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1C5 CDCs Code 6 > Vol 3 UREs Continued > Flashcards

Vol 3 UREs Continued Flashcards

1
Q

who normally primarily submits the preplanned request in a multi service force environment to the combat plans division

A

army

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2
Q

which mission set of the ATO contains the aircraft call sign and the standard conventional load?

A

mission aircraft

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3
Q

who designates the airspace control authority?

A

JFC

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4
Q

which document provides the details of the approved request for fire support coordination measures?

A

airspace control order ACO

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5
Q

who provides the capabilities required to meet the area air defense plan? AADP

A

component commanders

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6
Q

what combines active defense, passive defense, and C2 systems to defend against threats?

A

Area Air Defense Plan AADP

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7
Q

which document outlines duties functions and parameters for tactical link operations?

A

OPTASKLINK

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8
Q

who submits daily intelligence summaries (disum) to the national level?

A

combatant commands

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9
Q

which document tends to become historical and statistical over the passage of time?

A

DISUM daily intel summary

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10
Q

who is the final authority for theater rules of engagement (ROE)?

A

joint forces commander

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11
Q

which type of tactic is performed during peacetime ROE when intercept is run on an aircraft entering US airspace

A

Stern Attack

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12
Q

what supplements numerous procedures and airspace usages contained in other portions of the ATO

A

SPINS

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13
Q

SPINS are published

A

baseline, weekly, and daily

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14
Q

which umbrella term covers technologies that produce concentrated electromagnetic energy or subatomic particles?

A

Direct energy (DE)

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15
Q

the usage of electronic or mechanical devices that reduces the effectiveness of enemy offensive and defensive electronic systems are known as an electronic?

A

attack

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16
Q

what responds to searches that consist of the interception, identification, and location sources of intentional and unintentional radiated electromagnetic energy for the purpose of threat recognition?

A

electronic support ES

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17
Q

in control of the electromagnetic spectrum EMS, denial is accomplished using

A

degradation, disruption, and deception….. not DETECTION

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18
Q

which characteristic does a jamming transmitter not use to jam a radar?

A

Reflecting or absorbing the radar signal

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19
Q

which is an advantage of a sweep jammer

A

can sequentially jam several radars operating at different frequencies

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20
Q

which is an advantage of a barrage jammer?

A

covers a wide band of frequencies simultaneously

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21
Q

which characteristic does not affect chaffs screening ability

A

range

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22
Q

small aircrafts containing propulsion system that can be programmed to maneuver and change altitude are known as

A

decoys

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23
Q

which type of device is designed to home in on a radar signal

A

missiles

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24
Q

which devices are used as a countermeasure for infrared IR receivers aboard interceptor aircraft or against IR seeking missiles?

A

Flares

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25
Q

the ability of a radar set to be tuned rapidly from one frequency to another frequency is s what we call

A

frequency agility

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26
Q

frequency agility is most successful against a

A

manually tuned spot jammer

27
Q

what is the first thing you do if you realize that you are being jammed

A

alert other crew members

28
Q

when would you not mention anything about an electronic attack? EA

A

over no secure radios or telephones

29
Q

which operator action uses the intersection of two or more radar electronic attack EA strobes to determine the position of a jammer?

A

triangulation

30
Q

why is important to locate the position of a jammer?

A

so you can direct interceptor aircraft to it to neutralize the jammer

31
Q

the type of communications jamming you probably will encounter more frequently than others are

A

spark

32
Q

which type of comms jamming cause a sound somewhat like an aircraft engine?

A

Sweep-through

33
Q

which type of comms jamming may be mistaken for a receiver or atmospheric interference

A

noise

34
Q

which option is not an effect jamming measure

A

recorded music or foreign language broadcast

35
Q

when experiencing comms jamming, what must you not do?

A

consider all interference as unintentional unless you can positively identify it to be jamming

36
Q

when your comms are being jammed, what should you remember to do when you go to an alternate frequency

A

change your call sign

37
Q

when can you use enemy freqs

A

as a last resort with the concurrence of your intel officer

38
Q

what must you not do when using “radio discipline” as a countermeasure?

A

speak quickly so as to pass as much info as possible

39
Q

what is the preferred way of submitting an EMI report

A

via electronic message

40
Q

what is a form of intentional interference that does not affect radar circuits, but concerns the transmission or retransmission of actual or simulated navigational signals to confuse navigation

A

meaconing

41
Q

within how many hours must you report emi incidents?

A

24

42
Q

which report is not a type of EMI report

A

cancellation

43
Q

what are the 3 types of emi reports

A

initial, closing, and supplemental

44
Q

which EMI report does the engineering installation squadron or the major command MAJCOM designated point of contact submit

A

closing

45
Q

a data link architecture is defined as

A

the overall design of the comms system forming the multi-tactical network (MTN)

46
Q

which timing architecture is normally used if your unit is operating in the link 11 environment?

A

polling

47
Q

which data link transmission methods are used across great distances?

A

HF and SATCOM

48
Q

which comms medium is used by link 11 participants for beyond the horizon nets?

A

HF

49
Q

what is the TDL for airborne plaforms that uses ultrahigh freqs UHF radio for line of sight LOS nets

A

link 11

50
Q

what TDL is capable of operating in both full duplex mode and is primarily used between ground based units?

A

link 11B

51
Q

which voice communications net is used by the interface control officer (ICO) to manage the data link architecture?

A

Data link coordination net (DCN)

52
Q

which voice comm net provides signal intel (SIGINT) information between interfacing units?

A

voice product net VPN

53
Q

which TACS unit is capable of data link operations but has no inherent surveillance radar capabilities?

A

AOC

54
Q

what piece of equipment is used at the AOC to monitor and interface on a near real time basis with tactical units

A

ADSI

55
Q

the Modular Control Equipment MCE data links consist of link 11

A

link 11b, link 16, army tactical data link-1 (ATDL-1), and link-1

56
Q

which TDL are typically used by the Army to receive data link inputs?

A

Link 11B and Link 16

57
Q

which document contains specific voice coordination freqs used for troubleshooting and coordinating data-link operations?

A

OPORD annex K

58
Q

which message type outlines duties, functions, and parameters for link operations?

A

OPTASKLINK

59
Q

when designing your data link architecture, what must you consider to allow overlapping coverage and to also prevent multiple instances of track duplication?

A

data link filter plan

60
Q

which is not a sub-network of the joint data network (JDN)?

A

domestic events network

61
Q

what are sub networks of the Joint data network (JDN)?

A

Sensor network, intelligence network, and multi tactical data link network.

62
Q

what is the primary feed to support generation of the common tactical picture (CTP)

A

Joint Data Network (JDN)

63
Q

which data link tool is used to request certain data that was purged or dropped locally from one or more C2 interface units?

A

Data update request

1C5 CDCs Code 6 (5 decks)

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