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Course L > Third Year[][]] > Flashcards

Third Year[][]] Flashcards

1
Q

The water cycle describes the:

A. Percolation and evaporation of water underground.

B. Movement of water between earth and sky[][][][][][][]]

C. Evaporation of water to form clouds[][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. Condensation of water to form rain or snow[][][][][][][]

A

D. Condensation of water to form rain or snow.

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2
Q

The water that does not seep into the earth immediately is called surface water or:

A. Artesian.

B. Run-off[]]

C. Rainpools.

D. Overburden.

A

B. Run-off.

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3
Q

Precautions must be taken when using lakes or rivers for drinking water because the water:

A. Can be easily polluted.

B. Is usually acidic[][][][][][][]

C. Is usually alkaline[][][][][]

D. May be soft[][][][][][][][][][]]

A

A. Can be easily polluted.

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4
Q

Areas where water collects in sand, gravel or cracks in the rock which can be almost any size.

A. Aquifers.

B. Artesia[]]

C. Ogallala.

D. Orifices.

A

A. Aquifers.

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5
Q

The difference between an artesian spring and other springs is that an artesian spring supplies water that is:

A. At temperatures around 30°C (86°F).

B. Under pressures higher than atmosphere pressure.

C. Very high in beneficial minerals[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

D. Enough to serve the needs of a standard single family.

A

B. Under pressures higher thatn atmosphere pressure.

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6
Q

Natural springs used as a water source can be protected from contamination by installing a:

A. Water filter.

B. Water tower.

C. Spring box[]]

D. Pitless adapter.

A

C. Spring box.

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7
Q

An unusual but often successful method used to locate a potential source of water is

A. Tarot card readings.

B. Dowsing or divining.

C. Monitoring drill vibrations.

D. Using magnetic resonance imaging devices.

A

B. Dowsing or divining.

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8
Q

The uppermost level of groundwater that collects above bedrock is known as:

A. Zone of penetration.

B. Aqueduct[][][][][][][][][][]

C. Water table[][][][][][][][]]

D. Saturation table[][][][]

A

C. Water table.

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9
Q

Well or spring water for domestic use is often collected and stored in:

A. Pitless adaptors.

B. Cisterns[][][][][][][]]

C. Plastic-lined ponds.

D. Buckets[][][][][][][][][][]]

A

B. Cisterns.

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10
Q

A source of pollution must be:

A. Uphill from a well.

B. Downhill from a well.

C. More than 1.5 m (5’) away from a well.

D. More than 6 m (20’) away from a well.

A

B. Downhill from a well.

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11
Q

What is one of the primary considerations when selecting the type of well that will be constructed?

A. Soil conditions at the well site.

B. Type of well cap desired[][][][][]]

C. Type of well pump[][][][][][][][][][][]]

D. Whether the well will supply potable or non-potable water.

A

A. Soil conditions at the well site.

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12
Q

A percussion cable tool rig would be used to establish a:

A. Drilled well.

B. Dug well[][]]

C. Jetted well[]

D. Bored well[]

A

A. Drilled well.

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13
Q

Driven wells are established by pounding sections of pipe tipped with:

A. Diamond drill.

B. Power augers.

C. Point/screen assemblies.

D. Casing/screen units[][][][]]

A

C. Point/screen assemblies.

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14
Q

A well that is established by directing high-pressure streams of water into the well hole is known as:

A. Hydra-drive well.

B. Jetted well[][][][][]]

C. Bored well[][][][][]]

D. Jet-drilled well[][]

A

B. Jetted well.

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15
Q

When a well has been established and is ready for pump and piping, a well log should be available that:

A. Details each step of the process.

B. Contains maintenance information for well fittings.

C. Shows important water levels and physical details of the well.

D. Lists the type of pump suitable for the depth and yield of the well.

A

C. Shows important water levels and physical details of the well.

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16
Q

Well points are a special fitting used in:

A. Shallow or deep wells.

B. Driven or jetted wells[]

C. Artesian or pumped wells.

D. Drilled or bored wells[][][][]

A

B. Driven or jetted wells.

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17
Q

Well screens are a special fitting installed:

A. In the aquifer.

B. At the well head.

C. Below the frost line.

D. To allow water to seep in from the top soil.

A

A. In the aquifer.

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18
Q

Well casings prevent the sides of the well from collapsing, provide a reservoir for water and:

A. Condition the water supply.

B. Provide easy access for servicing.

C. Support above ground pumps or well caps.

D. Prevent contamination of the well water[][][]]

A

D. Prevent contamination of the well water.

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19
Q

Jet lances create a well hole by:

A. Compressed air and downward pressure.

B. Downward pressure and auguring[][][][][][][]

C. Downward pressure and water erosion[][]

D. Suction and auguring[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

C. Downward pressure and water erosion.

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20
Q

Where a submersible pump is used, you should install a:

A. Pump house.

B. Sloped concrete cap.

C. Pit with a removable cover.

D. Pitless adapter[][][][][][][][][][][]

A

D. Pitless adapter.

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21
Q

An example of a positive displacement well pump is a:

A. Jet pump.

B. Piston pump.

C. Pressure tank.

D. Submersible pump.

A

B. Piston pump.

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22
Q

Any pump that moves water through the action of impellers is called a:

A. Centrifugal pump.

B. Positive displacement pump.

C. Pressure control pump[][][][][]]

D. Motor-driven pump[][][][][][][][]]

A

A. Centrifugal pump.

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23
Q

The reciprocating pump that supplies bursts of water on its forward and its backward stroke is called:

A. Double-acting.

B. Multi-stage[][][]

C. Two-position[]]

D. Kinetic[][][][][][][]

A

A. Double-acting.

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24
Q

A jet pump moves water by using:

A. Air displacement.

B. Compression[][][]]

C. Centrifugal force.

D. Reciprocation[][][]

A

C. Centrifugal force.

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25
Q

Water flowing through a venturi tube inside an ejector:

A. Loses pressure and velocity.

B. Is supplied in greater volumes to the impellar inlet.

C. Increases in velocity and acts to supercharge the flow to the impellar.

D. Increases volume to ensure a continual supply to the impellar[][][][][][][]

A

C. Increases in velocity and acts to supercharge the flow to the impellar.

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26
Q

A diffuser or volute casing is used in a centrifugal pump to:

A. Slow the water flow and increase pressure.

B. Distribute the water to steady the discharge supply.

C. Increase the water velocity and decrease the pressure.

D. Slow the water and decrease the pressure[][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

A. Slow the water flow and increase pressure.

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27
Q

The main difference between a shallow well jet pump and a deep well jet pump (aside from their differing abilities to lift water) is:

A. The size of the motor.

B. The location of the ejector.

C. The curvature of the volute casing.

D. The distance the pump can be offset from the well head.

A

B. The location of the ejector.

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28
Q

A submersible pump can lift water from very deep wells because:

A. It has a supercharger on the inlet side.

B. The pump is so close to the source of water.

C. It is a multi-staged centrifugal pump[][][][][][][][]

D. It has a double-acting piston[][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

C. It is a multi-staged centrifugal pump.

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29
Q

To make sure enough water is driven down the return line to the ejector in a jet pump, you can use a:

A. Pressure guage.

B. Control valve[][][]

C. Venturi tube[][][]]

D. Wye housing[]][]

A

B. Control valve.

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30
Q

A submersible pump requires multiple impellars because the water velocity that can be developed is limited by the:

A. Small diameter of the impellars.

B. Increased pressure in the bottom of a well.

C. Lower pressure in the bottom of the well[][]]

D. Length of the pump casing[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

A. Small diameter of the impellars.

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31
Q

Screens are installed on the intake pipe of a pump to:

A. Prevent dirt and debris from entering the pump.

B. Speed up the water as it enters the pump[][][][][]]

C. Isolate the pump during repairs[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. To prevent anyone from putting their hands into the pump.

A

A. Prevent dirt and debris from entering the pump.

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32
Q

The purpose of a foot valve is to:

A. Support the pump.

B. Prevent water from entering the pump during repairs.

C. Support the ejector of a deep well jet pump[][][][][][][][][]

D. Maintain water in the pump intake line[][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

D. Maintain water in the pump intake line.

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33
Q

A pressure tank provides storage capacity, maintains pressure in the water supply system and:

A. Acts as a backflow preventer.

B. Minimizes wear on the pump[]

C. Offers a convenient point to test water quality.

D. Water to be recirculated to the ejector inlet[][]]

A

B. Minimizes wear on the pump.

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34
Q

The pressure switch that causes the pump to cut in and cut out generally has a pressure differential of:

A. 10 psi.

B. 15 psi.

C. 20 psi.

D. 25 psi.

A

C. 20 psi.

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35
Q

Over time, the air molecules inside galvanized steel pressure tanks will begin to absorb into the water, causing:

A. Effervescence at the discharge pipe.

B. Decreasing pressures within the tank.

C. Increased cycling of the pump[][][][][][][]

D. The air-volume control to malfunction.

A

C. Increased cycling of the pump.

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36
Q

Many pump manufacturers recommend that check valves be installed at:

A. Every change in direction of the piping run.

B. At least every 15 m (50’) along the suction piping.

C. The beginning and end of the intake piping[][][][][]]

D. The top of the well[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

D. The top of the well.

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37
Q

Before initial start-up, most centrifugal and reciprocating pumps must be:

A. Primed with clean water.

B. Thoroughly lubricated[][]

C. Primed with oil[][][][][][][][]]

D. Blown clean with an air hose.

A

A. Primed with clean water.

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38
Q

Air-volume controls are not required on pressure tanks that have:

A. A capacity of more than 227 L (60 US gallons).

B. An internal bladder or diaphram[][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

C. Snifter valves installed[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. A galvanized coating[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

B. An internal bladder or diaphram.

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39
Q

Submersible pump motors are less likely to overheat during load conditions because:

A. Of their mechanical linkage design.

B. Water is constantly cooling the motor.

C. They are self-priming[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. All internal parts are copper-plated[][]

A

B. Water is constantly cooling the motor.

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40
Q

The force that moves water from a well through the suction pipe to the inlet of the jet pump is:

A. Static suction pressure.

B. Atmospheric pressure[]

C. The difference between suction pressure and discharge pressure.

D. Net positive suction head[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

B. Atmospheric pressure.

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41
Q

In theory, the maximum suction lift of a pump is:

A. 7.6 m (25’).

B. 10 m (34’)[]

C. 12 m (39’)[]

D. 15.2 m (50’)

A

B. 10 m (34’).

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42
Q

The maximum practical suction lift of a pump is:

A. 7.6 m (25’).

B. 10 m (34’)[]

C. 12 m (39’)[]

D. 15.2 m (50’).

A

A. 7.6 m (25’).

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43
Q

The maxium practical suction lift of a pump is affected by mechanical losses in the pump, friction losses and the:

A. Depth of the well.

B. Placement of the suction pipe.

C. Elevation above sea level[][][][]]

D. Drawdown level[][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

C. Elevation above sea level.

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44
Q

The friction losses that occur in piping runs are determined by the pipe diameter, total length of piping, the rate and volume of flow through the piping and the:

A. Diameter and depth of the well.

B. Size of the pump outlet and motor.

C. Age of the pipe and what it is made of.

D. Viscosity and temperature[][][][][][][][][][][]

A

C. Age of the pipe and what it is made of.

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45
Q

For a fixed length of piping, as pipe diameters increase friction losses will:

A. Decrease.

B. Increase[][]

C. Decrease at 0.08 m (0.25’) for every 0.8 m (1/4”) diameter increase.

D. Increase at 0.08 m (0.25’) for every 0.8 m (1/4”) diameter increase[]

A

A. Decrease.

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46
Q

The vertical distance that water travels from the water level in the well to the highest supply point plus the friction losses that occur as water flows through piping and fittings plus the pressure at the supply points equals the:

A. Total head.

B. Dynamic head.

C. Net positive suction.

D. Delivery head[][][][][]]

A

A. Total head.

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47
Q

Pump curves supplied by pump manufacturers illustrate the:

A. Performance characteristics of pumps.

B. Relative costs of different pumps[][][][][]

C. Optimum length and size of piping[][][]]

D. Capacity required for standard households.

A

A. Performance characteristics of pumps.

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48
Q

A simple method of estimating household demand and selecting the appropriate pump is to:

A. Count the number of people and multiply by 10 USGPM.

B. Allow 100 gallons per day per bathroom[][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

C. Count the number of fixtures and multiply by 1 USGPM[]]

D. Allow 10 gallons per fixture, multiply by the number of bathrooms and divide by the number of stories.

A

C. Count the number of fixtures and multiply by 1 USGPM.

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49
Q

A way of estimating peak demands for farms and ranches is to calculate the estimated daily consumption and:

A. Divide by 120 minutes.

B. Double it[][][][][][][][][][][][]]

C. Divide by the number of fixtures or faucets.

D. Divide by 24 hours and multiply by 30 minutes.

A

A. Divide by 120 minutes.

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50
Q

Pumping a new well clear of dirt or cuttings from drilling is known as:

A. Priming.

B. Drawdown.

C. Developing.

D. Suctioning[]

A

C. Developing.

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51
Q

Why might you check the date on the well driller’s log before installing a pump?

A. To check if the well water needs to be treated.

B. To determine if a second well analysis is needed.

C. Because water levels can fluctuate widely as seasons change.

D. To ensure that the well dimensions are accurate and the pump will fit.

A

C. Because water levels can fluctuate widely as seasons change.

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52
Q

The foot valve on a shallow well jet pump should be positioned:

A. At least 0.9 m (3’) below pumping level of the well.

B. At least 0.3 m (1’) below the maximum drawdown level.

C. At least 0.9 m (3’) from the bottom of the well[][][][][][][][][]

D. At least 0.3 m (1’) above the static level[][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

C. At least 0.9 m (3’) from the bottom of the well.

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53
Q

A submersible pump is generally lowered into the well until it is positioned:

A. At least 25 cm (10”) from the well casing.

B. At least 30 cm (12”) below the static level.

C. At least 0.9 m (3’) below pumping level of the well.

D. At least 0.3 m (1’) from the bottom of the well[][][][][]]

A

C. At least 0.9 m (3’) below pumping level of the well.

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54
Q

Why should you connect the first section of riser pipe to the discharge outlet of the pump very carefully?

A. To prevent damage to the pump casing.

B. To ensure that the pump remains aligned with piping.

C. So that the pressure switch will not require adjustment.

D. To prevent damage to the check valve in the discharge chamber.

A

D. To prevent damage to the check valve in the discharge chamber.

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55
Q

Drop cables on submersible pumps are protected from damage by:

A. Securing cable at intervals to the riser pipe.

B. Inserting neoprene sleeves inside the well casing.

C. Clipping cable to the well casing[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

D. Running cable inside a protective tubing[][][][][][][][]]

A

A. Securing cable at intervals to the riser pipe.

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56
Q

You should never lower a pump and piping into a well before:

A. Sealing the well head.

B. Disinfecting the well[][]

C. Securing a safety cable to the pump.

D. Testing the pump motor and discharge.

A

C. Securing a safety cable to the pump.

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57
Q

Before completing the installation of a submersible pump you should check the:

A. Rotation and current unbalance of the motor.

B. Check valve in the discharge side of the pump.

C. Diameter of the well casing[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. Supply pressures required at the house[][][][][][]

A

A. Rotation and current unbalance of the motor.

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58
Q

Before completing the installation of a shallow well jet pump you should:

A. Prime the pump.

B. Close the control valve.

C. Test the pressure guage.

D. Install a ground fault circuit interrupter.

A

A. Prime the pump.

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59
Q

If you are installing a diaphram or bladder pressure tank, before you fill it with water you should check that the pressure in the tank is:

A. Equal to the highest pressure switch setting.

B. Lower than the reading on the pressure guage.

C. Equal to the lowest pressure switch setting[][][][]

D. Higher than the supply pressure required[][][][][]

A

C. Equal to the lowest pressure switch setting.

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60
Q

When you are asked to solve an operating problem in a pumping system, where should you start?

A. Work from simplest to most complex solution.

B. Work from the suction side to the discharge side of the pump.

C. Always start with the pump motor and drive system[][][][][][][][][][]

D. Always check pump and pipe sizing first[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

A. Work from simplest to most complex solution.

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61
Q

To check the suctioin lift of a shallow well jet pump, you would install the vacuum gauge:

A. On the discharge outlet of the pump.

B. In the primer plug opening[][][][][][][][][]]

C. Between the ejector and the pump suction inlet.

D. Between the foot valve and the ejector inlet[][][][]

A

C. Between the ejector and the pump suction inlet.

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62
Q

If your shallow well jet pump is only producing a very low flow of water, and a vacuum gauge test resulted in a high gauge reading, you would look for:

A. An air lock in the pump.

B. Plugged strainer or foot valve.

C. A plugged relief valve on the discharge side.

D. A worn impellar[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

B. Plugged strainer or foot valve.

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63
Q

If you turn on your deep well jet pump and it won’t start, what would you look for first?

A. An air lock in the pump.

B. A blown fuse[][][][][][][][][][]

C. An oil leak[][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. Improperly primed pump.

A

B. A blown fuse.

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64
Q

A pressure tank that is waterlogged (air pressure too low because air is being absorbed in water) would cause:

A. The pump to cycle too often.

B. The diaphram in the pressure switch to burst.

C. An oil leak[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. An air lock in the pump[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

A. The pump to cycle too often.

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65
Q

A pressure tank that is airbound (air pressure too high) would cause:

A. The pump to cycle too often.

B. The faucets in the supply line to burp.

C. Air bubbles to seize the air-volume control.

D. The pump to run backwards[][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

B. The faucets in the supply line to burp.

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66
Q

If the cylinder check valve in a deep well reciprocating pump were jammed open, you would notice:

A. Low supply or no supply with the pump running.

B. Burping faucets in the supply system[][][][][][][][][][]

C. The discharge pipe would begin to shudder[][][]]

D. The pump would overheat[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

A. Low supply or no supply with the pump running.

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67
Q

A defective pressure switch on a piston pump would cause:

A. The piston to complete only half its forward stroke.

B. The valves inside the pump chamber to wear out quickly.

C. The pump to run noisily[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. The pump to start and stop too frequently[][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

D. The pump to start and stop too frequently.

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68
Q

If the impellars in a submersible pump wear and there is too much clearence between the impellar and the housing, what might you notice?

A. Pump will not shut off.

B. Pump will not start[][][]

C. The discharge pipe would begin to shudder.

D. Sudden increase in water flow[][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

A. Pump will not shut off.

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69
Q

If you have to pull a submersible pump to replace a worn component, you should take the opportunity to:

A. Send the motor out for a complete tune-up.

B. Ensure that all connections are tight and there are no leaks.

C. Test the pump’s operating pressure and capacity[][][][][][][][][][]

D. Flush the well clear of sand and debris[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

B. Ensure that all connections are tight and there are no leaks.

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70
Q

True or False?

Repairing pump components is always the most economical solution although many pump manufaturers encourage you to replace parts instead.

A

False.

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71
Q

Before you repair or replace a foot valve that is stuck open, you should close the valve on the suction side of the pump so that:

A. The pump cannot turn on and draw in more water.

B. The prime of the pump is maintained[][][][][][][][][][][][]

C. You can drain water out of the suction pipe before removing it.

D. Suction pressure is removed and the foot valve may close[][][]]

A

B. The prime of the pump is maintained.

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72
Q

You hold the foot valve upright and pour water in the opening. If water does not flow out the bottom of the valve, you would know that:

A. The valve spring is faulty.

B. The valve disk is worn[][]]

C. Dirt has jammed the spring or disk.

D. The foot valve is not faulty[][][][][][][]]

A

D. The foot valve is not faulty.

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73
Q

A common solution to a malfunctioning pressure switch is to:

A. Clean the contact points inside the switch box.

B. Replace the contacts inside the switch box[][][]]

C. Replace the pressure tank with a larger capacity tank.

D. Re-adjust the connection to the pressure tank[][][][][][][]

A

A. Clean the contact points inside the switch box.

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74
Q

An indication that the diaphram in the air-volume control had ruptured would be a:

A. Stuttering pump.

B. Sure in water flow.

C. Leak at the air-volume control on the tank.

B. Sudden drop in pump discharge pressure.

A

C. Leak at the air-volume control on the tank.

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75
Q

If the air-volume control on a centrifugal tank malfunctions, you would check the air-volume control box and:

A. Discharge pressure from the tank.

B. The air flow through the orifice[][][]

C. For leaks at the inlet and outlet of the tank.

D. An overheated pump[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

B. The air flow through the orifice.

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76
Q

When you remove a malfunctioning ejector from a jet pump, what would you check first when deciding whether to repair or replace it?

A. The ratio of the throat area to the length of the ejector.

B. Alignment of the venturi tube[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

C. For plugs in the venture tube[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. Corrosion damage at the inlet to the ejector[][][][][][][][][]

A

C. For plugs in the venture tube.

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77
Q

If you decide to repair worn impellar vanes, before welding or patching the vane you should:

A. Run the pump dry.

B. Close isolation valves on both sides of the pump.

C. Flush the ejector[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. Grind away the spongy metal on the surface[][][][]

A

D. Grind away the spongy metal on the surface.

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78
Q

Clean the contact points of a pressure switch with:

A. Emery cloth.

B. Toothbrush[]

C. Soap[][][][][][]]

D. Vinegar and water solution.

A

A. Emery cloth.

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79
Q

The device which allows fresh air into the air-volume control assembly is the:

A. Orifice.

B. Float arm.

C. Snifter valve.

D. Expanding diaphram.

A

C. Snifter valve.

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80
Q

A dishwashing or food or preparation sink has what type of overflow?

A. Concealed overflow.

B. Standing overflow[][]]

C. Direct waste and overflow.

D. Indirect waste and overflow.

A

B. Standing overflow.

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81
Q

The discharge of a garburator or food waste disposal connects to the sanitary drainage system:

A. Always using a grease interceptor.

B. Never using a grease interceptor[]]

C. Only as indirect connection[][][][][][][]

D. Never connects to the sewar system because of the solid waste.

A

B. Never using a grease interceptor.

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82
Q

Where is there a requirement that a hand washing station be installed in all food preparation areas?

A. National Plumbing Code of Canada.

B. Public Health Act[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

C. Canadian Standards Association[][][]]

D. American Water Works Association[]

A

B. Public Health Act.

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83
Q

Which two dimensions are indicated on a floor plan?

A. Width and length.

B. Length and height.

C. Width and height[]]

D. Length and angle.

A

A. Width and length.

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84
Q

How can you best visualize a mechanical drawing?

A. By plotting the fixtures on a drawing.

B. By finding the overall dimensions[][][]

C. By sketching a mechanical plan view.

D. By sizing all the piping on a drawing[]

A

C. By sketching a mechanical plan view.

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85
Q

Which drawing distorts the angles to give a better visual perspective?

A. Orthographic drawing.

B. Isometric drawing[][][][]

C. Mechanical drawing[][]

D. Plan view drawing[][][]]

A

B. Isometric drawing.

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86
Q

When choosing materials for a sump pump system, your fittings:

A. Will be rated to be at least equal to the operating pressure.

B. WIll be rated for two times operating pressure[][][][][][][][][][][][]

C. Will not need a pressure rating[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. Will be designed to withstand one and a half times maximum pressure.

A

D. Will be designed to withstand one and a half times maximum pressure.

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87
Q

What material choices should be made if acid and corrosive waste is present in a drain?

A. Corrosive-resistant materials must be used.

B. All drainage fittings are corrosive resistant and are not an issue.

C. As long as you have adequate grade for proper drainage you do not require corrosive-resistant materials.

D. There are no special corrosive resistant materials available for drain, waste or vent systems[][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

A. Corrosive-resistant materials must be used.

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88
Q

Why would you need to protect water service piping by means of check valve?

A. If the water service piping material is rated for cold-water service only, care must be taken to protect it from expanded hot water.

B. Protection from using a check valve is for back siphonage only[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

C. You do not require check valve on water service piping, as it is a closed system.

D. You do not require a check valve on water service piping, as hot water will never expand enough to reach the service piping.

A

A. If the water service piping material is rated for cold-water service only, care must be taken to protect it from expanded hot water.

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89
Q

Why is caulked lead joint not allowed for use on a potable water system?

A. Caulked lead joints are not able to withstand the pressure of a potable water system and lead will dissolve in water and pose a grave health hazard.

B. The oakum used on a lead joint creates the health hazard and therefore is the reason for not allowing caulked lead joints.

C. There is no problem in using caulked lead joints for potable water distribution[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. Caulked lead is used on cast iron piping and it is the leaching of iron from the cast iron that poses the health threat.

A

A. Caulked lead joints are not able to withstand the pressure of a potable water system and lead will dissolve in water and pose a grave health hazard.

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90
Q

How can linear expansion or contraction be prevented in pipe?

A. Linear expansion and contraction can be prevented in all piping by always anchoring both ends of the pipe.

B. Linear expansion cannot be stopped or prevented in pipe, but it can be directed and controlled.

C. We need not be concerned with linear expansion or contraction in piping, as the coefficients are such a minimal amount they would not add up to anything.

D. Linear expansion and contraction cannot be measured, so prevention is not required.

A

B. Linear expansion cannot be stopped or prevented in pipe, but it can be directed and controlled.

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91
Q

Where does an indirectly connected fixture drain terminate?

A. Termination of the drain is always by connection to the building sewer using only elastomeric compound couplings.

B. Termination of the drain must be at least 25 mm below the flood level rim of the directly connected fixture drain.

C. Termination of the drain must be above the flood level rim of a directly connected fixture drain by means of an air break.

D. It does not matter where you terminate an indirectly connected fixture drain because there is no ridgid piping used in the termination point.

A

C. Termination of the drain must be above the flood level rim of a directly connected fixture drain by means of an air break.

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92
Q

Which method of backflow prevention is the best possible choice?

A. Double check valve assembly.

B. Pressure vacuum breaker assembly.

C. Dual check valve backflow preventer.

D. Air gap[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

D. Air gap.

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93
Q

At what point on an atmospheric vacuum breaker is the critical level?

A. The lowest point on the device, unless otherwise marked on the device.

B. The top of the poppet is considered to be the critical level[][][][][][][][][][][][]]

C. The centreline of the outlet shall be deemed the critical level[][][][][][][][][][]

D. The top of the atmospheric vent cap is the critical level[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

A. The lowest point on the device, unless otherwise marked on the device.

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94
Q

What are the three degrees of hazard when choosing a cross-connection control device?

A. Extreme, Moderate, Passive.

B. Severe, Moderate, Minor[][][]

C. Excessive, Moderate, Unlikely.

D. Insignificant, Unlikely, Minor[][]

A

B. Severe, Moderate, Minor.

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95
Q

What is the correct method for calculating the total hydraulic load on a drainage system?

A. The hydraulic load is the sum of only the connected fixtures to the drainage system.

B. The hydraulic load will be the sum of all fixtures plus any roof or paved surfaces that may use the drainage system, but does not include any future fixtures.

C. The hydraulic load will be the sum of all fixtures connected plus future fixtures and any roof or paved surfaces that may use this drainage system.

D. The hydraulic load will be the sum of all fixtures plus future fixtures, but never drainage from any roof or paved surfaces that may use this drainage system.

A

C. The hydraulic load will be the sum of all fixtures connected plus future fixtures and any roof or paved surfaces that may use this drainage system.

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96
Q

What is the correct method of sizing DWV piping within a building?

A. The top-down method, in which all piping is sized starting from the roof terminal and working toward the building sewer.

B. The bottom-up method, in which all piping is sized starting from the building sewar where it enters the building and progressing toward the roof terminal.

C. Size the piping for groups of fixtures and then size the common piping[][][][][][][][]

D. All of the above are methods used in sizing DWV piping within a building[][][][][][]

A

D. All of the above are methods used in sizing DWV piping within a building.

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97
Q

What will effect the maximum permitted hydraulic load drained to a sanitary building drain or sewar?

A. The size of the connected branches.

B. The slope of the drain or sewar[][][][]]

C. The number of floors on which fixtures are installed.

D. The number of floors on which fixtures are installed only when serving as a combined sewar.

A

B. The slope of the drain or sewar.

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98
Q

What is the maximum temperature allowed for discharge into a drainage system of a clear water waste or sewage?

A. 77°C or 171°F.

B. 75°C or 167°F.

C. 77°C or 167°F.

D. 75°C or 171°F.

A

B. 75°C or 167°F.

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99
Q

What is the main reason for sanitizing?

A. To use more heat.

B. To use more chemicals.

C. To destroy and prevent organisms that may be present on equipment or utensils after cleaning.

D. To dispose of food particles[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

C. To destroy and prevent organisms that may be present on equipment or utensils after cleaning.

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100
Q

What does the acronym NSF represent with regard to sanitizing equipment?

A. National Science Foundation.

B. National Sanitation Foundation.

C. National Sports Center[][][][][][][]]

D. National Standard Format[][][][]]

A

B. National Sanitation Foundation.

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101
Q

Why would the installation of plumbing fixtures have to conform to the Alberta Building Code?

A. It is not a requirement; installation of plumbing fixtures must only conform to the Alberta Building.

B. The requirements for fire protection, occupant safety, accesibility, lighting and ventilation must be adhered.

C. They only have to conform when urinals are installed[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

D. They only have to conform if future developments are likley[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

B. The requirements for fire protection, occupant safety, accesibility, lighting and ventilation must be adhered.

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102
Q

Do all fixtures need to be installed in such a manner that they will be readily accessible for use, cleaning and maintenance?

A. No; Only floor-mounted fixtures excluding grease traps.

B. No; Only wall-mounted fixtures[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

C. Yes; All fixtures, including grease interceptors, will be installed in such a manner that they could be readily accessible for use, cleaning and maintenance.

D. No; All fixtures, except grease interceptors, will be installed in such a manner that they would be readily accessible for use, cleaning and any possible maintenance.

A

C. Yes; All fixtures, including grease interceptors, will be installed in such a manner that they could be readily accessible for use, cleaning and maintenance.

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103
Q

Why is it necessary to anchor a water closet to a floor or wall by means of a flange?

A. It is not required as long as the water closet is firmly attached to the floor flange.

B. This ensures that the water closet will be stable and secure and will not allow for any unnecessary strain that may be transmitted to the piping.

C. Water closets are anchored to make a watertight seal[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. It is not required as long as the water closet is firmly attached to the wall flange[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

B. This ensures that the water closet will be stable and secure and will not allow for any unnecessary strain that may be transmitted to the piping.

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104
Q

What is the maxium recommended flow velocity for cold water through copper tube?

A. 3.0 m/s (10 ft/s).

B. 2.4 m/s (8ft/s)[][]

C. 1.5 m/s (5ft/s)[][]]

D. 1.2 m/s (4ft/s)[][]

A

B. 2.4 m/s (8ft/s).

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105
Q

Which type of faucet requires the most maintenance?

A. Washer.

B. Washerless.

C. Ball[][][][][][][]]

D. Cartridge[][]

A

A. Washer.

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106
Q

Which type of faucet is generally used for residential lawn services?

A. Standard or two-handle.

B. Single lever[][][][][][][][][][][]

C. Frost-free[][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. Metering[][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

E. Electronic[][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

C. Frost-free.

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107
Q

Which type of faucet is least likely to be used in a residential application?

A. Standard or two-handle.

B. Single lever[][][][][][][][][][][]

C. Frost-free[][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. Metering[][][][][][][][][][][][][]

E. Electronic[][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

E. Electronic.

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108
Q

Which two (2) styles of faucets use seals held in place with the aid of a spring to prevent water leakage through the faucet?

A

Ball.

Washerless.

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109
Q

What must be done prior to working on any faucet?

A

Turn off the water to both hot and cold water supplies.

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110
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the name of A?

A

Stem Assembly Cartridge.

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111
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the name of B?

A

Spline.

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112
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the name of C?

A

Stem.

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113
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the name of D?

A

Bonnet Seal.

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114
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the name of E?

A

Bibwasher.

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115
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the name of F?

A

Brass Seat.

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116
Q

What is the advantage of using a plastic nut and washer rather than a steel nut and washer for fastening atwo-handle faucet to the fixture?

A

If the faucet should leak around the stem, a plastic nut and washer will not deteriorate as a metal nut and washer would.

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117
Q

What is attached to a shower valve to aid in correct positioning of the valve?

A

Plaster guard.

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118
Q

In what two configurations are bibb washers manufactured?

A

Bevel.

Flat[][]

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119
Q

What does the bibb washer close against in most washer-style faucets?

A

Brass Seat.

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120
Q

Why is it important that the bibb washer fit into the retaining cup on the faucet stem?

A

The retaining cup may split or expand upon tightening or when the bibb washer is compressed during usuage, causing damage to the stem or internal damage to the faucet.

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121
Q

How can you tell if the brass seat in a washer-style faucet is replaceable?

A

The opening that the washer seats against will be hexagonal or square.

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122
Q

What causes wire drawing of a brass seat?

A

A fine spray of water passing between the bibb washer and the surface of the brass seat.

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123
Q

What is used to direct water flow from the kitchen faucet to the vegetable spray?

A

Diverter.

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124
Q

Pliers should not be used on which type of faucet surfaces?

A

Chrome.

Special finishes.

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125
Q

The National Plumbing Code of Canada stipulates that shower valves must be restricted to what maximum flow temperature?

A

49°C (120°F).

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126
Q

The cold water supply control must be on the ____ side and the hot water control must be on the ____ side.

A

Right.

Left[]]

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127
Q

What are the three (3) traditional types of flush valves used on urinals and water closets?

A

Diaphram.

Metering[]

Piston[][][]]

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128
Q

What is the minimum size of supply line required for metering flush valves on urinals?

A

1/2”.

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129
Q

What is the minimum size of supply line required for diaphram flush valves used on urinals?

A

3/4”.

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130
Q

What is the minimum size of supply line required for piston flush valves for use on urinals?

A

1”.

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131
Q

What is the minimum water supply pressure for piston or diaphram flush valves for use on urinals?

A

100 kPa (15 psi).

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132
Q

What is the minimum water supply pressure for piston or diaphram flush valves for use on water closets?

A

100 kPa (15 psi).

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133
Q

According to the National Code of Canada, what is the maximum pressure that a flush valve can be operated under?

A

550 kPa (80 psi).

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134
Q

What size of outlet tube is required from a flush valve for connection to a urinal?

A

3/4”.

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135
Q

What size of outlet tube is required from a flush valve for connection to a water closet?

A

1 1/2”.

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136
Q

What is used to signify the flush volumes of various diaphrams and piston assemblies?

A

Colour coding.

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137
Q

What is the most likely cause if a diaphram flush valve flushes too long or fails to shut off?

A

The bypass hole in the diaphram assembly is dirty or plugged.

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138
Q

What is the most likely cause if a piston flush valve flushes too long or fails to shut off?

A

The piston is not seating properly or the bypass orifice is clogged with foreign matter.

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139
Q

Electronic flush valves are powered by what source?

A

Batteries.

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140
Q

List three (3) materials used to manufacture jet tubs.

A

Acrylic.

Enamalled Cast Iron.

Fiberglass[][][][][][][][][]]

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141
Q

How are pumps sized for jet tubs?

A

By the size and number of jets.

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142
Q

How many jets can be found in a standard water-pumped jet bathtub?

A

4 to 12.

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143
Q

What device is used with the pump to produce the rate of flow through the jets?

A

Air Volume Switch.

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144
Q

What size of drain is required for a jet tub?

A

1 1/2” minimum.

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145
Q

Do jet tubs require ground fault breakers?

A. Yes.

B. No[]

A

Yes.

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146
Q

List five (5) materials used to make bar sinks.

A

Cast Iron.

China[][][]

Enamelled Steel.

Fiberglass[][][][][]]

Stainless Steel[]]

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147
Q

What is another name for a bar sink?

A

Entertainment sink.

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148
Q

What size of drain is required for a bar sink?

A

1 1/2”.

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149
Q

Bidets are made out of what type of material?

A

Vitreous china.

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150
Q

What type of trap do bidets have?

A. Integral trap.

B. Exposed trap.

A

B. Exposed trap.

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151
Q

Can a bidet be used as a W.C.?

A. Yes.

B. No[]

A

B. No.

152
Q

What size of water supply would run to a bidet?

A

3/8”.

153
Q

A bidet is:

A. Floor-mounted.

B. Wall mounted[]]

A

A. Floor-mounted.

154
Q

What is a bidet used for?

A

For washing the lower parts of the body.

155
Q

What is the minimum size of trap for a bidet?

A

1 1/4”.

156
Q

What determines the height of a drinking fountain?

A

The average height of the people using it.

157
Q

What is the most important consideration when installing a drinking fountain?

A

Height of the drain pipe rough-in.

158
Q

To what temperature is water cooled for a drinking fountain?

A

10°C.

159
Q

What size of trap is used for a drinking fountain?

A

1 1/4”.

160
Q

What is the purpose of the shield on the bubbler on a drinking fountain?

A

Prevents contamination of the nozzle.

161
Q

What is the purpose of a bypass on a flush valve?

A

Restores pressure in the upper chamber.

162
Q

What is the minimum size of flush valve that can serve a urinal?

A

1/2”.

163
Q

What is the recommended length of flush for a urinal?

A

3 to 5 seconds.

164
Q

On which side of the center line of the urinal should the water line to the flush valve be?

A

Right-hand side.

165
Q

What must you do to adjust the length of the flush?

A

Adjust the bypass opening.

166
Q

According to the National Plumbing Code of Canada, what devices must flush valves be equipped with?

A

Shut-off valve.

Vacuum breaker.

167
Q

What prevents back-siphonage through a flush valve?

A

Vacuum breaker.

168
Q

What happens when you open the set screw on the top of a piston-style flush valve?

A

Shorter flush.

169
Q

Define velocity and pressure.

A

Velocity is the rate at which fluids flow and pressure is the force that is exerted to the walls of a pipe.

170
Q

What effect does unreamed pipe have on the flow of water in a pipe?

A

Turbulence.

171
Q

When does water hammer occur?

A

When water is forced to change direction or stop suddenly.

172
Q

List three (3) ways to prevent water hammer.

A

A. Air chambers.

B. Open valves slowly.

C. Use shock arrestors.

173
Q

List four (4) casues of water hammer.

A

A. Quick-closing valves.

B. Sudden changes in direction.

C. Temperature differences of liquids.

D. Water stopping suddenly[][][][][][][][]]

174
Q

How do you recharge an air chamber?

A

Drain the sytem and refill.

175
Q

What five (5) things must be known in order to size a water supply system?

A

A. Length of distribution pipe from building isolation to the furthest fixture served.

B. Minimum static pressure at the property line[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

C.Total developed length of water service pipe[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

D. Total hydraulic load[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

E. Water pressure at highest fixture served[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

176
Q

The minimum working pressure at the fixture ______________________________.

A

Conforms to manufacturers specifications.

177
Q

The maximum working pressure at the fixture _____________________________.

A

Never exceeds 550 kPa static pressure.

178
Q

What table would you find the fixture unit value for a urinal with a direct flush valve?

A. Sizing of water distribution systems table.

B. Sizing of water systems for urinals with direct flush valves.

C. Sizing of water distribution systems for water closets with direct flush valves.

D. Hydraulic loads of fixture not listed in Table 2.6.3.2.A.[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

B. Sizing of water systems for urinals with direct flush valves.

179
Q

When sizing multiple water closets with direct flush valves, does the furthest water closet from the distribution supply pipe have the largest or the smallest load?

A

The largest load.

(This will require that the minimum required flow rate is maintained).

180
Q

What is the minimum air gap required on a lavatory?

A

25 mm (1”).

181
Q

How must the water supply to lab sinks be protected?

A

By the use of an approved backflow preventer.

182
Q

How would you find the hydraulic load, fixture units for a commercial dishwasher?

A. Refer to manufacturers recommendations.

B. Use domestic dishwasher value from Table 2.6.3.2.A.

C. Use Table 2.6.3.2. D. Hydraulic loads of fixtures not listed in Table 2.6.3.2.A.

D. Hydraulic load for all dishwashers is included in the sink supply[][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

A. Refer to manufacturers recommendations.

183
Q

Provisions shall be made to protect the water distribution system from the adverse effects of ______ ______.

A

Water hammer.

184
Q

How would you find the hydraulic load, for a 1/2” hose wye?

A. Refer to manufacturers recommendations.

B. Use hose bibb, combination hot and cold fixture unit total from Table 2.6.3.2.A.

C. Use hose bibb, 1/2” private use fixture unit total from table 2.6.3.2.A.[][][][][][][][][][]]

D. Use hose bibb, 1/2” private use fixture unit total from Table 2.6.3.2.A. times two.

A

D. Use hose bibb, 1/2” private use fixture unit total from Table 2.6.3.2.A. times two.

185
Q

What is the minimum size of the supply line to a W.C. using a flush valve?

A

1”.

186
Q

What term is used to describe the water piping inside a building?

A

Distribution piping.

187
Q

What is the metric equivalent to pressure expressed as?

A

KiloPascals (kPa).

188
Q

What is the minimum size of a water meter?

A

5/8”.

189
Q

What does a water meter do?

A

Measures and records the volume of water passing through the pipe.

190
Q

Which is the most commonly used type of water meter?

A

Positive displacement.

191
Q

What is the primary use of a turbine meter?

A

Used as a monitoring device for large flow systems.

192
Q

Do water meters have to be accessible?

A

Yes.

(There needs to be enough room for maintenance or removal and reinstalling of the meter assembly).

193
Q

Do water meters have to be electrically grounded?

A

Yes.

(To prevent injury to personnel).

194
Q

How far must a water meter be from any entrance, wall or grade wall?

A

12”.

195
Q

For a 5/8 water meter, how much space is required between adapters?

A

12”.

196
Q

How many valves are required for a bypass?

A

Three.

197
Q

What types of valves are required on a bypass?

A

Ball valves.

Full port gate valves.

198
Q

What is installed on domestic waterlines to prevent condensation.

A

Insulation.

199
Q

What causes condensation on waterlines?

A

The humidity condensing on the surface of cold pipe.

200
Q

Can a public system be connected to a private water system?

A

No.

(2.6.2.5. (1)).

201
Q

Provisions shall be made to protect the water distribution system from the adverse effects of ______ ______.

A

Water hammer.

202
Q

The hot water supply must be on which side of the fixture?

A

Left-hand side.

203
Q

A water distribution system must be capable of meeting ____ demands.

A

Peak.

204
Q

A newly installed part of a potable water system shall be ______ before the system is put into operation.

A

Cleaned.

205
Q

What two (2) methods can be used to maintain temperature in a hot waterline that is longer than 30 meters?

A

Recirculation.

Self-regulating heat trace system.

206
Q

What could the initials PRV stand for other than pressure-reducing valve?

A

Pressure Relief Valve.

207
Q

Through pressure exerted by the spring pressing on the diaphram is the definition of how a ___________________ works.

A

Pressure-reducing valve.

208
Q

List two (2) applications for pressure-reducing valves in a plumbing system.

A

A. Excessive pressure in a domestic water line.

B. Excessive pressure from a downfeed system in a high-rise building.

209
Q

Why must a strainer be installed on the main or high-pressure side of a PRV?

A

To prevent dirt from becomming lodged between the PRV and the seat and disk.

210
Q

The pressure maintained by the valve when water is flowing is the definition of?

A

Reduced flow pressure.

211
Q

Two or more valves installed inline is the definition of?

A

Series.

(Relative to PRV installations).

212
Q

Two or more valves installed to serve the needs the needs of one large supply main is the definition of?

A

Parallel.

(Relative to PRV installations).

213
Q

Why might a series installation be necessary?

A

To allow for pressure reduction capacity greater than that provided by a single valve.

214
Q

Why might a parallel installation of pressure-reducing valves be necessary?

A

To allow for the use of two smaller, less expensive valves rather than one large, expensive valve.

215
Q

The most common type of booster pump is the ________ pump.

A

Centrifugal.

216
Q

What are booster pumps used for?

A

To lift water and to supply adequate water and pressure.

217
Q

Booster pumps come in what range of sizes?

A

1/4 hp to 200 hp.

218
Q

In a combination upfeed/downfeed system, where will the take-off for the cold water upfeed portion be located?

A

Upstream of the pump.

219
Q

What valve is required when lower floors are supplied by a downfeed system?

A

PRV.

220
Q

Is a check valve necessary on a booster pump system?

A. Yes.

B. No[]

A

A. Yes.

221
Q

On a combination upfeed/downfeed system, the lower floors are supplied by?

A

Main pressure.

222
Q

A constantly running pump requires a?

A

Pressure-relief valve.

223
Q

Is it necessary to isolate a pump?

A. Yes.

B. No[]

A

A. Yes.

224
Q

What must be taken into consideration when mounting a pump on the floor?

A

Noise and vibration transmitted through the building.

225
Q

What is a cistern?

A

A large tank.

226
Q

What will ground water contain?

A

High % of dissolved minerals.

227
Q

Where does underground water collect?

A

Aquifer.

228
Q

What is the advantage of groundwater over surface water?

A

Less contaminants.

229
Q

How are wells established?

A

Bored.

Drilled.

Driven.

Dug[][]]

Jettted.

230
Q

What is the maximum depth of a shallow well?

A

Shallow wells are less than 25 feet.

231
Q

How are springs protected from contamination?

A

Spring boxes.

232
Q

How far away from a barn should a well be located?

A

10 to 15 feet.

233
Q

How are wells protected from surface contamination?

A

Well seal.

234
Q

What type of equipment is generally used to establish a well when the soil is dense or contains a lot of rocks?

A

A rotary drilling rig.

235
Q

What is the best method when a well must be established in soft clay or course sand?

A

A driven well.

236
Q

What is the most difficult method of constructing a well?

A

A dug well.

237
Q

What is used to protect a pump from sand or dirt?

A

Well screen.

238
Q

What are the three types of well pumps?

A

Centrifugal.

Piston style.

Submersible.

239
Q

Where is the ejector located on a shallow well jet pump?

A

On the inlet side of the pump.

240
Q

What can be done to a submersible pump to create more pressure?

A

More impellars can be added.

241
Q

How far above the bottom of the well should the suction line be installed?

A

1 m.

242
Q

What is a disadvantage of a steel pressure tank?

A

Easily waterlogged.

243
Q

On a submersible pump system, where is the pressure switch located?

A

On the pressure tank.

244
Q

What is used to replenish the prime on a submersible pump?

A

A submersible pump does not lose it’s prime.

245
Q

What is used when a well discharge line is buried below ground level?

A

Pitless adaptor.

246
Q

What is used to protect a pump from a lightning strike?

A

Lightning arrestors.

247
Q

What is done to compensate for a weak well?

A

An oversized pressure tank can be installed.

248
Q

What kind of pump is used if the well is over 100 feet deep?

A

Deep well jet pump.

Submersible pump[]

249
Q

What purpose would a sanitary floor sink serve?

A. To receieve surface drainagae in areas where sanitation is a priority.

B. As a multi-sanitation surgeon scrub fixture[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

C. A sink that has been roughed in too low[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. For solid waste removal when no garburator is installed[][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

A. To receieve surface drainagae in areas where sanitation is a priority.

250
Q

How is a ground post or yard hydrant protected from freezing?

A. Heat tapes are installed on the hydrant before burial.

B. A ground post or yard hydrant is never installed in a location where it may freeze.

C. A ground post or yard hydrant is never used after summer (no chance of freezing)

D. They come standard with a 1/8” tapped hole in the valve body to drain water from the casing after operation.

A

D. They come standard with a 1/8” tapped hole in the valve body to drain water from the casing after operation.

251
Q

What is the purpose of having bedpan lugs?

A. Bedpan lugs suspend the bedpan in the bowl above the water pan of the fixture to allow for hands-free rinsing, cleaning and washing of bedpans.

B. Bedpan lugs are used as handles to carry the fixture during installation only[][][][]

C. Bedpan lugs are cosmetic only and actually serve no purpose[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

D. Bedpan lugs are used to fit seat extensions onto for people who have limited deflection in their knees.

A

A. Bedpan lugs suspend the bedpan in the bowl above the water pan of the fixture to allow for hands-free rinsing, cleaning and washing of bedpans.

252
Q

What does vitreous china mean?

A. Petrified.

B. Glass[][][]

C. Frozen[]]

D. Virtual[]]

A

B. Glass.

253
Q

What materials are coated with a corrosion-and-heat-resistant porcelain enamel or vitreous glass coating to improve their durability and appearance?

A. All wooden products.

B. Heat-formed plastics.

C. High-impact plastics[]

D. Cast iron and steel plumbing products.

A

D. Cast iron and steel plumbing products.

254
Q

Which of three types of acrylic and gel-coated fiberglass products is the most forgiving and easiest to repair?

A. Gel-coated fiberglass units are the most forgiving.

B. Coloured acrylic sheet units are the most forgiving.

C. Clear sheet of acrylic with colour backing units is the most forgiving.

D. All three have fiberglass for backing, so they are all equal[][][][][][][][][]]

A

A. Gel-coated fiberglass units are the most forgiving.

255
Q

Water closte combinations are a combination of what components?

A. A water closet bowl, top spud.

B. A waster closet bowl, back spud.

C. Any water closet bowl with a spud inlet.

D. A water closet bowl and reservoir flush tank.

A

D. A water closet bowl and reservoir flush tank.

256
Q

Which fixtures are required by code to have isolation stops?

A. All commercial, institutional and hospital fixtures.

B. Only hospital fixtures[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

C. Only water closets[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. No fixture are required by code; done for fixture that have exposed water supply.

A

C. Only water closets.

257
Q

What is the size of the outlet fitting of a lavatory?

A. 1 1/4” fixture outlet fitting.

B. 1 1/2” fixture outlet fitting.

C. 3/8” fixture outlet fitting[]

D. 1/2” fixture outlet fitting[]

A

A. 1 1/4” fixture outlet fitting.

258
Q

When would a remote flushing control be required?

A. When there are too few people available.

B. When no one has had the proper training.

C. When the flush valve is not installed during rough in.

D. When the contents of the fixture require inspection before flushing.

A

D. When the contents of the fixture require inspection before flushing.

259
Q

What causes the transmitter (optic sensor) on an electronic control to send light back to the reciever, which will generate a signal to the sensor and activate a solenoid valve?

A. The infrared beam of light is interrupted by the user.

B. The light switch is activated[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

C. The manual valve handle is tripped[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. The infrared beam of light operates on a timer control.

A

A. The infrared beam of light is interrupted by the user.

260
Q

How can mechanically operated valves be activated?

A. By foot, by hand or by pulling down on a pull rod.

B. By interrupting a beam of light[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

C. By passive detection[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. By remote control[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]][][][][][][][]

A

A. By foot, by hand or by pulling down on a pull rod.

261
Q

How do you determine the hydraulic load in fixture units when only the outlet size of the fixture is known?

A. By consulting the NPC, Table 2.4.10.2.

B. By measuring how much liquid the fixture will hold.

C. The p-trap is always one size smaller than the outlet; see Table 2.4.10.2.

D. By consulting NPC, Table 2.4.9.3., for fixtures with the same outlet size[]

A

A. By consulting the NPC, Table 2.4.10.2.

262
Q

What is the requirement for a water distribution system?

A. Water distribution system requirements are based on pressure changes within the supply main.

B. The water distribution system must meet the peak flow demand[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

C. The water distribution system must meet flow requirements for the largest connected pieces of equipment.

D. The water distribution systems are never an issue; only drainage from equipment supplied is considered[][]

A

B. The water distribution system must meet the peak flow demand

263
Q

What method should be used for sizing a DWV system?

A. The sizing of the DWV system will conform to NPC (National Plumbing Code of Canada), sections 2.4/2.5.

B. The sizing of the DWV system is based on the water supply piping size[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

C. The sizing of the DWV system will conform to the NBC (National Building Code[] of Canada)[][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. The sizing of the DWV system will conform to the Government of Alberta Building Code[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

A. The sizing of the DWV system will conform to NPC (National Plumbing Code of Canada), sections 2.4/2.5.

264
Q

Why do fixtures need to be securely fastened to building structural components, the cupboards or the countertop?

A. For aesthetic purposes only.

B. So the fixture can support its own weight.

C. To help prevent drain deflection and water line dislodgement.

D. Only when adjacent to ceramic tiles to prevent cracking[][][][][]

A

C. To help prevent drain deflection and water line dislodgement.

265
Q

Which fixture is required by the National Plumbing Code of Canada to have a control valve installed?

A. The water closet is the only fixture that the National Plumbing Code of Canada requires to have a fixture control valve.

B. All fixtures that have water connected to them are required by the National Plumbing Code of Canada to have a fixture control valve.

C. Only fixtures installed in public washrooms are required by the National Plumbing Code of Canada to have a fixture control valve.

D. All commercial, industrial and hospital fixtures are required by the National Plumbing Code of Canada to have a fixture control valve.

A

A. The water closet is the only fixture that the National Plumbing Code of Canada requires to have a fixture control valve.

266
Q

What should be done to maintain the trap seal of a floor drain?

A. If there is not enough water draining into the floor drain to m aintain a trap seal, the floor drain should not be installed.

B. A trap primer may be required to maintain a trap seal[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

C. The only way a floor drain will lose its trap seal is if it is leaking, in which case it should be replaced or removed.

D. Trap seals in floor drains do not need to be maintained[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

B. A trap primer may be required to maintain a trap seal.

267
Q

Which is wrench is best suited for tightening polished and special finishes without damaging them?

A. Chain wrench.

B. Basin wrench[]

C. Strap wrench[]

D. Spud wrench.

A

C. Strap wrench.

268
Q

Flaring tools provide two different flare angles for two different applications. What are they?

A. 35° automotive/aircraft or 47° pipe trades.

B. 47° automotive/aircraft or 35° pipe trades.

C. 45° automotive/aircraft or 37° pipe trades.

D. 37° automotive/aircraft or 45° pipe trades.

A

D. 37° automotive/aircraft or 45° pipe trades.

269
Q

Hacksaw blades are normally installed in the hacksaw frame in which position?

A. Blades are normally installed with the teeth facing toward the front of the hacksaw frame.

B. Blades are normally installed with the teeth facing toward the back of the hacksaw frame.

C. It does not matter which direction the teeth face in a hacksaw frame[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. The teeth on hacksaw blades have no direction[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

A. Blades are normally installed with the teeth facing toward the front of the hacksaw frame.

270
Q

Which carrier should be used for a water closet when the drainage piping is rising from below the floor?

A. Horizontal closet carrier.

B. Vertical in-line closet carrier.

C. Horizontal or vertical in-line; both will work well.

D. No carrier available for this type of rough-in[][][]]

A

B. Vertical in-line closet carrier.

271
Q

What is the suggested minimum size of concrete anchor to use for floor-mounted carrier installation?

A. The suggested minimum anchor size for floor-mounted carriers is 1/2”.

B. The suggested minimum anchor size for floor-mounted carriers is 3/8”.

C. The suggested minimum anchor size for floor-mounted carriers is 1/4”.

D. There is no suggested minimum anchor size for floor-mounted carriers.

A

A. The suggested minimum anchor size for floor-mounted carriers is 1/2”.

272
Q

List the two (2) different sizes of automatic urinal flush tanks.

A

3 gallon.

5 gallon.

273
Q

List the two (2) materials used to make an automatic flush tank.

A

Stainless steel.

Vitreous china.

274
Q

List the four (4) main components of a urinal flush tank.

A

Discharge piping.

Fill valve[][][][][][][]]

Isolation valve[][]]

Siphon[][][][][][][][][]

275
Q

Which of the four main components of an automatic urinal flush tank controls the frequency of the flush?

A. Discharge piping.

B. Siphon[][][][][][][][][]]

C. Fill valve[][][][][][][][]

D. Isolation valve[][][]

A

C. Fill valve.

276
Q

Which valve family does the fill valve belong to?

A. Ball valves.

B. Needle valves.

C. Gate valves[][]]

D. Plug valves[][]]

A

B. Needle valves.

277
Q

Table 2.6.3.2.A. in the NPC lists the fixture unit value for an automatic urinal flush tank as three fixture units. To which tank size does this fixture unit value refer?

A. 3 gallon.

B. 5 gallon.

C. Neither[]

D. Both[][][]

A

D. Both.

278
Q

List the three (3) most common types of trap primers.

A

Flush valve.

Incline[][][][]]

Pressure drop.

279
Q

An incline automatic trap delivers a spurt of water when:

A. The faucet opens.

B. Hot water is used.

C. The faucet closes.

D. The faucet opens or closes.

A

D. The faucet opens or closes.

280
Q

Why are the atmospheric ports on the discharge of on inline trap primer not considered to be an approved air gap?

A. They are too close to floor level.

B. The openings are not a minimum of 1”.

C. They allow sewer gas into the atmosphere.

D. They allow evaporation of the trap[][][][][][][][]

A

B. The openings are not a minimum of 1”.

281
Q

Blended water controls are also called ______ valves or _________ valves.

A

Mixing.

Tempering.

282
Q

The maximum allowable temperature of water to be delivered from a mixing valve is ___ °F, but a temperature of ___ °F is recommended.

A

120.

100.

283
Q

List two (2) types of pressure balancing valves.

A

Cartridge.

Diaphram.

284
Q

List three (3) types of temperature-sensing valves.

A

Bimetal spring.

Paraffin Cartridge.

Volatile liquid-filled bellows.

285
Q

The maximum temperature of water discharged from a sterilizer without a requirement for cooling is ___ °F.

A

170.

286
Q

Sterilizers must be __________ _________ to the drainage system through a/an _________ to prevent backflow.

A

Indirectly Connected.

Air break[][][][][][][][][][][]

287
Q

What is the primary use of the pressure-balanced valves in a residence?

A

Tub and shower valves.

288
Q

A temperature-sensing valve will deliver water at a maximum temperature of ___ °F.

A

120.

289
Q

Which of the following valves has the fastest temperature reaction to temperature change?

A. Bimetal spring.

B. Paraffin cartridge.

C. Volatile liquid-filled bellows.

D. Pressure balanced[][][][][][][][]]

A

B. Paraffin cartridge.

290
Q

Supply piping to a mixing valve should be fitted with _________ and thermometers.

A

Strainers.

291
Q

What is the purpose of a temporary plastic faceplate on a tub and shower valve?

A

The plate needs to finish flush with the finished wall to accurately place the valve.

292
Q

The quantity of drinking water per day required by humans is approximately:

A. 2 glasses.

B. 2 pints[][][]

C. 2 liters[][][]

D. 2 gallons.

A

C. 2 liters.

293
Q

Cloud formation in the atmosphere is caused by:

A. Water vapour precipitating from the air.

B. Smoke, dust, pollen in the atmosphere.

C. Discharge of carbon dioxide from tall industrial smokestacks.

D. Cool air condensation of water vapour[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

D. Cool air condensation of water vapour.

294
Q

Groundwater that naturally reappears on the earth’s surface may show up as:

A. Streams or rivers.

B. Swamps, sloughs or springs.

C. Lakes and ponds[][][][][][][][][][]]

D. The ocean[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

B. Swamps, sloughs or springs.

295
Q

Water vapour discharged from plant leaves is a by-product of:

A. Capillary action.

B. Chlorophyll[][][][]

C. Photosynthesis.

D. Waste minerals not required by plants.

A

C. Photosynthesis.

296
Q

Undesirable by-products that can be released by combustion of hydrocarbons are:

A. Smoke and soot.

B. Compounds of nitrogen and sulphur.

C. Dust and pollen[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. Acid rain and black snow[][][][][][][][][][]

A

B. Compounds of nitrogen and sulphur.

297
Q

The pH level of natural precipitation is commonly close to:

A. 5.

B. 5.6

C. 6[]]

D. 7[]

A

B. 5.6

298
Q

A pH level of 4 indicates that a substance is:

A. Alkaline.

B. Neutral[]

C. Acetic[][]

D. Acidic[][]

A

D. Acidic.

299
Q

Water is considered to be a universal solvent because:

A. Pollution in water is a problem easily solved.

B. It is cleaned by filtering through the ground.

C. Carbon dioxide is dissolved into it[][][][][][][][][]]

D. More things dissolve in water than any other solvent.

A

D. More things dissolve in water than any other solvent.

300
Q

The arterial loop distribution used by municipalities is installed for areas with:

A. Many transporation arteries for placing pipes underground.

B. Smaller developments easily surrounded with a loop distribution system.

C. Heavy traffic over the distribution network[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

D. Heavy demand on the system[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

D. Heavy demand on the system.

301
Q

The tree system of water distribution makes it difficult to:

A. Isolate parts of the system.

B. Supply good water to all parts of the system.

C. Drain parts of the system[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

D. Repair line breaks[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

B. Supply good water to all parts of the system.

302
Q

Changes of direction or elevation in water distribution networks are protected from disconnection of fittings by:

A. Tightening the fittings properly.

B. Tightly tamping dirt around the fittings.

C. Air and vacuum relief valves[][][][][][][][][]]

D. Thrust blocks and anchors[][][][][][][][][][]]

A

D. Thrust blocks and anchors.

303
Q

If transmission pipes are rapidly drained without admitting air to the system:

A. The pipe will stay in good condition for longer periods as there is no air in the pipe for oxidation.

B. There is no need to remove the air when the system is recharged with water[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

C. Water may be drained from service pipes due to a siphon being created[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. The pipe may collapse from effects of vacuum[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

D. The pipe may collapse from effects of vacuum.

304
Q

A gooseneck on a water service is installed to provide:

A. Piping expansion and contraction.

B. Pipe movement from vibration caused by heavy traffic over service connection.

C. Flexibility of the pipe as ground settles after backfill or moves from frost[][][][][][][]

D. The pipe to be made stiffer from the bending process[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

C. Flexibility of the pipe as ground settles after backfill or moves from frost.

305
Q

The corporation curb cock is placed on or near the property line so:

A. The utility employee doesn’t have to get out of his truck to shut the valve off.

B. The utility has the responsibility the maintain all parts of the service connection.

C. The utility employee can easily obtain tools he may need[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. The utility employee does not have to trespass on private property[][][][][][][][][][][]

A

D. The utility employee does not have to trespass on private property.

306
Q

Drilling the corperation curb cock for a water service is:

A. Common practice.

B. Discouraged by the AWWA.

C. Done to provide a connection for another property.

D. A procedure to allow expanded hot water an escape point.

A

B. Discouraged by the AWWA.

307
Q

If a water service is to be placed in the same trench as the building sewar, the trench:

A. Should have water proof material placed between the two pipes.

B. Should be large enough to allow a horizontal separation between pipes of 6’ minimum.

C. Must be deep enough to allow the water service to be placed below the building sewar.

D. Should be excavated with a raised portion on one side of the water service pipe[][][][][][]]

A

D. Should be excavated with a raised portion on one side of the water service pipe.

308
Q

If a check valve or backflow preventer is installed to protect a water service pipe that is suitable for cold water only, the building water distribution system becomes a:

A. Protected water system.

B. Closed water system[][][]

C. Safe water system[][][][][]]

D. Reduced pressure water system.

A

B. Closed water system.

309
Q

The shut off valve placed at the entry point of a 3/4” or 1” water service is allowed to be:

A. A stop and drain valve.

B. A stop valve only[][][][][]

C. A corporation valve[][][]

D. A 5/8” valve for these sizes of service.

A

A. A stop and drain valve.

310
Q

A water test for a water distribution system may be done with:

A. Air at a minimum of 700 kPa.

B. Minimum pressures of 100 psi.

C. Air in the system[][][][][][][][][][][][]]

D. Potable water only[][][][][][][][][][]

A

D. Potable water only.

311
Q

What is the maximum length of connector used with a 3/8” supply pipe?

A. 1 m.

B. 900 mm.

C. 750 mm.

D. 6.3 m[][]]

A

C. 750 mm.

312
Q

What is the minimum size of water distribution piping to a service water heater serving more than two fixtures?

A. 3/4”.

B. 1”[][]]

C. 750 mm.

D. 1 1/2”[][][]

A

A. 3/4”.

313
Q

Minimum size of water service is?

A

3/4”.

314
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the name of number 1?

A

Corporation main stop.

315
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the name of number 2?

A

Gooseneck or

Settlement loop.

316
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the name of number 3?

A

Curb cock extension.

317
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the name of number 4?

A

Curb cock chair.

318
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the name of number 5?

A

Building/Master/Main shut-off valve.

319
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the name of number 6?

A

Corporation curb cock.

320
Q

Referring to the figure below, what is the name of number 7?

A

Water meter.

321
Q

What are the two (2) reasons for installing a control valve on the cold supply to the hot water tank?

A

A. To turn off the water to the tank should it be necessary to drain or replace it.

B. To isolate the hot water supply to repair faucets and replace washers[][][][][][]

322
Q

Why must cold water always enter near the bottom of the tank on a gas hot water heater?

A

To ensure the cold water does not mix with the hot water at the top of the tank.

323
Q

What is the purpose of the sacrificial anode?

A

Reduces corrosion due to electrolysis.

324
Q

Why are gas and electric tanks heavily insulated?

A

To prevent or minimize heat loss.

325
Q

What coatings may be applied to the steel tank to prevent corrosion?

A

Galavanized coating.

Glass or steel lining[]

326
Q

Why is a temperature and pressure relief valve required on a water tank?

A

To prevent the hot water tank from exploding due to water flashing to steam and resulting 1700 times expansion.

327
Q

State two (2) advantages of an electrically heated tank.

A

More choices of location (no flue).

Noiseless (quiet operation)[][][][][][]

328
Q

Name four (4) areas of domestic hot water tank installations to which the National Plumbing Code of Canada regulations apply.

A

A. The cold water supply shall have a shut-off valve close to the tank.

B. A temperature and pressure relief valve shall be located within 6” of top of tank.

C. A device to shut-off the electricity of gas shall be installed when the water reaches the desired temperature.

D. Every pipe that conveys water from a temperature-relief, pressure relief or combined temperature and pressure relief valve must meet specified requirements.

329
Q

What size should the discharge pipe from a T & P valve be?

A

Same size as the inlet.

330
Q

Where should the outlet terminate?

A

No more than 300 mm (12”) above the floor.

331
Q

What alterations may be made to a T & P valve?

A

None.

332
Q

What device is installed to prevent a hot water tank from exploding?

A

A temperature and pressure relief valve.

333
Q

What is ment by thermal lag on a hot water supply line?

A

Undesirable time required to wait for hot water at the faucet outlet.

334
Q

What can be done to prevent a T & P valve from liming up?

A

By using plastic coatings on sensing elements and installing the T & P valve in a verticle position.

335
Q

At what temperature do fusible plugs melt?

A

210°F.

336
Q

How should a T & P valve be sized?

A

According to burner input ratings.

337
Q

From the following, what causes the formation of scale and insoluble soap curds when dissolved in water?

A. Calcium and magnesium.

B. Ferric iron[][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

C. Ferrous iron[][][][][][][][][][][]]

D. Hydrogen sulfide[][][][][][]]

A

A. Calcium and magnesium.

338
Q

Which of the following is a gas widely used in the disinfection of water?

A. Chlorine.

B. Hydrogen.

C. Nitrogen[]]

D. Oxygen[][]

A

A. Chlorine.

339
Q

What is another term for a multi-media filter?

A. Absorption filter.

B. Turbidity filter[][]]

C. Reverse osmosis filter.

D. Micro filter[][][][][][][][][][]]

A

B. Turbidity filter.

340
Q

On the pH scale, at what level is water neutral?

A. 4.0

B. 5.0

C. 6.0

D. 7.0

A

D. 7.0

341
Q

What type of water treatment is ultraviolet technology effective for?

A. Filtration.

B. Neutralization.

C. Disinfection[][]]

D. Sterilization[][]

A

C. Disinfection.

342
Q

What is the minimum range of width of a bacteria cell?

A. 0.0 - 1.0 micron.

B. 0.1 - 1.0 micron[]

C. 0.2 - 1.0 micron.

D. 0.3 - 1.0 micron.

A

C. 0.2 - 1.0 micron.

343
Q

Which of the following is a group of organic chemicals formed in water when chlorine reacts with naturally occuring organic matter?

A. TCE.

B. TFC.

C. THM.

D. TFB.

A

C. THM.

344
Q

What is the process of introducing oxygen to water referred to as?

A. Oxidation.

B. Backwashing.

C. Aeration[][][][]]

D. Flocculation[]

A

C. Aeration.

345
Q

Aside from being effective in destroying bacteria, what else is Chlorine effective for?

A. Coagulation.

B. Filtration[][][]]

C. Oxidizer[][][]]

D. Desiccant[][]

A

C. Oxidizer.

346
Q

What two constituents make up Chloramine?

A. Bromine and Chlorine.

B. Chlorine and Ammonia.

C. Potassium and Chlorine.

D. Chlorine and Hydrochloride.

A

B. Chlorine and Ammonia.

347
Q

What are positively charged Calcium and Magnesium ions exchanged for in the ion exchange water softening process?

A. Potassium Ions.

B. Ammonia Ions[]

C. Resin Ions[][][][]]

D. Sodium Ions[][]

A

D. Sodium Ions.

348
Q

What is the restocking of the exhausted softening resin with new ions referred to as?

A. Assimiliation.

B. Regeneration.

C. Attrition[][][][][]]

D. Reanimation[]

A

B. Regeneration.

349
Q

Which of the following water softening components contains the solution to reverse the ion exchange process in the exhausted resin beds?

A. Exhaustion tank.

B. Distribution tank.

C. Fiberglass resin tank.

D. Brine tank[][][][][][][][][][]

A

D. Brine tank.

350
Q

What chemical is added to the water sample when testing for the level of pH?

A. Potassium Permanganate

B. Bromthymol Blue[][][][][][][]]

C. Hydrogen Sulfide[][][][][][][]]

D. Ammonia[][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

B. Bromthymol Blue.

351
Q

What gas when dissolved into the water will result in the water having a rotten egg odor?

A. Carbon Dioxide.

B. Hyrdogen Sulfide.

C. Carbon Monoxide.

D. Hydrogen Chloride.

A

B. Hyrdogen Sulfide.

352
Q

Which of the following is best defined as “The process in which filter beds and ion exchange media are subjected to opposite of service flow to loosen the bed of particles”?

A. Attrition.

B. Backwash.

C. Exhaustion.

D. Anion[][][][]]

A

B. Backwash.

353
Q

Which flammable chemical is a powerful oxidizing agent with a dark purple color?

A. Hydrogen Sulfide.

B. Chlordane[][][][][][][]

C. Potassium Permanganate.

D. Sodium Hypochlorite[][][][]]

A

C. Potassium Permanganate.

354
Q

At what minimum pH level of water will Manganese oxidize?

A. 6.0

B. 7.0

C. 8.0

D. 9.0

A

C. 8.0

355
Q

Upon the inital installation of an Ultra Violet system, what should the system be treated with before putting it into service?

A. Potassium Permanganate.

B. Sodium solution[][][][][][][][][]

C. Chlorine[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. Potassium Chloride[][][][][][]

A

C. Chlorine.

356
Q

What is the purpose of a float in a self-contained distillation unit?

A. To stop the heating process by energizing the heating element.

B. To ensure that the heating element is fully immersed in water[][]

C. To start the boiling process by de-energizing the heating element.

D. To shut off the water supply and maintain water levels below the element.

A

B. To ensure that the heating element is fully immersed in water.

357
Q

From the following, what substance will NOT be affected in the distillation process?

A. Fluoride.

B. Glycol[][]

C. Iron[][][][]

D. Mercury.

A

B. Glycol.

358
Q

According to the Watergroup package, what is water containing 1000 - 1500 mg/l of dissolved solids reffered to?

A. Raw water.

B. Brackish water.

C. Contaminated water.

D. Hard water[][][][][][][][][]

A

B. Brackish water.

359
Q

What agent is used in a chemical free iron filter to remove iron?

A. Oxygen.

B. Potassium Permanganate.

C. Nitrogen[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

D. Chlorine[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

A

A. Oxygen.

360
Q

What will activated carbon filters remove effectively from water?

A. Hardness.

B. Taste and odor.

C. Turbidity[][][][][][]]

D. Acidic characteristics.

A

B. Taste and odor.

361
Q

What is the process in which undesirable foreign matter accumulates in a filter bed or ion exchanger referred to as?

A. Channeling.

B. Rendering[]]

C. Fouling[][][][]

D. Clogging[][]

A

C. Fouling.

362
Q

Which of the following units of measure is the common reference for the level of hardness found in water?

A. Parts per million (ppm).

B. Milligrams per liter (mg/l).

C. Grains per gallon (gpg)[][]

D. Gallons per minute (gpm)

A

C. Grains per gallon (gpg).

363
Q

Which of the following units of measure is the common reference for measuring for iron, manganese and TDS which can be in water?

A. Parts per million (ppm).

B. Milligrams per liter (mg/l).

C. Grains per gallon (gpg)[][]]

D. Gallons per minute (gpm)

A

A. Parts per million (ppm).

364
Q

What is water which has at least 1 gpg of calcium carbonate dissolved into it, considered to be?

A. Neutral water.

B. Soft water[][][]

C. Hard water[][]

D. Surface water.

A

C. Hard water.

365
Q

What is the nominal size of suspended particles which a multi-media filter is able to capture?

A. 15 microns.

B. 15 gpg[][][][]

C. 15 ml/l[][][][]]

D. 15 ppm[][][]

A

A. 15 microns.

366
Q

At what level of concentration is H2S troublesome?

A. 0.1 mg/l.

B. 0.2 mg/l.

C. 0.3 mg/l.

D. 0.4 mg/l.

A

A. 0.1 mg/l.

367
Q

How small is the smallest of substances that a reverse osmosis membrane is able to reject?

A. 0.05 microns.

B. 0.005 microns.

C. 0.0005 microns.

D. 0.00005 microns.

A

C. 0.0005 microns.

368
Q

Which of the following may reduce the effectiveness of an ultra violet system?

A. Tannins.

B. Suspended solids.

C. Brine content[][][][][]

D. Hydrogen sulfide gas.

A

B. Suspended solids.

369
Q

What happens to contaminants with a boiling point of 220°F (@ atmospheric pressure) in the distillation process?

A. Impurities with a boiling point greater than water cannot be distilled.

B. Impurities with a high boiling point will be condensed back into the water.

C. Impurities must be removed prior to distillation with a filter[][][][][][][][][][][][][][]]

D. Impurities are left behind in the boiling chamber[][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][][]

A

D. Impurities are left behind in the boiling chamber.

370
Q

How does the R.O. unit prevent the fine filter material from becoming clogged with debris?

A. Perpendicular filtration.

B. Crossflow filtration[][][][]

C. Counterflow filtration[][]

D. Parallel steam filtration.

A

B. Crossflow filtration.

371
Q

What is the minimum level of pH in the water for a greensand filter to be effective?

A. 6.0

B. 7.0[]

C. 8.0[]

D. 9.0[]

A

B. 7.0

372
Q

How often must an activated carbon filter be backwashed?

A. Once every three to six days.

B. Three times a week[][][][][][][][]]

C. Once a day in a 24 hour period.

D. Every six days, three times a day.

A

A. Once every three to six days.

373
Q

From the following, which is the best method of restocking the exhausted resin beds?

A. Downflow.

B. Upflow[][][]]

C. Counterflow.

D. Flowthrough.

A

B. Upflow.

374
Q

The weight of solids, per volume of water, which are in a true solution best describes which of the following terms?

A. Potential of Hydrogen.

B. Total Dissolved Solids.

C. Turbidity[][][][][][][][][][][][]]

D. Contaminants[][][][][][][]]

A

B. Total Dissolved Solids.

375
Q

What is iron that is dissolved in water called?

A. Ferric iron.

B. Ferrous iron.

C. Bacteriological iron.

D. Red water iron[][][][][]

A

B. Ferrous iron.

376
Q

What causes the discoloration of water due to decaying vegetative matter in the water?

A. Turbidity.

B. Tannins[]]

C. Bacteriological iron.

D. Manganese[][][][][][][]]

A

B. Tannins.

Course L (30 decks)

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