Angioedema

373
Q

Drug associated with Samter’s triad

A

Aspirin

374
Q

Physical examination finding that excludes hereditary angioedema as cause of recurrent angioedema

A

Hives (accept urticaria)

375
Q

Fever, rash and hypotension following penicillin therapy for primary syphilis

A

Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

376
Q

Acute drug reaction characterized by generalized pustules, fever, leukocytosis and eosinophilia

A

AGEP (acute generalized exanthematous pustulosis)

377
Q

Vitamin that reduces risk of falls in the elderly

A

Vitamin D

378
Q

Vitamin deficiency associated with petechiae and perifollicular hemorrhage

A

Vit C

379
Q

Diagnosis for syncope following meal in elderly person

A

Postprandial syncope

380
Q

Normal time threshold for “Get up and go” test

A

<10 seconds (accept <10-15 seconds)

381
Q

Ipsilateral absence of this reflex is 99% sensitive for testicular torsion

A

Cremasteric reflex

382
Q

First study used to differentiate factor deficiency from factor inhibitor

A

Mixing study

383
Q

Least frequent of the myeloproliferative disorders

A

Primary myelofibrosis (accept idiopathic myelofibrosis and agnogenic myeloid metaplasia)

384
Q

Gold standard diagnostic test for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

A

Serotonin release assay

385
Q

Characterized by lack of expression of CD55 and CD59 on erythrocytes

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

386
Q

FDA approved thrombopoietin mimetic

A

Romiplostim, eltrombopag (either)

387
Q

Recommended duration of antibiotic treatment for inhalational anthrax

A

60 days

388
Q

Treatment of first recurrence of mild C. difficile colitis

A

Metronidazole [new evidence recommends vancomycin for all though]

389
Q

Shock syndrome caused by bacterial exotoxins that act as superantigen

A

Toxic shock syndrome

390
Q

Tropical zoonosis associated with hemorrhage, abdominal pain, hepatosplenomegaly and this finding [severe injected sclera]

A

Leptospirosis

391
Q

Infection associated with this erythrocyte inclusion [maltese cross]

A

Babesioses

392
Q

Alcohol poisoning associated with normal acid-base homeostasis

A

Isopropyl alcohol

393
Q

Diagnosis for normal blood pressure, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, and elevated renin and aldosterone levels

A

Bartter syndrome

394
Q

Treatment of scleroderma renal crisis and serum creatinine >3 mg/dL

A

ACE inhibitor (accept specific ACE inhibitor)

395
Q

Characterized by glycosuria, phosphaturia, aminoaciduria, and tubular proteinuria

A

Proximal (type 2) renal tubular acidosis (accept Fanconi syndrome)

396
Q

Renal vascular disease associated with this finding on angiography [google an image]

A

Fibromuscular disease (accept Fibromuscular dysplasia)

397
Q

Hand finding virtually diagnostic for dermatomyositis

A

Gottron papules

398
Q

Cause of red, hot, painful ears and saddle nose deformity

A

Relapsing polychondritis

399
Q

Treatment for familial Mediterranean fever

A

Colchicine

400
Q

In patients with chronic limb pain, measurement of skin temperature helpful to establish this diagnosis

A

Complex regional pain syndrome (accept reflex sympathetic dystrophy and causalgia)

401
Q

Characterized by pain, numbness, and tingling in the forefoot, aggravated by high heel shoes

A

Morton neuroma

402
Q

Maximum TIMI score

A

Seven

403
Q

Cause of STEMI in woman with migraines and Raynaud syndrome

A

Coronary vasospasm (accept Prinzmetal angina, variant angina)

404
Q

Characterized by pathologic fibrofatty infiltration of the right ventricle

A

Arrhythmogenic RV dysplasia

405
Q

Diagnosis for restrictive cardiomyopathy, neuropathy, proteinuria, hepatomegaly and purpura

A

Amyloidosis

406
Q

Diagnosis associated with septal shudder and bounce on echocardiography

A

Constrictive pericarditis

407
Q

Diagnosis for atopy, recurrent food impaction and esophageal rings, furrows, plaques, or strictures

A

Eosinophilic esophagitis

408
Q

Immunological cause of false-negative IgA anti-tTG antibody test for celiac disease

A

IgA Def

409
Q

Cause of nausea, early satiety, and bloating in patient with systemic sclerosis

A

Gastroparesis (accept delayed gastric emptying)

410
Q

Eponym for perihepatitis and pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome

411
Q

Syndrome of abdominal pain, bloating, and difficulty belching following fundoplication

A

Gas-bloat syndrome

412
Q

Women with peritoneal carcinomatosis of unknown primary are treated for this cancer

A

Ovarian

413
Q

The Gail model 5-year risk cut point dividing “high” and “low” risk

A

1.67% (accept range >1.66% to 1.7%)

414
Q

Histological scoring system for patients with biopsy proven prostate cancer

A

Gleason score

415
Q

Eponym for gastrointestinal metastases to ovary

A

Krukenberg tumor

416
Q

The BRAF mutation is specific for this endocrine cancer

A

Papillary thyroid cancer (accept thyroid cancer)

417
Q

An ulcerative form of impetigo

A

Ecthyma

418
Q

This parasitic cutaneus infection is transmitted by the sandfly

A

Leishmaniasis

419
Q

Painful condition of the axillary, inguinal, and perianal areas

A

Hidradenitis suppurativa

420
Q

Develops after infection with β-hemolytic Streptococcus [multiple red spots on back]

A

Guttate psoriasis

421
Q

Eponym describing the ability to laterally extend bullae by application of pressure

A

Asboe-Hansen sign (accept indirect Nikolsky sign or Nikolsky II sign)

422
Q

Split urine collection (daytime and nighttime) used to diagnose this condition

A

Orthostatic (accept positional) proteinuria

423
Q

Predominant protein comprising the matrix of urinary casts

A

Tamm-Horsfall mucoprotein

424
Q

Diagnosis suggested by serum potassium of 7.0 meq/L and this ECG [normal]

A

Pseudohyperkalemia

425
Q

Multiple myeloma type typically associated with low anion gap

A

IgG myeloma

426
Q

Eponym for renal carcinoma, CNS hemangioblastomas and retinal angiomas

A

von Hippel-Lindau disease

427
Q

Eponym for criteria used to diagnose acute rheumatic fever

A

Jones criteria

428
Q

Syndrome of nonarthritic lateral hip pain that worsens with direct pressure

A

Trochanteric bursitis

429
Q

Most likely diagnosis of a lateral knee large cyst lesion]

A

Baker’s cyst [google image]

430
Q

Eponym for test that measures forward spine flexion

A

Schober test

431
Q

Name for cutaneous sarcoidosis characterized by red indurated papules, plaques, or nodules on the central face

A

Lupus pernio

432
Q

Agent responsible for painful vesicular blepharitis

A

Herpes zoster

433
Q

Name for a focal area of vision loss

A

Scotoma

434
Q

Eponym given to tonic pupil without reaction to light or accommodation

A

Adie’s pupil

435
Q

Most common noninfectious cause of granulomatous uveitis and hypercalcemia

A

Sarcoidosis

436
Q

Name for asymptomatic raised yellow plaque on the lateral side of the limbus

A

Pingueculae

437
Q

Most common presentation of thoracic endometriosis

A

Catamenial pneumothorax (accept pneumothorax)

438
Q

Device that uses 4 rather than 2 wavelengths of light to detect oxyhemoglobin, deoxyhemoglobin, carboxyhemoglobin, and methemoglobin

A

Co-oximeter

439
Q

Most common exposure associated with rounded atelectasis

A

Asbestos

440
Q

Cardinal distinguishing radiological feature of lymphangioleiomyomatosis

A

Homogenous thin-walled cysts

441
Q

Syndrome associated with elevated ratio of LH to FSH, elevated testosterone and dehydroepiandrosterone

A

Polycystic ovary syndrome

442
Q

Eponym for benign thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the breast

A

Mondor disease

443
Q

Disorder associated with primary amenorrhea and 45 XO karyotype

A

Turner syndrome (accept gonadal dysgenesis)

444
Q

Agent causing sexually transmitted vaginitis

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

445
Q

Vaginitis associated with normal vaginal pH

A

Candidal vaginitis

446
Q

Initial test to diagnose immune-mediated hemolysis

A

Coombs test (direct antiglobulin test)

447
Q

Anemia associated with this nail finding [picture of spoon nails]

A

Iron deficiency anemia

448
Q

Irradiated blood prevents this fatal transfusion-related complication

A

Graft vs Host disease (GVHD)

449
Q

Condition associated with elevated homocysteine and normal methylmalonic acid levels

A

Folate def

450
Q

Hemolytic anemia associated with IgM antibodies directed against RBC I/i antigens

A

Cold agglutinin disease

451
Q

Name of intracytoplasmic inclusion associated with ehrlichiosis

A

Morulae

452
Q

Animal associated with non-bite rabies transmission

A

Bats

453
Q

Etiological agent responsible for cat scratch disease

A

Bartonella henselae

454
Q

Diagnosis for this painless lesion in animal-hide worker

A

Cutaneous anthrax (accept anthrax)

455
Q

Most likely malarial agent causing an 8% RBC parasitemia rate

A

P. falciparum

456
Q

Forearm rolling test is used to elicit this motor finding

A

Hemiparesis

457
Q

Scoring system to predict risk of stroke at 2, 7, and 90 days after TIA

A

The ABCD2

458
Q

Dementia presenting with early personality changes, fixation, disinhibition and emotional lability

A

Frontotemporal dementia

459
Q

Cause of noninflammatory, nonatherosclerotic carotid artery stenosis in a young woman

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

460
Q

Minimum duration of clopidogrel treatment for drug-eluting stents

A

12 months

461
Q

Acronym for regular SVT with no visible P wave

A

AVNRT (atrioventricular nodal reentrant tachycardia)

462
Q

Tachycardia associated with an abrupt halving of the pulse rate with Valsalva

A

Atrial flutter

463
Q

A cannon wave involves this part of the venous wave form

A

A wave

464
Q

Diagnosis for slow regular rhythm associated with changing intensity of S1

A

Atrioventricular dissociation (accept complete heart block, complete AV block, 3rd degree block)

465
Q

Protozoan cause of this condition [picture of achalasia]

A

Trypanosoma cruzi (accept Chagas disease)

466
Q

Most common benign hepatic tumor

A

Cavernous hemangioma (accept hemangioma)

467
Q

In addition to gallstones, classic ultrasound imaging finding of acute cholecystitis

A

Pericholecystic fluid and thickened wall (accept either)

468
Q

Percussion of Traube’s semilunar space is used to detect this condition

A

Splenomegaly

469
Q

Specific gene mutation most often associated with hemochromatosis

A

C282Y gene mutation

470
Q

Immunoglobulin involved in most cases of anaphylaxis

A

IgE

471
Q

Gell and Coombs immunologic classification type for serum sickness

A

Type III

472
Q

The most common congenital immunological defect

A

Selective IgA deficiency

473
Q

Group of urticarial disorders induced by environmental stimuli

A

Physical urticaria

474
Q

Darier sign is associated with mediator release from this cell type

A

Mast Cell

475
Q

Elevated level rules out surreptitious insulin administration as cause of hypoglycemia

A

C-peptide

476
Q

24-Hour albumin excretion defining microalbuminuria in men

A

30-300 mg/day

477
Q

Diagnosis for hyperosmolar hypernatremia and elevated arginine vasopressin (AVP)

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (diabetes insipidus not acceptable)

478
Q

Look up picture for this..

A

Semmes-Weinstein monofilament (accept Semmes-Weinstein or monofilament)

479
Q

Hematologic disorder associated with the autoimmune polyglandular syndromes

A

Pernicious anemia

480
Q

The most common cause of conductive hearing loss

A

Cerumen impaction (accept cerumen, occluded external ear canal)

481
Q

Office test that examines the relative adequacy of air and bone conduction of sound

A

Weber or Rinne (either)

482
Q

Condition associated with bony overgrowth of the footplate of the stapes

A

Otosclerosis

483
Q

Condition associated with ozena

A

Atrophic rhinitis (accept atrophy of the nasal conchae, atrophic rhinosinusitis)

484
Q

Most commonly identified bacterial cause of Lemierre’s syndrome

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum (accept Fusobacterium)

485
Q

Word for a normally nonpainful stimulus that evokes pain

A

Allodynia

486
Q

Initial drug and route of administration for acute optic neuritis

A

Intravenous methylprednisolone

487
Q

Most likely diagnosis for neck pain, Horner syndrome, pulsatile tinnitus and cranial nerve palsy

A

Carotid artery dissection

488
Q

Disease associated with diminished visual acuity while taking a hot shower

A

Multiple sclerosis

489
Q

Diagnosis for myoclonic and generalized tonic-clonic seizures on awakening with onset in adolescence

A

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

490
Q

Name to describe a fever that returns every day

A

Quotidian fever

491
Q

Name of reflex associated with blinking when forehead is tapped

A

Glabellar

492
Q

Diagnosis associated with pain upon resisted thumb extension

A

de Quervain’s tenosynovitis

493
Q

Name for respiratory pattern characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by periods of apnea

A

Biot’s respiration

494
Q

Enlargement of the Delphian node suggests this cancer diagnosis

A

Thyroid

495
Q

Diagnosis associated with bilateral auricular chondritis

A

Relapsing polychondritis (accept polychondritis)

496
Q

Diagnosis for chronic, burning pain after an injury that does not correspond to a dermatome

A

Reflex sympathetic dystrophy or complex regional pain syndrome (either answer)

497
Q

SLE complication characterized by acute leg paralysis, bladder and bowel dysfunction

A

Transverse myelitis

498
Q

Name of test associated with these findings 48 hours following 5 insertions of a sterile needle [red papules]

A

Pathergy test

499
Q

Classical bacterial cause of folliculitis following hot tub exposure

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

500
Q

Diagnosis of a bronchoscopy with a parasite.

A

Strongyloides stercoralis (accept Strongyloides)

501
Q

Look up picture of..

A

Subconjunctival hemorrhage (accept conjunctival hemorrhage)

502
Q

Look up picture of..

A

Hyphema

503
Q

Look up picture of..

A

Iritis (accept anterior uveitis iridocyclitis)

504
Q

Retinal findings associated with osteitis deformans

A

Angioid streaks

505
Q

Look up picture of..

A

Central retinal artery occlusion

506
Q

Diagnosis for ankle pain and periosteal new bone formation

A

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

507
Q

Most common diagnosis for anterior knee pain in young athletic woman

A

Patellofemoral syndrome

508
Q

look up location of anserine bursa

A

k

509
Q

Aquired bone disease associated with hearing loss

A

Paget disease

510
Q

Most common extra-articular manifestation of ankylosing spondylitis

A

Acute anterior uveitis

511
Q

Infectious agent causing of aplastic crisis in sickle cell anemia

A

Parvovirus B19

512
Q

The leading cause of mortality associated with blood product administration

A

TRAILI

513
Q

Urticaria pigmentosa is the most common finding associated with this disorder

A

Mastocytosis (cutaneus or systemic)

514
Q

Cause of paresthesias following plasmapheresis

A

Hypocalcemia (accept metabolic alkalosis)

515
Q

The enzymatic step disrupted by warfarin

A

Gamma carboxylation

516
Q

Genus of tick transmitting Lyme disease

A

Ixodes

517
Q

Diagnosis for lateral neck film showing “thumb sign”

A

Epiglottitis

518
Q

Classical bacterial cause of cellulitis associated with fish tank exposure

A

Mycobacterium marinum

519
Q

Cholesterol-lowering drug used as adjuvant therapy for relapsing C. difficile diarrhea

A

Cholestyramine

520
Q

Viral agent of meningitis associated with rodent or rodent feces exposure

A

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus

521
Q

Mediator of most cases of malignancy related hypercalcemia

A

Parathyroid hormone-related protein (or peptide) (accept PTHrP)

522
Q

Industry most strongly associated with bladder cancer

A

Dye, rubber, or leather industries (any one answer)

523
Q

Diagnosis suggested by a positive sulfosalicylic acid test but negative urine protein dip stick

A

Immunoglobulin light chains or nonalbumin proteinuria (either)

524
Q

Glomerular disease classically associated with solid tumors

A

Membranous nephropathy

525
Q

Metabolic condition associated with malabsorption causing nephrolithiasis

A

Hyperoxaluria or hypocitraturia (either)

526
Q

Arrhythmia characterized by 3 or more morphological patterns of P waves and variable PR intervals

A

Multifocal atrial tachycardia

527
Q

Therapeutic Intervention of choice for symptomatic non-calcified mitral stenosis

A

Balloon valvuloplasty

528
Q

Syndrome associated with pseudo-RBBB pattern and ST elevation in V1-V3

A

Brugada syndrome

529
Q

Treatment of choice for recurrent pericarditis

A

Colchicine

530
Q

Drug combination to treat Kawasaki disease

A

Aspirin and gamma globulin

531
Q

Non-drug intervention that increases exercise tolerance in patients with COPD

A

Pulmonary rehabilitation

532
Q

Recommended sleep position for patients with obstructive sleep apnea

A

Lateral (naming one side is acceptable)

533
Q

Hemoglobin abnormality associated with falsely elevated oxygen saturation on pulse oximetry

A

Carboxyhemoglobin or methemoglobinemia (either)

534
Q

Diagnosis for a nonimmunologic bronchial hyperresponsive reaction to an inhaled irritant

A

Reactive airways dysfunction syndrome (accept RADS)

535
Q

A potentially fatal obstructive pulmonary disorder associated rheumatoid arthritis

A

Bronchiolitis obliterans

536
Q

Skin lesion that is devoid of melanocytes and intraepidermal melanin pigment

A

Vitiligo

537
Q

Main topical treatment for comedonal-only acne

A

Topical retinoid

538
Q

Characteristically associated with “spaghetti and meatball” pattern on KOH preparation of scale

A

Tinea versicolor

539
Q

Name of rash associated with acute rheumatic fever

A

Erythema marginatum

540
Q

Eponym for a pustular neutrophilic dermatitis, fever, arthritis, and leukocytosis

A

Sweet syndrome

541
Q

Initial drug therapy for pituitary apoplexy

A

Corticosteroid therapy

542
Q

Physical examination finding in adolescent female that confirms estrogen production

A

Breast development

543
Q

Diabetic complication caused by progressive loss of epinephrine and glucagon response to hypoglycemia

A

Hypoglycemic unawareness

544
Q

Antibody most commonly associated with Hashimoto thyroiditis

A

Thyroid peroxidase antibody

545
Q

Diagnosis associated with microcalcifications within a thyroid nodule

A

Papillary carcinoma

546
Q

Bone disease associated with aromatase inhibitors

A

Osteopenia and osteoporosis (either

547
Q

Condition characterized by persistent rhinitis in the setting of chronic use of nasal decongestant

A

Rhinitis medicamentosa

548
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitor that is contraindicated in asthma

A

Zanamivir

549
Q

Class of drug associated with the development of compulsive behaviors

A

Dopamine agonist (accept bromocriptine, pramipexole, ropinirole)

550
Q

Skin disease that is an FDA-approved indication for thalidomide

A

Erythema nodosum leprosum (accept leprosy)

551
Q

Common inotropic drug that causes ST-segment depression

A

Digoxin

552
Q

Congenital valve disorder associated with aortic coarctation

A

Bicuspid aortic valve

553
Q

Class of antihypertensive drug associated with increased risk of CHF

A

Alpha-blockers

554
Q

Vasculitis associated with IgA immune-complex deposition

A

Henoch-Schönlein purpura

555
Q

The most common residua after repair of tetralogy of Fallot

A

Pulmonary valve regurgitation

556
Q

Auditory complication of acute salicylate poisoning

A

Tinnitus or deafness (either one)

557
Q

Urine crystals (mineral) associated with ethylene glycol poisoning

A

Calcium oxalate crystals

558
Q

Cause of histotoxic hypoxia due to mitochondria poisoning

A

Hydrogen cyanide

559
Q

Fish most commonly responsible for scombrotoxic fish poisoning

A

Tuna, mackerel, bonito, and skipjack (any 1)

560
Q

Probable poisoning responsible for “mad as a hatter” syndrome in Alice in Wonderland

A

Mercury poisoning

561
Q

Rheumatologic syndrome associated with Yersinia enterocolitica

A

Reactive arthritis (accept Reiter syndrome)

562
Q

Diagnosis for lateral hip pain that worsens with resisted abduction of the hip

A

Trochanteric bursitis

563
Q

Disease associated with subcutaneous calcium deposits under pressure surfaces

A

Scleroderma

564
Q

Name of deforming but nonerosive arthropathy associated with SLE

A

Jaccoud arthropathy

565
Q

A psoriasis-like skin lesion on palms and soles associated with reactive arthritis

A

Keratoderma blennorrhagicum

566
Q

Recommended colon cancer screening interval with flexible sigmoidoscopy for average risk individuals

A

Every 5 years

567
Q

Liver disease associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus, thyroiditis, and celiac sprue

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

568
Q

The most common nonmalignant hepatic tumor

A

Follicular nodular hyperplasia

569
Q

Malabsorption syndrome associated with increased risk for intestinal lymphoma

A

Celiac disease (accept Crohn disease)

570
Q

Mechanism of acute varicocele associated with renal carcinoma

A

Obstruction of the testicular vein

571
Q

Monoclonal antibody that reduces mortality in early-stage, HER2-positive breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab

572
Q

The infectious agent causing nasopharyngeal carcinoma

A

EBV

573
Q

Tumor associated with severe, watery diarrhea, flushing, hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, and hyperglycemia

A

Vasoactive intestinal peptide tumor

574
Q

Vitamin deficiency syndrome associated with carcinoid syndrome

A

Pellagra (accept niacin, vitamin B3 or nicotinic acid deficiency)

575
Q

Eponym for retracting the knees to the chest when neck is flexed

A

Brudzinski sign

576
Q

Neurodegenerative disease associated with micrographia

A

Parkinson

577
Q

Physical finding on back of the hand that is associated with bulimia

A

Calluses, scarring or ulceration over dorsum of hand (accept any one)

578
Q

Anterior midline mass that moves upward with the tongue is protruded

A

Thyroglossal cyst

579
Q

Physical examination sign defined as spinal or limb paresthesias elicited by neck flexion

A

Lhermitte sign

580
Q

Name of exercise recommended for urge, stress, and mixed incontinence

A

Pelvic muscle exercises or Kegel exercise (either)

581
Q

Cancer associated with lichen sclerosis

A

Vulvar cancer (accept squamous cell carcinoma)

582
Q

Chronic anovulation results in this endometrial change

A

Endometrial hyperplasia or malignancy (accept either)

583
Q

Amsel criteria are used to diagnose this disorde

A

BV

584
Q

Diagnosis suggested by dyspareunia and punctate ulcers around the Bartholin glands

A

Vulvar vestibulitis

585
Q

Diagnosis for febrile illness characterized by a vesicular eruption involving the mouth, hands, and feet

A

Hand, foot, and mouth disease (accept Enterovirus infection)

586
Q

Non-gastrointestinal complication of E. coli O157:H7 infection

A

Hemolytic-uremic syndrome (accept TTP) or reactive arthritis (accept Reiter syndrome)

587
Q

Source of rabies in US patients without obvious inoculation

A

Bats

588
Q

Name of syphilitic lesions in intertriginous areas characterized by moist, white plaques

A

Condylomata lata

589
Q

Infection classically associated with hemorrhagic mediastinitis

A

Anthrax

590
Q

Genitourinary source of this cellular structure found in the urine Glomerulus (dysmorphic erythrocytes)

A

Glomerulus

591
Q

Most common condition responsible for pseudohyponatremia

A

Hyperlipidemia and multiple myeloma (either answer)

592
Q

Cause of proteinuria in young healthy male with normal BP, creatinine, BUN and microscopic urinalysis

A

Orthostatic proteinuria

593
Q

Most common cardiac valve abnormality associated with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

A

Mitral valve prolapse

594
Q

Diagnosis for these urine crystals [coffin lid]

A

Struvite (accept triple phosphate)

595
Q

Name for zone of ischemic, viable brain tissue following an ischemic stroke

A

Ischemic penumbra or watershed

596
Q

Common name for syndrome characterized by quadriplegia and paralysis of horizontal eye movements

A

Locked in syndrome

597
Q

Anatomical location of the lesion responsible for internuclear ophthalmoplegia

A

Medial longitudinal fasciculus

598
Q

Diagnosis for dementing syndrome characterized primarily by impairment of interpersonal and executive function

A

Frontotemporal Dementia

599
Q

CSF protein 14-3-3 is associated with this condition

A

Creutzfeldt-Jacob dementia

600
Q

Part of the macula that is the point of visual fixation

A

The fovea

601
Q

Mechanism by which topical beta-blockers reduce intraocular pressure

A

Reduction of aqueous humor secretion

602
Q

Agent causing conjunctivitis and umbilicated papular lesions on lid margins

A

Molluscum contagiosum

603
Q

Meaning of metamorphopsia

A

Seeing wavy or distorted lines

604
Q

Physical examination hallmark of endophthalmitis

A

Hypopyon (accept pus in anterior chamber)

605
Q

Pickwickian syndrome refers to this condition

A

Obesity hypoventilation syndrome

606
Q

Stage 2 chest x-ray findings in sarcoidosis

A

Adenopathy plus infiltrates

607
Q

Antibody implicated in TRALI syndrome

A

Antileukocytic antibody

608
Q

Name of memory disturbance associated with GABA agonists for sleep

A

Anterograde amnesia

609
Q

The most specific symptom of narcolepsy

A

Cataplexy

610
Q

Diagnosis for nonseasonal rhinitis and negative allergy skin tests

A

Vasomotor rhinitis

611
Q

Disease associated with Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

A

Syphilis

612
Q

Congential immune deficiency syndrome classically associated with recurrent infection with encapsulated bacteria

A

Common variable immunodeficiency

613
Q

Immune disease associated with abnormal nitroblue tetrazolium dye test

A

Chronic granulomatous disease

614
Q

Eponym describing urticarial lesions that worsen when stroked

A

Darier sign

615
Q

Diagnosis characterized by flushing and persistent central facial erythema

A

Rosacea

616
Q

Blistering disease associated with intercellular antibody and complement deposition

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

617
Q

Psoriatic-like genital lesion associated with reactive arthritis

A

Circinate balanitis

618
Q

Diagnosis associated with elevated LDL, tendinous xanthoma, and family history of early cardiovascular death

A

Familial hypercholesterolemia (or, type 2)

619
Q

Hypoglycemic drug that decreases GI absorption of carbohydrates

A

Acarbose

620
Q

Provocative test to assess estrogen status in secondary amenorrhea

A

Progestogen challenge

621
Q

Syndrome of gynecomastia, small testes, and hypergonadotropic hypogonadism

A

Klinefelter syndrome

622
Q

Pituitary disorder associated with colon polyps and colon cancer

A

Acromegaly

623
Q

Primary therapy for common variable immunodeficiency

A

Immunoglobulin replacement therapy

624
Q

Immune deficiency that poses risk of allergic reaction to transfused plasma

A

IgA deficiency

625
Q

Type of physical urticaria that means “to write on the skin”

A

Dermographism (accept dermatographism)

626
Q

Drug class used to prevent recurrences of angioedema in patients with hereditary angioedema

A

Androgens (also accept synthetic 17-alpha alkylated androgens, or danazol, stanozolol oxandrolone, oxymetholone, methyltestosterone)

627
Q

Drug for epinephrine refractory anaphylaxis in patients taking beta-blockers

A

Glucagon

628
Q

Diagnosis for asymptomatic unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and normal hemoglobin and liver chemistry tests

A

Gilbert disease

629
Q

Most common physical examination finding associated with Barrett esophagus

A

Obesity (accept BMI > 25)

630
Q

Alternative medication to antibiotics in mild traveler’s diarrhea

A

Bismuth subsalicylate

631
Q

Restricted drug for irritable bowel syndrome associated with ischemic colitis

A

Alosetron

632
Q

Drug class that decreases the risk of cholecystitis in acute biliary colic

A

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

633
Q

Drug causing von Willebrand factor to be released from storage sites

A

Desmopressin (accept DDAVP, arginine vasopressin)

634
Q

A two-gene defect [(–/–), (α/α)] produces this thalassemia variant

A

α-thalassemia

635
Q

Blood banking procedure to prevent primary alloimmunization to HLA antigens

A

Leukocyte reduction (accept Leukopore filter)

636
Q

Drug treatment for erythromelalgia

A

Aspirin

637
Q

Diagnosis for IgM antibodies directed against RBC I/i antigens

A

Cold agglutinin disease

638
Q

The most common symptom of scabies

A

Itching

639
Q

Common drug that exacerbates chronic idiopathic urticaria

A

Aspirin (accept NSAIDs)

640
Q

Topical drug treatment for superficial basal cell carcinoma

A

Imiquimod or 5-fluorouracil (either acceptable

641
Q

Most frequent side-effect of isotretinoin

A

Dry lips and eyes (accept dry skin)

642
Q

Syndrome of familial hypercalcemia and low urine calcium level

A

Familial benign hypocalciuric hypercalcemia (accept familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia)

643
Q

Diagnosis in a hyperosmolar patient with an elevated level of arginine vasopressin

A

Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

644
Q

Isthmus of thyroid gland is inferior to this cartilage

A

Cricoid cartilage

645
Q

Best drug class to restore fertility in women with prolactinoma

A

Dopamine agonist (accept bromocriptine or cabergoline)

646
Q

Mechanism of type 1 amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis

A

Iodine-induced thyrotoxicosis

647
Q

The ossicles conduct vibration from the ear drum to this structure

A

Cochlea

648
Q

Endolymphatic hydrops is associated with this disease

A

Meinier Disease

649
Q

Condition associated with otoliths in semicircular canal

A

Benign positional vertigo

650
Q

Eponym for acute onset of interstitial keratitis and vestibuloauditory dysfunction

A

Cogan syndrome

651
Q

Environmental cause of auricular calcification

A

Frostbite (accept hypothermia, cold exposure)

652
Q

Device that reduces afterload and increases coronary perfusion

A

Intra-aortic balloon pump

653
Q

MI location most commonly associated with papillary muscle rupture

A

Inferior wall

654
Q

First-line drug for congenital long QT syndrome

A

β-blocker

655
Q

Mechanism responsible for the pacemaker syndrome

A

Atrioventricular dyssynchrony (accept dyssynchrony)

656
Q

Anatomical location of pancreatic cancer associated with obstructive jaundice

A

Head of pancreas

657
Q

Second most common cause of cancer death in the U.S.

A

Colorectal cancer

658
Q

Surgical intervention associated with increased risk of renal cancer

A

Renal transplantation

659
Q

Stage classification for a patient with small-cell lung cancer involving both lungs

A

Extensive (accept stage IV)

660
Q

A tripartite benign tumor composed of blood vessel, muscle, and fat elements

A

Angiomyolipoma (accept hamartoma)

661
Q

Device that prevents 50% of unintentional carbon monoxide poisonings

A

Carbon monoxide detector

662
Q

Time after acetaminophen overdose when aminotransferase levels begin to rise

A

36 hours (accept any answer within 24 to 72 hours range)

663
Q

Cause of bright red venous blood due to mitochondria poisoning

A

Hydrogen cyanide

664
Q

Acute metal exposure associated with abdominal colic, headache, and fatigue

A

Lead

665
Q

Stimulation of this parasympathetic receptor produces salivation, bronchorrhea, and bronchospasm

A

Muscarinic

666
Q

Look up picture of..

A

Keratoacanthoma

667
Q

Look up picture of..

A

paget disease of the breast

668
Q

Look up picture of renal failure skin finding..

A

uremic frost

669
Q

Most common cause of goiter worldwide

A

Iodine deficiency

670
Q

Dietary syndrome characterized by hypercalcemia, metabolic alkalosis, and renal failure

A

Milk-alkali syndrome

671
Q

Ovarian disorder associated with polyglandular autoimmune syndrome

A

Ovarian failure

672
Q

Most common endocrine expression of the MEN 2A syndrome

A

Medullary thyroid cancer

673
Q

Eponym for the most common inherited glycosphingolipid metabolism disorder

A

Fabry Disease

674
Q

Diagnosis for intestinal villous atrophy and positive antiendomysial antibody

A

Celiac sprue

675
Q

Liver tumor associated with oral contraceptive

A

Hepatic adenomas

676
Q

Immune deposit associated with dermatitis herpetiformis

A

IgA

677
Q

Defining imaging characteristic of hepatic follicular nodular hyperplasia

A

Central scar

678
Q

Syndrome of colonic polyps, benign soft tissue, skin, bone, and desmoid tumors

A

Gardner syndrome

679
Q

Most common secondary cause of tricuspid regurgitation

A

Pulmonary hypertension

680
Q

STD associated with thoracic aortic aneurysm formation

A

Syphilis

681
Q

Cause of coronary arteritis in children

A

Kawasaki disease

682
Q

Type of urinary incontinence associated with sudden need to void

A

Urge incontinence

683
Q

Age criteria for routine Chlamydia screening in sexually active women

A

25 years or younger

684
Q

Most likely diagnosis for this normal cervical finding [redness around the os]

A

Cervical ectopy (accept ectropion)

685
Q

First-line drug class to reduce PMS symptoms

A

SSRIs (accept a member drug within class)

686
Q

Vulvar lichen sclerosis predisposes to this malignant condition

A

Vulvar squamous cell carcinoma

687
Q

Diagnosis of purpura of the legs [look up picture of]

A

asculitis (accept leukocytoclastic vasculitis)

688
Q

Jaccoud arthropathy is primarily associated with this collagen vascular disease

A

SLE

689
Q

Diagnosis for hypogammaglobulinemia and recurrent bacterial infections

A

Common variable immune deficiency

690
Q

Infection characteristically associated with terminal complement deficiency

A

Neisseria (accept N. gonorrhea or meningitidis)

691
Q

Immune deficiency that is contraindication to IV immunoglobulin therapy

A

IgA deficiency

692
Q

Hypersensitivity reaction associated with chronic transplant rejection

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

693
Q

Diagnosis suggested by galactorrhea and amenorrhea

A

Prolactinoma

694
Q

Most common cause of goiter and hypothyroidism in USA

A

Hashimoto disease

695
Q

Fasting glucose range for “impaired fasting glucose”

A

100-125 mg/dL

696
Q

Drug that inhibits thyroid peroxidase

A

Methimazole and propylthiouracil (either answer)

697
Q

Diabetes in elderly resulting from autoimmune beta-cell failure

A

Latent autoimmune diabetes in adults (accept LADA)