ABGD - Oral Board Review Flashcards

1
Q

What do current studies show about prophylactic antibiotics use for third molar surgery?

A
  • Two studies showed no benefit of prophylactic antibiotic use for third molar surgery
  • One showed possible benefit for deep impactions only
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2
Q

What is the etiology of localized alveolar osteitis?

A
  • Etiology not well understood
  • Associated with fibrinolysis of blood clot
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3
Q

Infections from these teeth can spread to the buccal space…

A
  • Maxillary posterior teeth
  • Mandibular premolars
  • Can begin as a vestibular infection and spread into buccal space
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4
Q

Describe simplified spread of infection…

A
  • Periapical/periodontal
  • Spread through least resistance
  • Role of muscle attachments
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5
Q

What is the definition of an Unerupted Third Molar?

A

“Embedded, that is, it has not penetrated the oral cavity; and it is likely that the tooth will erupt by the third decade of life.” (AAOMS)

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6
Q

What are some complications of tooth removal?

A
  • Localized alveolar osteitis
  • Infection
  • Nerve damage
  • Maxillary sinus involvement
  • Oroantral fistulas
  • Mandibular fracture
  • Displacement of teeth or foreign bodies
  • Broken instruments
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7
Q

What causes Lingual displacement of lower third molars?

A
  • Exvessive posterior and lingual elevation in presence of thin or perforated lingual plate
  • Third molar usually inferior to mylohyoid muscle
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8
Q

What are the most commonly impacted supernumerary teeth?

A

Mesiodens > maxillary incisors > fourth molars > mandibular premolars

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9
Q

What 2 things can you do to prevent bleeding?

A
  • Atraumatic technique
  • Curettage of granulation tissue
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10
Q

How do you dentally manage a sinus exposure < 5 mm?

A
  • Nasal precautions
  • Good oral hygiene
  • Decongestants
  • Antibiotics
  • Consider resorbable obturation material (gelforam, collagen)
  • No nose blowing, straw sucking, smoking
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11
Q

What Systemic Diseases can cause Impacted Teeth?

A
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Hypopituitarism
  • Febrile Illness
  • Irradiation
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12
Q

What are some medications and conditions that would increase bleeding?

A
  • ASA
  • NSAIDS
  • Coumadin
  • Hypertension
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13
Q

What can help delineate the buccolingual positioning of the IAN?

A

CT Scan

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14
Q

Is it a good idea to conduct dental surgery if the INR is > 4?

A

No!

No surgical treatment until INR is reduced

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15
Q

How many carpules of Lidocaine should you give a CV compromised pt?

A

No more than 2 carpules

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16
Q

Describe the technique for performing a Coronectomy…

A
  • Sever the root 3 mm below the buccal and lingual cortices
  • Allows for bone formation over the retained roots
  • 701 fissure bur was angled at 45 degrees to horizontal and used to completely transect the crown
  • Reduce the root to 3 mm below both cotices with bur
  • Watertight closure with vertical mattress suturing
  • No pulp treatment was performed
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17
Q

What view is this?

A

Water’s View

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18
Q

If you have a high pKa, would you have more or less free base and how would this effect clinial onset?

A

High pKa = less % of free base and longer clinical onset of anesthesia

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19
Q

When should you consider antibiotic prophylaxis in regards to total joint replacement?

A
  • Critical period is 1st 2 years after replacement
  • Immunosuppressed (Drugs, Radiation)
  • Inflammatory arthropathies (RA/SLE)
  • IDDM (Type I)
  • Malnourished
  • Hemophilia
  • HIV
  • Malnourishment
  • H/o previous infected joint
  • Dentist makes final decision & is responsible
  • If unsure, consult orthopaedics
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20
Q

What is the definition of an impacted tooth?

A

“Tooth that cannot or will not erupt into its normal functioning poisition and is therefore pathologic and requires treatment” (AAOMS)

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21
Q

What is Osteomyelitis?

A
  • Severe infection of deep bone requiring resection of involved bone and long-term administration of systemic antibiotics
  • Usually associated with immunocompromised patients, but occasionally seen in otherwise immunocompetent patients
  • Fortunately rare…
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22
Q

How do you treat Pericoronitis?

A
  • Local debridement
  • Removal of opposing third molar as needed
  • Surgical removal of the impacted tooth
  • Peridex and oral hygiene instruction
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23
Q

When do mandibular fractures usually occur in regards to tooth removal?

A

Most late fractures occurred in between 13 and 21 days postoperatively

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24
Q

What is going on at the tissue level when a mandible fractures associated with tooth removal?

A
  • Granulation tisue is being replaced by connective tissue in the alveolar socket
  • Patients feeling better and eating normal foods with increased maasticatory forces
  • In general, do no treat these fractures “more conservatively” than traumatic fractures
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25
Q

What could this be?

A

Osteomyelitis

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26
Q

Describe Stage 3 MRONJ…

A
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27
Q

What decreases the chances of getting Alveolar Osteitis?

A
  • Prerinsing with CHX
  • Maintenance of good oral hygiene
  • Thorough intraoperative lavage
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28
Q

What do Pell and Gregory Classifications of Class I, Class 2, and Class 3 describe?

A

Relationship to Anterior Ramus

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29
Q

What are some risk factors for Mandibular Fractures Associated with Tooth Removal?

A
  • Mandibular Atrophy
  • Space Occupying Lesion
  • Deep impactions requiring significant bone removal
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30
Q

How do you manage a moderate toxic reaction to local anesthetic?

A
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31
Q

Who is more at risk for Mandibular Fractures Associated with Tooth Removal?

A
  • Males >> Females
  • Age (mean 40 years) usually > 25 years old
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32
Q

In an infected area, you would want to use which anesthetic and why?

A
  • Use anestehtic with lower pKa
  • Mepivacaine is good for infected areas
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33
Q

Describe a patient with Stage 0 BRONJ…

A
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34
Q

What are the types of vonWillebrand Disease?

A
  • I - most common quantative defect
  • II - qualatative defect (2A, 2B, 2M, 2N)
  • III - no VWf whatsoever
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35
Q

How does a tooth get dislodged into the Infratemporal Fossa?

A
  • Aggressive distal elevation of maxillary third molar
  • Improper retractor positioning
  • Through periosteum and lateral to the lateral ptyerygoid muscle
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36
Q

When do you leave a root tip?

A
  • < 4 mm
  • No infection
  • Close to vital structures (IAN, lingual plate, sinus, infratemporal fossa)
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37
Q

How long does it take for injection-related nerve injuries to resolve?

A
  • Most resolve in 8 weeks
  • If persists longer, then only 30% resolve spontaneously
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38
Q

What is pKa?

A

Measures relative amount of ionized cation vs ionized base

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39
Q

What are some Risk Factors associated with Third Molars?

A
  • > 26 years of age
  • Pre-existing periodontal defects probing 5 mm or greater
  • Attachment loss 3 mm or greater
  • Horizontal or mesioangular impactions

“Near high risk” and “high risk” patient (2 or 3 risk factors listed below) appear to benefit from membrane placement, demineralized freeze dried bone, and/or platelet rich plasma”

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40
Q

What Hereditary Syndromes can have Impacted Teeth?

A
  • Gardner’s Syndrome
  • Cleidocranial Dysplasia
  • Cleft Lip/Cleft Palate
  • Down’s Syndrome
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41
Q

Describe Stage 2 of MRONJ…

A
  • Exposed and necrotic bone in patients with pain and clinical evidence of infection
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42
Q

What is Neuropraxia?

A
  • Contusion of nerve
  • Full recovery in days to weeks
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43
Q

What are some conventional sensory tests for nerve sensation?

A
  • Map affected area
  • Brush stroke direction
  • Two point discrimination
  • Needle-sharp
  • Sensory evoked potentials
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44
Q

How do you treat BRONJ Stage 0 and 1?

A
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45
Q

Is there a standard of care in regards to Coronectomy?

A

“When imaging suggests an intimate relationship between the roots of lower third molar and the IAN and the tooth still needs to be removed, consideration should be given to coronectomy with retention of the portion of the roots associated with the IAN…there is no standard of care with regard to the tecnique.”

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46
Q

What are some problems with impacted teeth?

A
  • Migration or loss of neighboring teeth
  • Loss of arch length
  • Malocclusion
  • Periodontal disease
  • Root resorptionof adjacent teeth
  • Internal or exgternal root resorption of impacted teeth
  • Odontogenic cysts or tumors
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47
Q

What is going on here?

A

Submandibular Space Infection

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48
Q

What is the best age to evaluate impacted canines?

A

10 - 13

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49
Q

How id Cellulitis different than an Abscess?

A

Cellulitis:

  • Acute
  • Severe/generalized
  • Large
  • Diffuse borders
  • Doughy to indurated
  • No pus
  • Greater seriousness
  • Aerobic

Abscess

  • Chronic
  • Localized
  • Small
  • Well circumscribed
  • Fluctuant
  • Pus
  • Less degree of seriousness
  • Anaerobic
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50
Q

How do you manage an oral surgery with a patient with Bisphos > 3 years?

A
  • Hold Bisphos for 3 months drug holiday
  • Then tx
  • Restart Bisphos after osseous healing
  • Consider pre op CTX lab test
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51
Q

What is the max dose of epinephrine for a healthy adult?

A

0.2 mg

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52
Q

Is it a good idea to conduct oral surgery if the INR is < 4?

A
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53
Q

What position are canines usually impacted?

A

Palatal positioning > labial positioning

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54
Q

What is Neurotmesis?

A
  • Sheath disrupted
  • Poor recovery without intervention
  • Neuromas, paresthesias, & dysesthesias
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55
Q

Which teeth have the highest chance of Sinus Exposure?

A

Most commonly after maxillary first molars > second molars > third molars > premolars

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56
Q

What is the max Lidocaine dose in children > 10 years and adults?

A

7 mg/kg

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57
Q

Describe Pell and Gregory Class A, B, and C…

A
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58
Q

What is the current recommendation for prophylactic antibiotic use?

A
  • Prescribe antibiotics for major oral and maxillyfacial surgery (TMJ, orthognathic, contaminated trauma repair)
  • Perioperatively only (IV - given just before incision, oral - 2 hours before incision)
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59
Q

Describe Class I, II, and III Pell and Gregory Classifications…

A
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60
Q

What pano findings are associated with nerve injury?

A
  • Darkening of the roots (92%)
  • Island shaped apex (80%)
  • Narrowing of the mandibular canal (100%)
  • Narrowing of the root apices (100%)
  • Deviation of the mandibular canal (100%)
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61
Q

What is the overall incidence of canine impaction?

A

2%

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62
Q

What is the max dose of epinephrine for a CV compromised pt?

A

0.04 mg

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63
Q

How do Warfarin (Coumadin) work?

A
  • Indirect acting - competitively inhibits vitamin K
  • Affects factors II, VII, IX and X
  • Affects Proteins C and S
  • Effect on prothrombin (half-life of 2-3 days) is longest lasting
  • Effect is monitored by PT/INR
64
Q

Describe injection-related nerve injuries…

A
  • Difficult to predict and prevent
  • Class electric-shock uncommonly reported
  • More likely to result in dysesthesia than other cause of nerve injuries
65
Q

What is the INR range for DVT prophylaxis, atrial fibrillation, pulmonary emboli?

A

2 - 3

66
Q

Regarding the Lateral Pharyngeal Space, what are the avenues of infection?

A
  • Submandibular and sublingual spaces
  • Buccal space
  • Pterygomandibular space
  • PTA
67
Q

How do you manage a tooth that is displaced in the maxillary sinus?

A
  • Suction
  • Irrigation
  • Caldwell-Luc Antrostomy
  • Antibiotics
  • Decongestants
68
Q

What is the likelihood f spontaneous recovery of IAN and Lingual nerve injuries?

A
  • IAN - 96%
  • Lingual - 87%
69
Q

What are some soft tissue indications for tooth removal?

A
  • Pericornitis prevention of treatment
  • Acute or chronic infection
70
Q

What are some treatment options for an oroantral fistula?

A
  • Buccal advancement flaps
  • +/- pedicled buccal fat grafts
  • Buccal “finger flaps”
  • Rotational island palatal flaps
  • Edentulous cases
71
Q

What are some important landmarks regarding the Lateral Pharyngeal Space?

A

Medial

  • Retropharyngeal

Lateral

  • Medial pterygoid
72
Q

What are the chances of Permanent IAN injury?

A

< 1%

73
Q

How do you dentally manage a tooth in the Infratemporal Fossa?

A
  • Need 3 dimensional imaging
  • Packing wait 7-10 days -vs- closure wait 2-4 weeks
74
Q

What is a test you can run to assess pre-op risk for BRONJ?

A
  • The morning fasting serum C-terminal telopeptide (CTX) test
  • Low risk: CTX > 150
  • Moderate risk: CTX > 100-150
  • High Risk: CTX < 100
75
Q

What is this?

A

Mesiodens

Supernumerary tooth that erupts between 8 and 9

76
Q

What are the most common impacted teeth?

A

Third molars > maxillary canines > mandibualr premolars > maxillary premolars > maxillary second molars

77
Q

How do you manage a pt with Bisphos < 3 years but w/steroids?

A

Hold Bisphos for 3 months drug holiday then tx

Restart Bisphos after osseous healing

78
Q

What are the chances of injuring the lingual nerve?

A

< 1% incidence

79
Q

How do you manage a tooth that is displaced lingually?

A
  • Attempt “milking” it up into the extractin site
  • Need 3-D imaging to localize
  • Consider lingual flap for exposure
  • May need extraoral incision if significant displacment inferiorly
  • Antibiotics
80
Q

What are 3 factors that affect extraction difficulty?

A
  • Depth of impaction
  • Type of overlying tissue
  • Age of the patient
81
Q

Are Pano’s very diagnostic in evaluatin third molars?

A
  • Overall pano sensitivity 42-75%
  • Specificity: 66-91%
  • High negative predictive value
  • High risk panograph findings can be further evaluated with CT
82
Q

What needs to happen in order for third molars to erupt?

A

“Adequate space between the anterior border of the mandible and the distal of the mandibular second molar seems to be necessary to allow successful eruption to the occlusal plane.”

83
Q

What infection/space is going on here?

A

Canine Space Infection

84
Q

Infected areas have lower or higher pH?

A

Lower

85
Q

What is the max dose of Mepivacaine with and without Vasoconstrictor?

A

6.0 mg/kg with and 4.5 mg/kg without

86
Q

What are the chances of getting an infection after thrid molar surgery?

A

1-5%

87
Q

Are patient who have been on Bisphos for < 3 years ok for surgery?

A

Yes!

88
Q

How does lipid solubility and protein binding affect duration of action?

A
  • Protein binding determines duration of action
  • Increased protein binding allows cations (BNH+) to be more firmly attached to proteins at receptor sites - duration of action is increased
89
Q

For a 70 kg healthy adult, this = how many carpules?

A

11 Carpules

90
Q

Are pKa’s of LA greater or smaller than physiologic pH?

A

Greater

91
Q

How do you manage soft tissue bleeding?

A
  • Pressure
  • Cautery
  • Suture
92
Q

What is localized alveolar osteitis?

A

Inflammation of the bony socket associated with recently extracted tooth

93
Q

What is the mechanism of action of local anesthetic?

A
  • Exists both as charged (cation) and uncharged (free base) molecule (Henderson-Hasselbach)
  • Free base crossess the cell membrane
  • Once inside nerve, chemical equilibration occurs to produce charged form (cation)
  • Cation is mainly responsible for the blocking activity
94
Q

What do Pell and Gregorary Classificaitons of Class A, B, and C represent?

A

Relationship to Occlusal Plane

95
Q

What are Open nerve injuries?

A
  • Injuries observed at the time of surgery
  • Immediatley repaired with clean nerve ends
  • Tension free suturing with 8-0 or 10-0 nonreactive suture
96
Q

When should you refer to a Microneurosurgeon regarding nerve injury?

A
  • Observed nerve transection
  • Complete postoperative anesthesia
  • Persistent paresthesia (lack of improvement in symptoms) at 4 wk
  • Presence or development of dysesthesia
97
Q

What type of local anesthetic if Articaine (Septocaine)?

A
  • Amide local anesthetic
  • FDA approved in 2000 (4% with 1:100,000 epi)
  • Also contains a thiophene group and an ester group
98
Q

What is Pericoronitis?

A
  • Inflammation and/or localized infection
  • Limited to enveloping tissues of the crown of an impacted tooth
99
Q

What treatment is recomended for sinus exopsures > 5 mm?

A

May require surgical closure

100
Q

What are the chanes of getting nerve damage following third molar removal?

A

0.6 - 5 % overall incidence

101
Q

How do CT play a role in third molar interpretation?

A

“The exact role and indications for CT imaging for the management of impacted third molars is unclear and evolving. Additional investigations are warranted to better understand and outline the parameters for effective use of CT imaging in the management of third molars.”

102
Q

The lower the pKa, how does this affect onset of action?

A

More rapid onset of action

103
Q

How would you manage a Mild toxic reaction to local anesthetic?

A
104
Q

How should dentally manage patients about to initiate intravenous bisphosphonate treatment?

A
105
Q

What nerves are often involved in injection related nerve injuries?

A
  • Nonanatomic distributing of nerve involvement (2nd & 3rd divisions)
  • Occur more in females
  • More commonly affects lingual nerve
106
Q

What factors increase the risk of getting Alveolar Osteitis?

A
  • Smoking
  • BCP
  • History of Pericoronitis
  • Increased Age
  • Traumatic Extraction
  • Inadequate Irrigation
107
Q

How often to mandibular blocks results in paresthesia?

A

1/100K to 1/500K blocks result in paresthesia

108
Q

What is the max dose of Bupivacaine (Marcaine) with and without Vasoconstrictor?

A

3.2 mg/kg with and 2.5 mg/kg without

109
Q

What are some indications for Microsurgical Nerve Injury Repair?

A
  • Observed nerve severence
  • Total anesthesia beyond 3 months
  • Dysethesia beyond 4 months
  • Severe hypoesthesia without improvement beyond 4 months
110
Q

What increases risk of infection following third molar surgery?

A
  • Level of impaction
  • Pre-existing infection
  • Pathology
111
Q

How do you manage Moderate - Severe toxic reactions to local anesthetic?

A
112
Q

What are some signs of local anesthetic toxicity?

A
  • Slurred speech
  • Shivering
  • Muscular twitching
  • Nystagmus
113
Q

How do you manage Severe toxic reactions to local anesthetic?

A
114
Q

What are 3 drugs that can affect Hemostasis?

A
  • Warfarin (Coumadin)
  • Heparin
  • Platelet Inhibitors
115
Q

Can small openings in the sinus < 5 mm close on their own?

A

Yes!

116
Q

How can you treat Dyesthesia?

A

Medications (low doses)

  • Lyrica
  • Neurotin
  • Tegretol
  • Elavil
117
Q

What are some characteristics of localized alveolar osteitis?

A
  • Bacteria present but not true infection
  • Develops 3-5 days post-operatively
  • Worsening pain +/- radiation to ear
  • Pain not well controlled with oral pain medication
  • Class sign = pain illicited w/irrigation of socket
118
Q

Position of apices of involved mandibular molars relative to this muscle determine whether infection will involve sublingual or submandibular space…

A

Myolohyoid Muscle

  • Above = > Sublingual
  • Below = > Submandibular
119
Q

How does infection affect the pH?

A
  • Infection lowers pH (more acid) and shift dquation to left.
  • Less free base form available to diffuse across nerve membrane
120
Q

What is the definition of a impacted third molar?

A

“One that is so positioned that it will probably not erupt by the middle of the third decade and constitutes pathology with medical and dental consequences.” (AAOMS)

121
Q

What is Axonotmesis?

A
  • Axons disrupted
  • Good recovery in months
122
Q

What are some general indications for antibiotic prophylaxis?

A
  • To prevent contamination of a sterile area
  • Where infection is unlikely but associated with significant morbidity
  • In procedures with high infection rates
  • During implantation of prosthetic material
123
Q

What are some symptoms of local anesthetic toxicity?

A
  • Numbness of tongue and perioral region
  • Warm flush feeling
  • Dizziness
  • Drowsiness
  • Visual disturbances
  • Disorientation
  • Tinnitus
124
Q

What are 2 muslces that are landmarks associated with Canine Space Infections?

A
  • Apices of canine teeth often extend superior to insertion of levator anguli oris msucle
  • Infection spreads superiorly under levator anguli oris and orbicularis oculi msucles to involve the space just below the eye
125
Q

What are the causative Organisms in infection?

A
  • Aerobic only - 28 patients - 7%
  • Anaerobic only - 133 patients - 33%
  • Mixed - 243 patients - 60%
126
Q

What are some Hemostatic Agents?

A
  • Gelfoam (gelatin sponge)
  • Avitene (bovine collagen)
  • Surgical (cellulose)
  • Topical thrombin
  • Anti-fibrinolytic agents
  • Aminocapropic acid (Amicar)
  • Tranexamic acid
127
Q

What tooth is at risk for getting dislodged into the Maxillary Sinus?

A

Palatal root of the maxillary first molar

128
Q

When would you prescribe Metronidazole?

A
  • Improve gram negative coverage
  • Inhibitis nucleic acid synthesis but only anaerobically
  • Dosage: 500 mg (7.5 mg/kg) 4 x daily
129
Q

What type of bacteria cause Pericoronitis?

A
  • Fusobacterium
  • Alpha Hyemolytic Strep
  • Peptostreptococcous
  • Prevotella
130
Q

Which teeth are good candidates for surgical uprighting?

A
  • Impacted second molars
  • Mesioangular impactions
  • Incomplete root formation
  • Ideally two-thirds root formation completed
131
Q

How do you accomplish Surgical Uprighting (ie. upright impacted second molar)?

A
  • Remove third molar and/or bone on the distal to allow elevation
  • Eliminate occlusal forces postoperatively
  • Stabilization sutures can be considered…not usually needed
  • Zeitler recommends:
  • Post operative antibiotics
  • Endodontic evalution 3 weeks postoperatively
132
Q

How do you manage a case where you break an instrument?

A
  • Localize in three dimensions with radiographs
  • Avoid excessive force
  • Notify patient and reshedule if needed to allow for optimum conditions
133
Q

What is a Coronectomy?

A

Removal of the crown of an impacted tooth while leaving roots that are intimatley contacting the IAN

134
Q

What is the INR range for mechanical heart valves?

A

3 - 4.5

135
Q

Describe Stage I of MRONJ…

A
  • Exposed and necrotic bone in patients whoa re asymptomatic and have no evidence of infection
136
Q

What are some indications for antibiotics prophylaxis?

A
  • Prosthetic heart valves including bioprostehtic or homograft valves
  • Prior IE
  • Unrepaired cyanotic congential heart disease (CHD) including palliated patients with shunts and conduits
  • Rapaired CHD using prosthetic material or device, in the first six months
  • Repaired CHD with residual defects at the site or adjacent to a prosthetic device
  • Valvulopathy in a transplanted heart
137
Q

What is the max dose of Prilocaine with and without Vasconstrictor?

A

8.0 mg/kg with and 4.5 mg/kg without

138
Q

What guides normal canine eruption?

A

Lateral incisor root development

139
Q

How do you mange bone bleeding?

A
  • Pressure
  • Bone Wax
140
Q

What is vonWillebrand Disease?

A
  • Most comon inherited bleeding disorder (1 in 100 to 1000)
  • May remain undiagnosed until surgery
141
Q

What are some statistically significant pano findigns when evaluating third molars?

A
  • Darkening of the tooth root
  • Narrowing of the tooth root
  • Interruption of the IAN canal/whtie lines
  • IAN canal diversion
142
Q

What are some Hard Tissue indicaitons for tooth removal?

A
  • Hopeless periodontal status
  • Caries/nonrestorable/fractured teeth
  • Prevention of jaw fracture
  • Teeth in the line of fracture (specific indications)
  • Malposed or supernumerary nonfunctional teeth
  • Orthodontic/orthognathic surgery
  • Restorative reasons (under a planned prosthesis)
  • Facilitation of second molar restoration
  • Pathology including cysts, and tumors, root resorption
  • Prophylactically in patient underoing organ transplant, chemotherapy, or radiation therapy
143
Q

What is the sig for SBE prophylaxis?

A

Amoxicillin 2 g 30-60 minutes prior to dental treatment

If allergic to Amoxicillin…

Clindamycin 600 mg

144
Q

What are some theories regarding injections causing injury?

A
  • Direct neural trauma
  • Local anesthetic toxicity
  • Formation of an epineurial hematoma
  • Needle-barb mechanism
145
Q

Do you studies show that Articaine can cause paresthesia following local anesthesia administration?

A

“A 21 year retrospective study of reports of paresthesia following local anesthesia administration”

Haas and Lennon

146
Q

Position of apices of involved mandibular molars relative to this muscle determine whether infection will involve sublingual or submandibular space…

A

Myolohyoid Muscle

  • Above = > Sublingual
  • Below = > Submandibular
147
Q

What type of infection is this?

A

Buccal Space Infection

148
Q

What is the treatment of localized alveolar osteitis?

A

Dressing placement

149
Q

What are contraindications to microsurgical nerve injury repair?

A
  • Central neuropathic pain
  • Dysesthesia not abolished by local anesthesia block
  • Improving sensation
  • Sensory deficit acceptable to the patient
  • Metabolic neuropathy
  • Excessive delay after injury (greater than 1 year)
  • Medically compromised patient
150
Q

Patients may be considered to have BRONJ if all of the following three characteristics are present:

A
  1. Current or previous treatment with a bisphosphonate
  2. Exposed bone in the maxillofacial region that has persisted for more than 8 weeks; and
  3. No history of radiation therapy to the jaws
151
Q

Should anything be placed in the third molar extraction site?

A

Routine applicaiton of interventionsin the extraction site is not indicated for all subjects

152
Q

Who are poor candidates for coronectomy?

A
  • Pre-existing acute or chronic infection
  • Pre-existing mobility of the tooth or root
  • Horitzontal impactions with the crown lying on top of the IAN canal
153
Q

Are Closed repairs of nerves successful?

A
  • Repairs carried out between 4-7 months associated with greater than 50% of patients experiencing some improvement
  • Repairs for dysesthesia carry a much poorer prognosis regardless of timing
154
Q

How do you treat Stage 2 and 3 of BRONJ?

A
155
Q

What are some local factors for Impacted Teeth?

A
  • Retained primary teeth
  • Malposed tooth germs
  • Arch length deficiency
  • Pathology (cysts, tumors)
156
Q

What is the max dose of Lidocaind with and without a vasoconstrictor?

A

7.0 mg/kg with, and 4.5 mg/kg without

157
Q

Out of 9,587 blocks, what percent can result in temporary paresthesia and long term paresthesia?

A

According to Harn and Durham

  • Temporary paresthesia: 3.62%
  • Long term (> 1 year) paresthesia: 1.8%