13. Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

• Antibiotic: Any chemical which at ____ attainable blood levels, inhibits the growth of or kills pathogenic microorganisms
○ Usually are from natural sources
○ Don’t want to injure kill the patient/host
• People that make serendipitous discoveries typically due something with the mistake
○ Seen with the discovery of penicillin

A

therapeutically

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2
Q

• ____: Actively kills the pathogen
○ Are preferred since they depend less on the host ____
○ Advantages of bactericidal over bacteriostatic antibiotics:
§ More ____ –> work better
§ Less dependent on host ____
• ____: Prevents further growth of pathogen

A
bacteriocidal
immune response
efficacious
mechanisms
bacteriostatic
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3
Q

Antibiotic Groupings
• Depending on the antibiotic and bacteria the effects of the antibiotic can be either bactericidal or bacteriostatic
○ Also depends on ____

Bacteriostatic:
	• \_\_\_\_
	• Macrolides:
		○ Erythromycin
		○ Clarithromycin
		○ Azithromycin
	• \_\_\_\_
	• Sulfonamides
Bactericidal:
	• \_\_\_\_
	• Cephalosporins
	• \_\_\_\_
		○ Good for strict anaerobes or infections that are facultative anaerobes
		○ Typically given with a Penicillin –> makes it easier for metronidazole to penetrate the cell wall
		○ Metronidazole then can fragment \_\_\_\_
	• Quinolones –> Ciprofloxacin
	• \_\_\_\_

Rules for combining multiple antibiotics:

1. \_\_\_\_ Effect: Static + Static (1 + 1=2 )
2. \_\_\_\_ Effect: Cidal + Cidal (1 + 1 > 2)
3. \_\_\_\_ Effect: Static + Cidal (1 + 1 < 2)

• Odontogenic Infections: Require two different \_\_\_\_ antibiotics with different mechanisms
A

dose
tetracyclines
clindamycin

penicillin
metronidazole
bacterial DNA
aminoglycosides

additive
synergistic
antagnoistic
bactericidal

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4
Q

• Selective Toxicity: The antibiotics should be harmful to the pathogens but ____ to the host
○ No drug is completely innocuous to everyone, all drugs have potential ____

A

innocuous

side effects

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5
Q

Selective Toxicity
1. Cell Membrane Synthesis Inhibitors (____)
○ Bactericidal mechanism that targets ____ only found in bacterial membranes!
§ Will be given as a rinse or paste –> very polar so little gets absorbed into the blood
1. ____
2. Amphotericin B: Given via ____ only when there are life threatening fungal infections (HIV patients!)
§ Has some potential to be toxic to the liver
3. ____: Will target cell membranes if it gets into the blood
§ Targets ergosterol which is similar to cholesterol –> drug might accidentally target human cells that contain cholesterol

2. Protein Synthesis Inhibitors 30S (Lower level of selective toxicity) (\_\_\_\_)
	○ Bacteriostatic
	1. Aminoglycosides: Large polar molecules that are given via IV during life-threatening Gram \_\_\_\_ infections
		§ Have a low \_\_\_\_ –> Can damage kidneys and cause ringing of the ears
			□ Typically prescribed or given in a hospital
		§ 3D structures resembles curare –> can block \_\_\_\_ receptors due to structure! 2. \_\_\_\_
A
bacteriocidal
ergosterol
nystatin
IV
vancomycin

bacteriostatic
negative

therapeutic index
nicotininc M cholinergic
tetracyclines

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6
Q
  1. Protein Synthesis Inhibitors 50S (Lower level of selective toxicity) (____)
    ○ Bacteriostatic
    1. ____
    2. Clindamycin: Preferred over Erythromycin since it’s good against ____ infections (PA lesions/abscesses) and better at targeting ____
    1. DNA Synthesis Inhibitors (____ )
      1. ____ : Fragments DNA
        § Typically given with Penicillin where the Penicillin allows it to penetrate the cell walls
        § Good against strict anaerobes, but not ____ anaerobes
      2. Quinolones: Inhibit DNA ____ that are used to ease super-coiling, thus preventing the uncoiling of DNA
        § Good against facultative anaerobes, but not ____ anaerobes (opposite of Metronidazole)
      3. ____: Given to fight TB or leprosy and is a CYP3A4 inducer (will degrade drugs like Warfarin or oral contraceptives as a result –> can get pregnant)
      4. Sulfonamides: Inhibits the synthesis of ____ from PABA (Para amino benzoic acid) and are used in the treatment of UTIs and opportunistic infections in AIDs patients
        § Most oral bacteria are ____ to Sulfonamides
        § Bacteria make Folic Acid, humans must consume it –> ____ Toxicity
        § If given a local ____ –> can increase the [Sulfonamides] as a byproduct
        Why you don’t give people esters anymore like Procaine (Novocain
A

bacteriostatic
erythromycin
bone
anaerobes

bacteriocidal
metronidazole
facultative
gyrase/topoisomerase
strict
rifampin
folic acid
resistant
selective
anesthetic
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7
Q

Rifampin & Oral Contraceptives

• Breakthrough \_\_\_\_ –> Ovulation
• 38/51 women on concomitant oral contraceptive therapy experience breakthrough bleeds
• 68/88 women on concomitant oral contraceptive therapy experience breakthrough bleeds and resulted in 5 pregnancies 
• 76% of all alleged antibiotic/oral contraceptive interactions involve Rifampin
• When taken off of Rifampin for a month –> oral contraceptive blood levels double 
	○ Confirmed with 99% significance
A

YAY

bleeds

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8
Q
  • Rifampin is involved in many drug reactions and can decrease the blood levels of many drugs
    • ____: Anticholinesterase used to treat Parkinson’s Disease
    • *= drugs used in dentistry
A

tacrine

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9
Q

Antibiotic & Oral Contraceptive Controversy

• Rifampin reduces oral contraceptive blood levels via enzyme \_\_\_\_
• Reports with all other antibiotics are \_\_\_\_ (should be studied)
• NEVER scientifically documented for \_\_\_\_ antibiotics
• Normal oral contraceptive failure rates are between 1-3%
	○ 4-8% failure rate for teens in the US due to non-compliance –> must miss a couple of pills
A

inducer
anecdotal
dental

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10
Q

• Estrogen and Progestin doses in oral contraceptives have been decreasing over the years
○ Estrogen + Smoking –> increased risk of thrombus formation since Estrogen inhibits ____
§ Increased risk of pulmonary embolism and stroke
• If you’ve been on oral contraceptives for 8+ years there has been shown to be a 20-30% increased risk of acquiring ____

A

anti-thrombin III

breast cancer

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11
Q

• 60-70% of oral surgeons will prescribe antibiotics before, during, or after impacted ____ molar extraction
○ People aren’t really at high risk for dangerous infections, the infections can be controlled and treated rather easily

A

third

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12
Q

Enterohepatic Recirculation Theory

• EE: Ethylene estradiol in oral contraceptives
	○ Oral contraceptives target the Pituitary and Hypothalamus
• Believed that \_\_\_\_ or \_\_\_\_ is added to EE inactivating the molecules
	○ Believed normal \_\_\_\_ will cleave the Glucuronic Acid or Sulfate allowing EE to dissolve into the blood to the Pituitary or Hypothalamus
	○ Once on antibiotics the normal flora is \_\_\_\_ resulting in improper removal of Glucuronic Acid or Sulfate from EE –> vulnerable to pregnancy
A

glucuronidation
sulfate
flora
inhibited

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13
Q

• ____ are prescribed at a much higher rate than anticonvulsants
○ Meaning the number of pregnancies while on ____ is rather alarming

A

antibiotics

anticonvulsants

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14
Q

• Doxycycline is a major drug that Periodontists use that is ____ spectrum
○ No change in ____ & progestin blood levels before or after taking Doxycycline
• Low N however (low amount of people tested)
○ Medically and legally must tell them about the very low chance of them becoming pregnant
○ Still take oral contraceptives and use condoms
§ Include this in the chart to prevent yourself from getting sued

A

broad

estrogen

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15
Q

• Tetracycline is ____ spectrum
○ Slight drop in oral contraceptive blood levels after one day but they rise again
• Broad spectrum antibiotics are more likely to eliminate the normal ____
• Low N however (low amount of people tested)
○ Medically and legally must tell them about the very low chance of them becoming pregnant
○ Still take oral contraceptives and use condoms
§ Include this in the chart to prevent yourself from getting sued

A

broad

flora

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16
Q

• Ampicillin is similar to amoxicillin
○ Amoxicillin has better ____ stability and less likely to be degraded by stomach acid
○ 6-7% decrease in oral contraceptive blood levels
• Low N however (low amount of people tested)
○ Medically and legally must tell them about the very low chance of them becoming pregnant
○ Still take oral contraceptives and use condoms
§ Include this in the chart to prevent yourself from getting sued

A

acid

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17
Q

• Metronidazole showed essentially no difference in ____ blood levels
• Low N however (low amount of people tested)
○ Medically and legally must tell them about the very low chance of them becoming pregnant
○ Still take oral contraceptives and use condoms
§ Include this in the chart to prevent yourself from getting sued

A

oral contraceptive

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18
Q

• Spectrum: The range of pathogenic organisms against which an antibiotic is active
○ Broad vs narrow spectrum
• Principle: Use the ____ spectrum antibiotic directed against the specific pathogen
○ Want to use this especially when working with ____ infections
§ Penicillins and Amoxicillins are great
§ Mainly dealing with staph and some anaerobes

A

narrowest

odontogenic

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19
Q
Problems with Broader Spectrum Antibiotics
	• \_\_\_\_ complaints
	• \_\_\_\_
	• Superinfections:
		○ \_\_\_\_ overgrowths
		○ \_\_\_\_ (C dificle)
			§ Resistant to \_\_\_\_
A
GI
diarrhea
candida
pseudomembranous colitis
antibiotics
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20
Q

Penicillins I
• Mechanism –> Inhibition of ____ synthesis
○ ____ against actively growing cells
○ Most are inactivated by ____ (β-lactamase)
• Elimination –> Kidney remains unchanged
• Toxicity –> Low especially with ____ (narrow spectrum)
• Βeta-lactam ring:
○ Cleaved by:
§ Low ____
§ ____

A
cell wall
bacteriocidal
penicillinase
penicillin V
pH
penicillinases
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21
Q

Penicillin Subclasses

	• Narrow spectrum:
		○ \_\_\_\_: Benzyl penicillin
			§ First one discovered and \_\_\_\_ (destroyed by stomach acid)
				□ Given \_\_\_\_ as a result
		○ \_\_\_\_: Phenoxy methyl penicillin
			§ More acid stable and taken \_\_\_\_
• Broad spectrum:
	○ \_\_\_\_ (Omnipen ®)
	○ \_\_\_\_ (Trimox ®, Amoxil ®)
		§ More superinfections than compared to Penicillin V which is narrow spectrum
		§ Drug of choice for dentists replacing Penicillin V:
			□ Longer \_\_\_\_ than Penicillin V and given every 8 hours (taken 3 times a day)
			□ Used for infective \_\_\_\_

• Broadest spectrum:
	○ \_\_\_\_ (Geopen ®)
	○ \_\_\_\_ (Ticar ®)
	○ Used for people who have suffered from burns to prevent \_\_\_\_ infections
	• Penicillinase Resistant:
		○ \_\_\_\_ (Staphcillin ®)
			§ \_\_\_\_ is resistant to this
		○ \_\_\_\_ (Bactocil ®)
			§ Other "oxa" penicillins
A
penicillin G
acid labile
IM
penicillin V
orally
ampicillin
amoxicillin
half-life
endocarditis
carbencillin
ticarcillin
pseudomonas
methicillin
MRSA
oxacillin
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22
Q

Narrow Spectrum Penicillins

• Penicillin G
	○ Acid \_\_\_\_ –> resistant to corrosion via acid
	○ Unpredictable oral absorption
		§ Typically given \_\_\_\_ or IV
	○ \_\_\_\_ or Benzathine suspensions –> Extended duration preparations (300K-600K U/mL)
		§ Divide by 1,598 to get mg

• Penicillin V (Pen VK ®)
	○ Acid \_\_\_\_
	○ Better \_\_\_\_ absorption
	○ Drug of choice for mild/moderate \_\_\_\_ infections
A

labile
IM
procaine

stabile
oral
odontogenic

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23
Q

Bacterial Susceptibility: Penicillin G and V

• Most important thing to do during dental infections is to remove the source of the infection
• Gram positive bacteria:
	○ \_\_\_\_
	○ Non-\_\_\_\_ producing Staphylococci
		§ Typically in more immune resistant people

• Gram negative cocci:
	○ \_\_\_\_

• Some anaerobes:
	○ \_\_\_\_
	○ Porphyromonas
A

streptococci
penicillinase
neisseria
fusobacterium

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24
Q

Dosing of Penicillin V

• Adult:
	○ \_\_\_\_mg every 6 hours every 7-10 days
	○ 1,000mg stat for more severe infections
		§ Loading dose

• Child
	○ \_\_\_\_mg/lb 
	○ Every 6 hours for 7-10 days
• Try to take it an hour or 2 \_\_\_\_ meals
A

500
3-6
after

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25
Q

Broad Spectrum Penicillins

• Medical indications:
	○ \_\_\_\_ (Urinary Tract Infections)
	○ URI (Upper Respiratory Tract Infections)
	○ \_\_\_\_ infections
• Less effective than Penicillin V against \_\_\_\_
	○ More effective than Penicillin V against \_\_\_\_ and bacilli 
• Ampicillin (Amcill ®, Omnipen ®): Erratic \_\_\_\_ absorption
• Amoxicillin (Amoxil ®, Trimox ®): Well absorbed by the \_\_\_\_
	○ Drug of choice for infective endocarditis prophylaxis (2 grams)
		§ Don't need to take as frequently as Penicillin V
	○ Penicillin V is still the drug of choice for most \_\_\_\_ infections
		§ Amoxicillin has more adverse drug reactions than Penicillin V because of its \_\_\_\_ spectrum
	○ Neither Amoxicillin or Penicillin V are effective in infections harboring \_\_\_\_ producing pathogens
A
UT
gonococcal
gram positive cocci
oral
mouth
odontogenic
broader
penicillinase
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26
Q

Extending the Spectrum of Amoxicillin

• Combine Amoxicillin with \_\_\_\_ and related compound sublactam to target penicillinase producing bacteria
• On its own Clavulanic Acid lacks any effects
	○ Resembles a \_\_\_\_ ring of Penicillins and are targeted instead of Amoxicillin
		§ Clavulanic Acids are β-lactam inhibitors
• Reserved for specialized instances (\_\_\_\_ infections) or when a culture and sensitivity dictates its use
A

clavulanic acid
beta-lactam
maxillary sinus

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27
Q

Broadest Spectrum Penicillins

	• Medical indications:
		○ Serious Gram Negative infections:
			§ \_\_\_\_ –> seen in burn victims
			§ Proteus
			§ \_\_\_\_ fragilis infections possibly in bone
	• UTI and \_\_\_\_ infections
	• Inactivated by β-lactamases
	• Includes:
		○ \_\_\_\_
		○ \_\_\_\_
A
pseudomonas
bacteroides
GI
carbenicillin
ticarcillin
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28
Q

Penicillinase Resistant Penicillins

• Sole indications:
	○ Infections harboring penicillinase producing pathogens
		§ \_\_\_\_ and some Gram Negative \_\_\_\_
• Less \_\_\_\_ than Penicillin V against Streptococci and other organisms typically found in odontogenic infections
• \_\_\_\_ (Staphcillin ®): Poor oral absorption and nephrotoxic
	○ Targets Staphylococcus
• Oxa, Cloxa, Dicloxa, Floxa -\_\_\_\_ –> better \_\_\_\_ absorption
	○ Bactocil ® –> target \_\_\_\_
	○ Prostaphlin ® –> targets \_\_\_\_
A
staphylococcus aureus
bacilli
active
methicillin
cillins
oral
bacteriodes
staphylococcus
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29
Q
Staphylococcal Strain Resistance
	• ALL:
		○  \_\_\_\_
			§ Including penicillinase resistant
		○ Cephalosporins
		○ \_\_\_\_
		○ Tetracyclines
		○ \_\_\_\_
		○ Clindamycin
A

penicillins
aminoglycosides
erythromycin

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30
Q

Mechanisms of Resistance

Enzymes that destroy drugs
Done to ____

Decreased cell permeability or increased efflux
Done to ____

Altered antibiotic targets
Done to ____
Change in ribosomal ____ structure

A

penicillins
tetracyclines
erythromycin 50S

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31
Q
Mechanisms of Resistance
Transfer
• \_\_\_\_ mutation
• Conjugation (“X” rated figure) 
• \_\_\_\_
• R-factors
A

sponataneous

plasmids

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32
Q

Penicillin Toxicity

Mild ____ disturbances, Candida overgrowths

____ > Penicillin V

Drug Allergy: Allergic to one, then allergic to ____
o Rash, hives, uticaria
o ____ Sickness
o Anaphylaxis

Incidence: up to 1:10 patients – ____
1:10,000 patients – ____

A
GI
amoxicillin
all
serum
mild
anaphylaxis
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33
Q

Drug Allergy or Hypersensitivity

Requires \_\_\_\_ exposure (sensitizing dose)
Independent of d\_\_\_\_
Antigen-Antibody Rxn > Mediator release
A. \_\_\_\_
B. Complement
C. \_\_\_\_
D. Leukotrienes
E. \_\_\_\_
Skin/Bronchioles/Cardiovascular System
A
previous
dose
histamine
heparin
PAF, ECF
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34
Q

Pharmacological Interventions for Drug Allergy

Mild: Oral ____ receptor blocker (antihistamine) ____ (Benadryl®) 25 – 50 mg

Severe: ____ 1:1000 (1 mg/ml) Preloaded syringe 0.3 – 0.5 ml
IM, Subcutaneous, Sublingual

A

H1
diphenydramine
epinephrine

35
Q

Epi receptor actions
A1: ____ skin, gut
B1: increased ____, increased ____
B2: ____, ____ internal organs and skeletal muscles

A
vasoconstriction
HR
contraction force
bronchodilation
vasodilation
36
Q

Drug Toxicity
1. Can occur on 1st ____
2. Phenomenon is ____-related
3. Involves specific tissue ____
4. Symptoms appear in tissues harboring specific ____
Example: Pharmacologic activity of codeine

A

exposure
dose
receptors
receptors

37
Q

Cephalosporins

Spectrum: ____, hits some penicillinase producing bugs

1st Generation: ____ (Keflex®), Cephradine (Velosef®)
2nd Generation: ____ (Duricef®), Cefaclor (Ceclor®)
3rd Generation: ____ (Cefobid®), Cefotaxime (Claforan®)
4th Generation: ____ (Maxipime®), Cefpirome ( Cefrom®)

Mechanism: ____ - ____

A
extended
cephalexin
cefadroxil
cefoperazone
cefepime

cell wall
bactericidal

38
Q

Cephalosporins continued

Uses in dentistry: Occasionally when culture and sensitivity dictates their use. Do not use ____!

Prophylaxis of some joint replacement patients: ____ (Keflex®) or Cephradine (Velosef®) 2g

Toxicity: More GI and superinfections than ____ Approximately 10% cross allergenicity with ____

A

empirically
cephalexin
penicillin V
penicillins

39
Q
Cephalosporin Spectrum
Gram Positive
\_\_\_\_
Streptococci 
\_\_\_\_ 
Clostridium
Gram Negative
\_\_\_\_
Proteus 
\_\_\_\_
Neiserria 
\_\_\_\_
A

staphylococci
pneumococci

E. coli
klebsiella
bacteroides

40
Q

Macrolide Antibiotics

Drugs: ____ (Eryc®, Ery-Tab®) Clarithromycin (Biaxin®) ____ atoms in macrocyclic lactam ring. Many ____ interactions.

____ (Zithromax) ____ atoms in macrocyclic lactam ring. Far ____ drug interactions.

Mechanism of action: ____ ribosomes, ____

A

erythromycin
14
drug

azithromycin
15
less
50S

41
Q

Erythromycin

Indications: ____, Legionairre’s, ____, Bordatella
Pen-V sensitive infections in penicillin-allergic individuals

*Generally less effective than ____ in odontogenic infections especially against odontogenic anaerobes.

Absorption: erratic, acid ____, many enteric-coated preparations

ADRS: High incidence of nuisance GI side effects
*Cytochrome P-450 (CYP-3A4, -1A2) ____

A

diptheria
mycoplasma

Pen-V
labile

inhibitor

42
Q

Clarithromycin

  • More rapid and complete absorption than ____
  • Longer ____ than erythromycin
  • Better ____ (GI) than erythromycin
  • ____ prophylaxis (500 mg) in penicillin allergic individuals
  • Cytochrome P-450 (CYP-3A4) ____
A
e-mycin
T1/2
tolerated
endocarditis
inhibitor
43
Q

Fexofenadine (Allegra ®) is non-sedative since it doesn’t get to the brain

Accumulation of Terfenadine is cardio-toxic –> ____

A

torsades de pointe

44
Q

____: Used to treat GERD

Stimulation or peripheral cholinergic receptors increases stomach contractions and the rate at which food passes

[Cisapride] increase when taken with ____

Can increase the odds of Torsades de pointes however via QT Interval increase

Low variability with a small number of people –> effective

A

cisapride

clarithromycin

45
Q

____: Too high of an accumulation can cause Torsades de Pointes

Works in treating tourettes

[] increases when on ____

A

primozide

clarithromycin

46
Q

ALL of the drugs are either CYP3A4 or CYP1A2 substrates

____ is a non-sedating anti-histamine no longer on the market

____: Dopamine 2 agonist for treating Parkinson’s
Get ____ since stimulating dopamine receptors in the periphery opens up the vasculature

____: Anti-convulsant for trigeminal neuralgia

\_\_\_\_: De-methylated caffeine 
4th line drug for asthma 
CNS and cardiac stimulant 
Blocks adenosine receptors –> normally are inhibitory transmitters 
Results in uncontested transmission 

Ca2+ blockers treat hypertension
Too much cause hypotension

Warfarin with erythromycin and clarithromycin is NOT as bad compared when taken with ____ or ____

A

astemizole
bromocriptine
hypotension

carbamazepine
theophylline

fluconazole
metronidazole

47
Q

____ : A sedative
Taken by kids orally due to the large therapeutic index

Can’t be titrated since it’s taken ____
Prolonged and over-sedation of kids

When kids are over-sedative they can lose their protective reflexes
Can restrict their own airway due to head ____

A

midazolam
orally
placement

48
Q

Azithromycin (Zithromax®)

Indications: ____, LRIs, skin and soft tissue, occasionally ____ infections (periodontal abscesses)

Unique property: Actively taken up by ____ and delivered by them to the infected site. Concentrates in ____ with high levels found in saliva, bone and gingival tissues.

Long \_\_\_\_ ~ 68 hours; Dosed 500 mg day 1, 250 mg days 2-5. 
\_\_\_\_ prophylaxis (500 mg) in penicillin allergic patients.

Better tolerated than ____ and no ____ interactions.

Very expensive: 5-day Z-pack = $60 7-day Pen V = $5

A

URIs
oral

phagocytes
tissue

T1/2

endocarditis
erythromycin
CYP-450

49
Q

Tetracycline HCl

Drugs: ____-Acting, Lower Potency
Tetracycline, ____ (Teramycin®)

250 mg – 500 mg q 6h
Longer-Acting, Higher Potency
____ (Vibramycin®), Minocycline (Minocin®) 50 mg –100 mg BID

PO Absorption: Chelate ____ and ____ cations

A

shorter
oxytetracycline

doxycycline

divalent
trivalent

50
Q

Tetracyclines Continued

Spectrum: Very ____, gram +, gram -, gram – ____

____

Mechanisms of Action:
• ____ ribosome inhibitor –specifically inhibits binding of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases to ribosomal receptor

•Non antimicrobial actions in periodontal disease:
•inhibit tissue ____ and metalloproteinases
•Enhance periodontal ____ and bone formation
Example: Low dose ____ therapy (Periostat®)
20 mg BID for up to one year

A

broad
anaerobes

bacteriostatic

30S
collagenases
reattachment
doxycycline

51
Q

Tetracyclines Continued

Unique property: Concentrate in ____ after systemic administration.

A

gingival crevicular fluid

52
Q

Tetracyclines Continued

Compared to penicillin V, tetracyclines produce:

1) A higher incidence of ____ problems (cramping, diarrhea)
2) A higher incidence of superinfections
a) ____ (Candida) overgrowths (oral, vaginal, GI) b) ____

Other ADRS: Permanently ____ Teeth (Children < 8 years)
Do not prescribe to ____ individuals!
____

A

GI
monolilial
pseudomembranous colitis

stained
pregnant
photosensitivity

53
Q

Local Delivery Systems for Periodontal Disease
Direct placement of agents into periodontal pockets:

a) increases ____ concentrations of antimicrobial
b) decreases ____ concentrations of antimicrobial

Example: Monolithic 25% tetracycline fiber (____®)
GCF levels > 1600 ug/ml at 24 hours
> 1200 ug/ml at 10 days Systemic blood levels non-detectable.

A

local
systemic
acticite

54
Q

10% ____ in a biodegradable polymer that solidifies on contact with the GCF (____®)
“Flows where fibers and chips can’t go.”
GCF Levels: 1100 ug/ml at 24 hours 200 ug/ml at 7 days
0 ug/ml at 14 days MIC(90) for perio pathogens = 2-6 ug/ml

Only system approved for ____.

A

doxycycline hyclate
atridox
monotherapy

55
Q

Biodegradable 2.5 mg chlorhexidine gluconate chip (____®)

Rapid Insertion: < 1 minute
GCF levels > 1000 ug/ml at 4 hours > 480 ug/ml at 72 hours
MIC for most perio pathogens < 2 ug/ml Non detectable ____ levels

No ____ visit (biodegradable)

A

periochip
systemic
return

56
Q

Clindamycin

Mechanism of action: ____ ribosome, protein synthesis inhibitor.

Absorption: nearly 100% PO Actively transported into ____ and WBC providing high [ ] in abscesses and bone.

Clinical uses: Prophylactic ____ and ____ regimens (600 mg) in penicillin allergic individuals
Chronic/persistent ____ infections (osteomyelitis) ____ infections in penicillin allergic patients
____ infections that don’t respond to Penicillin V

Typical endodontic regimen: ____ mg stat, then 300 mg q 6h for 5-7 days

A
50S
macrophages
endocardititis
joint
bony
odontogenic
endodontic

600

57
Q

Clindamycin Toxicity

• ____ (3-5% of patients)
• Diarrhea(10-20%ofpatients)
• Pseudomembranous colitis
– Occurs just as frequently with other ____ spectrum antibiotics (ampicillin, cephalosporins, tetracyclines)
– More commonly associated with parenteral ____ clindamycin formulation than oral clindamycin HCl salt
– ____ event in ambulatory dental patients
– Overgrowth of antibiotic-resistant Clostridium dificile that produces ____/cytotoxin-B

A
rash
broad
PO4
rare
enterotoxin A
58
Q

Predisposing Factors For C. Dificile Colitis Development

  • ____, cephalosporin, broad spectrum ____, or quinolone antibiotic administration
  • Previous antibiotic associated ____
  • Diabetes
  • ____age
  • Use of H-2 blockers - ____ (Tagamet®), ranitidine (Zantac®), famotidine (Pepcid®) or proton pump inhibitors – ____ (Prilosec®), esomeprazole (Nexium®)
  • ____ use
A
clindamycin
penicillin
diarrhea
older
cimetidine
omeprazole
diuretic
59
Q

Treatment of Pseudomembranous Colitis

• ____ patient and restore electrolyte balance
• Antibiotic therapy
– ____ 500 mg q 6h for 10 days
– ____ 500 mg q 6h for 10 days
• ____ therapy (for diarrhea) is contraindicated

A

hydrate
vancomycin
metronidazole
narcotic

60
Q

Metronidazole

Indications: ____, amebic infections, Giardia, and ____ bacterial infections

Mechanism of action: ____, parent molecule is reduced to ____ active metabolites by an anaerobic pathway
that disrupts bacterial ____

Dental uses: Highly effective against ____ bacteria associated with periodontal disease, endodontic infections and oral surgery infections. It is most often given with ____.

Dosing: 250 mg – 500 mg TID for 5 to 7 days.
____ delivery systems for periodontal disease are now available. 25% metronidazole gel (Elyzol Dental Gel®)

A

trichomonas
anaerobic

bactericidal
electronegative
DNA

anaerobic
penicillin V

local

61
Q

Metronidazole Adverse
____ for teratogenicity
____ inhibits the enzyme
Effects Disulfiram (Antibuse®) effect:

____, flushing, palpitations, nausea, vomiting

Other ADRs – Sharp ____ taste, stomatitis, nausea, headache, rarely seizures/peripheral neuropathy, use in pregnancy controversial.

Other Potential Drug Interactions:
Inhibition (2C9) of ____ (Coumadin®) metabolism > ____
Decreased ____ (Eskalith®) clearance > Confusion, ataxia
Kidney damage

____ much bigger issue than metronidazole with lithium!!

A

category B
alcohol

headache
metallic
warfarin
bleeding
lithium

NSAIDs

62
Q

Ciprofloxacin (fluroquinolones)

Drugs: ____ Ofloxacin (Floxin®) Levofloxacin (Levaquin®)

Uses: UTIs, ____s, Perio

Mechanism: DNA ____
inhibitor,
____

Spectrum: ____ gram negative Bacteria, but not strict anaerobes.

Absorption: Inhibited by ____ and trivalent cations (like tetracyclines)

Dosing: 500 mg q 12h for 7 days
For mixed anaerobic infections combined with ____

A

ciprofloxacin
LRI
gyrase
bactericidal

facultative
divalent
metronidazole

63
Q

Fluroquinolone Adverse Reactions

____, diarrhea, insomnia, ____ damage and rupture, ____ (like tetracyclines).

Inhibits biotransformation of ____ leading to arrhythmias and seizures.
(CYP-1A2 ____ - theophylline)

A

nausea
tendon
photosensitivity

methylxanthines
inhibition

64
Q

Dangers of Indiscriminate Use

  • Development of new ____ strains
  • Development of ____
  • Drug toxicity
  • Drug ____ and allergy
  • Potential for drug interactions
A

resistant
superinfections
sensitization

65
Q

Therapeutic Index = ____

A

risk/benefit

66
Q

Principles of Antibiotic Therapy

  • Identify ____ ASAP
  • Culture and sensitivity
  • ____ spectrum possible
  • Least toxic
  • ____ if possible

First line drug = ____

A

pathogens
narrowest
bactericidal
penicillin V

67
Q
Antibiotic Prophylaxis Controversy
• Healthy dental surgery patients? [strike-through]
• \_\_\_\_ surgical patients
• At-risk patients for bacterial \_\_\_\_ 
• Patients with \_\_\_\_ implants
A

immunocompromised
endocarditis
orthopedic

68
Q

Endocarditis: “The Myths”

  • ____ procedures cause most of the cases.
  • Incubation period can be up to ____ year.
  • Many ____ clinical trials.
  • Most physicians have a high ____ of endocarditis prophylaxis regimens.
A

dental
one
controlled
knowledge

69
Q

Endocarditis: “The Facts”

  • Dental procedures at most cause ____% of the cases.
  • ____ sources, especially in at-risk. patients with poor oral hygiene > 90% of cases.
  • Typical incubation period < ____ weeks.
  • Never a ____ clinical trial.
  • Generally compliance among ____ is less than dentists.
A
4
physiological
2
controlled
physicians
70
Q

Showing how there are procedures that don’t require antibiotics that still have a high chance of causing ____

A

bacteremias

71
Q

Cardiac Conditions Associated With The Highest Risk of Adverse Outcome From Endocarditis for Which Prophylaxis Before Dental Procedures is Reasonable

• ____ or prosthetic material used for valve repair
• Previous infective ____
• Certain congenital heart diseases (CHDs)
– Unrepaired ____ including palliative shunts and conduits
– Completely repaired ____ defect with prosthetic material or device whether placed via open surgery or catheter during the first ____months after the procedure
– Repaired CHD with residual defects ____ to the site of prosthetic patch or device (which inhibits endothelialization)
• Cardiac transplantation recipients who develop
____

A
prosthetic cardiac valve
endocarditis
cyanotic CHD
six
adjacent
cardiac valvulopathy
72
Q

Prophylaxis not recommended for:

• All other \_\_\_\_ diseases
• Beyond \_\_\_\_ months of a successful CHD repair
• \_\_\_\_ and atrial septal defects
• All forms of \_\_\_\_ valve prolapse
• Aortic calcified \_\_\_\_
• And as in past:
– Implanted \_\_\_\_ and defibrillators
– \_\_\_\_ surgery patients
– \_\_\_\_ patients w/o valvulopathy 
– \_\_\_\_ or innocent murmurs
A
congenital heart
6
ventricular
mitral
stenosis
pacemakers
CABG
cardiac transplant
functional
73
Q

Dental Procedures for Which Endocarditis Prophylaxis is Reasonable in At-Risk Patients

Prophylaxis Not Recommended
• ____ restorative procedures w/o wedge and/or matrix placement
• Local ____ injections through non-infected tissue
• Dental ____
• ____ bracket placement
• Placement or adjustment of removable appliances
• ____ treatments
• Impressions
• Shedding of ____ teeth
• Bleeding from injury to ____ or oral ____

Prophylaxis Recommended 
Ø \_\_\_\_
Ø Apicoectomies
Ø \_\_\_\_ therapy
Ø Rubber dam clamp placement
Ø \_\_\_\_ surgery
Ø Scaling and root planing, periodontal probing, sub-gingival restorative, supra-gingival preps with wedge/matrix placement
Ø \_\_\_\_
Ø Placement of local delivery systems 
Ø \_\_\_\_ injections
Ø Placement or removal of orthodontic bands
A
supra-gingival
anesthetic
radiographs
orthodontic
fluoride
primary
lips
mucosa
extractions
root canal
periodontal
biopsies
intraligamental
74
Q

Main talking points to patients regarding new guidelines

  • Infective endocarditis is much more likely to result from frequent exposure to random ____ (brushing, flossing, chewing) than from bacteremias caused by dental procedures.
  • ____ may prevent an exceeding small number of cases of IE, if any, in people undergoing dental procedures.
  • The ____ of antibiotic-associated adverse events may exceed the benefit , if any, from prophylaxis regimens.
  • Maintenance of optimal ____ and hygiene may reduce the incidence of bacteremia from daily activities and is more important than ____ for a dental procedure to reduce the risk of IE.
A
bacteremias
prophylaxis
risk
oral health
prophylactic
75
Q

1997/2007 Endocarditis Prophylaxis Regimens

Standard: ____ 2 grams (50 mg/kg Peds)

Penicillin Allergic: ____ 600 mg (20 mg/kg Peds)

____ or Clarithromycin 500 mg (15 mg/kg Peds)

____ or Cefadroxil 2 grams‡ (50 mg/kg Peds)

*All regimens ____ hour before procedure

‡ Cephalosporins should not be used in individuals with a history of ____, angioedema or ____ to penicillins.

A

amoxicillin
clindamycin
azithromycin
cephalexin

one
anaphylaxis
urticaria

76
Q

Additional Endocarditis Tidbits

“If the dosage of antibiotic is inadvertently not administered before the procedure, the dosage may be administered up to ____ hours after the procedure.”

Another concern that dentists have expressed involves patients who require prophylaxis but are already taking antibiotics for another condition. In these cases, the recommendations for infective endocarditis recommend that the dentist select an antibiotic from a different ____ than the one the patient is already taking.

For example, if the patient is taking amoxicillin, the dentist should select ____, azithromycin or ____ for prophylaxis.

A

two
class

clindamycin
clarithromycin

77
Q

1997 ADA/AAOS Advisory Statement

“Antibiotic prophylaxis is not indicated for dental patients with ____, plates, and screws, nor is it routinely indicated for most dental patients with total ____ replacements.

However, it is advisable to consider pre-medication in a small number of patients who may be at potential risk of ____ total joint infection.”

A

pins
joint
hematogenous

78
Q

Patients at Increased Risk of Hematogenous Total Joint Infection

•Immunocompromised/immunosuppressed patients
– ____
– Systemic lupus erythematosus
– ____ dependent diabetes
– Disease, drug or radiation induced immunosupression
– ____
– Malnourished

• Other patients
– First ____ years following joint replacement
– Previous joint____

A
rheumatoid arthritis
insulin
hemophilia
2
infections
79
Q

February 2009 AAOS Information Statement

Given the potential adverse outcomes and cost of treating an infected joint replacement, the AAOS recommends that clinicians consider antibiotic prophylaxis for all total joint replacement patients prior to any ____ procedure that may cause bacteremia. This is particularly important for those patients with one or more of the following risk factors. Same as previous slide but add ____, megaprostheses and ____ infection and delete within ____ years of surgery.

A

invasive
malignancy
HIV
2

80
Q

July 2009 JADA Editorial by Michael Glick

Contrary to other practice guidelines that have recognized the harm in using antibiotics when not absolutely necessary, these new recommendations could result in an increased use of ____ for patients, the vast majority of whom are not in need of prophylactic coverage.

In the case of the new 2009 AAOS recommendations, it will be hard to argue that the benefit to the individual patient outweighs the harm to the public. Using clinical guidelines that cannot be scientifically supported will tarnish our professional integrity and diminish the public’s trust in our profession.

A

antibiotics

81
Q

2012 Joint ADA/AAOS Statements

The Guideline Recommendations:
1. The practitioner might consider discontinuing the practice of routinely prescribing prophylactic antibiotics for patients with hip and knee prosthetic joint implants undergoing dental procedures. Strength of Recommendation: ____

A Limited Recommendation means the quality of the supporting evidence that exists is ____, or that well-conducted studies show little clear advantage to one approach versus another.

Practitioners should be cautious in deciding whether to follow a recommendation classified as Limited, and should exercise judgment and be alert to emerging publications that report evidence. Patient preference should have a substantial influencing role.

A

limited

unconvincing

82
Q

2012 Joint ADA/AAOS Statements

  1. We are unable to recommend for or against the use of topical oral antimicrobials in patients with prosthetic joint implants or other orthopaedic implants undergoing dental procedures.
    Strength of Recommendation: ____

An Inconclusive Recommendation means that there is a lack of ____ evidence resulting in an unclear balance between benefits and potential harm.

Practitioners should feel little constraint in deciding whether to follow a recommendation labeled as Inconclusive and should exercise judgment and be alert to future publications that clarify existing evidence for determining balance of benefits versus potential harm. Patient preference should have a substantial influencing role.

A

inconclusive

compelling

83
Q

2012 Joint ADA/AAOS Statements
3. In the absence of reliable evidence linking poor oral health to prosthetic joint infection, it is the opinion of the work group that patients with prosthetic joint implants or other orthopaedic implants maintain appropriate oral hygiene.
Strength of Recommendation: ____

A Consensus Recommendation means that expert opinion supports the guideline recommendation even though there is no available empirical evidence that meets the inclusion criteria.

A

consensus

84
Q

Joint Prophylaxis Regimens

Not Allergic to Penicillin:
____ 2 grams
or ____ 2 grams
or ____ 2 grams

Allergic to Penicillin: ____ 600 mg

  • All regimens taken ____ hour before the procedure
A
cephalexin
cephradine
amoxicillin
clindamycin
one