Germ cell tumours Flashcards

1
Q

Classification of GCT

A
  • GCT classification can be best understood by returning to the basics of early embryonic development. Oocytes are totipotent (i.e. can become any tissue within the embryo) and hence GCTs, even as an abnormal growth, develop along embryological cell lines:

Trophoblast (syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast)
Yolk sac (endodermal cells)
Embryo (epiblast)

GCT

  • Undifferentiated (Dysgerminoma: 45 %)
  • Differentiated
    • Teratoma 20 % (mature/immature)
    • Yolk sac tumor (yolk sac tumor 20 %)
    • Whole blastocyst (embryonal carcinoma <5 %)
    • Trophoblast (Choriocarcinoma < 1 %)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Match the germ cell tumour type to its originating cell line.

1 - Dysgerminoma

Yolk sac
Undifferentiated tumour
Trophoblast
Embryological derivation

2 - Choricarcinoma

Yolk sac
Undifferentiated tumour
Trophoblast
Embryological derivation

3 - Yolk sac tumour (also called endodermal sinus tumour)

Yolk sac
Undifferentiated tumour
Trophoblast
Embryological derivation

4 - Teratoma

Yolk sac
Undifferentiated tumour
Trophoblast
Embryological derivation

A

1 - The answer is undifferentiated tumour.

2 - The answer is trophoblast.

3 - The answer is yolk sac.

4 - The answer is embryological derivation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hormones produced by different tumours

A

Tumour α-FP hCG LDH
Dysgerminoma (-) ± ±
Immature teratoma ± – ±
Yolk sac tumour
(endodermal sinus tumour)+ – ±
Choriocarcinoma – + –

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Key points of tumor marker

A

Women of childbearing age with an ovarian mass should have hCG, α-FP, LDH and CA125 measured.
Knowledge of tumour marker half-lives is important (hCG: 16-48 hours; α-FP: 5–7 days) when evaluating risk of residual disease following surgical removal of suspected stage IA disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

diagnosis of GCT

A

Diagnosis

History: as above

Examination:

distended abdomen
pelvic mass
ascites.
Features of advanced disease:

pleural effusions
palpable lymph nodes
hepatomegaly.
Imaging:

doppler ultrasound and contrast-enhanced MRI of pelvis to look for adnexal masses and assess ease of operability
contrast-enhanced CT/MRI to evaluate abdomen/solid organs
contrast-enhanced CT chest
MRI brain with contrast should be done in any woman with disease spread above the diaphragm or if otherwise clinically indicated.
Blood tests:

Full blood profile
Biochemistry to include urea and electrolytes/liver function tests/bone
Tumour markers: α-FP, hCG, LDH and CA125.
Add/Edit reflective notes
< Previous pageNext page >

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Presentation OF GCT

A

The clinical presentation of MOGCTs tends to be quite different and distinct from that of the more common epithelial ovarian cancer. Typical presenting symptoms of epithelial ovarian cancer usually relate to upper abdominal dissemination and include bloating, early satiety, loss of appetite, abdominal distension and vague chronic abdominal pain. On the other hand, ovarian GCTs often present more acutely and at an earlier stage. Typical presentations would be with a rapidly enlarging abdominal/pelvic mass, acute severe lower abdominal pain due to tumour rupture, haemorrhage or torsion. Ovarian GCTs may present with urinary symptoms, such as dysuria and urinary frequency or rectal symptoms or menstrual irregularities in post-menarche patients. Occasionally, patients may present with symptoms due to tumour related β-hCG production, such as a positive pregnancy test. Very rarely, women can present with isosexual precocious puberty (although this is more common in males) or with ectopic hyperthyroidism due to cross-reactivity of β-hCG (at extremely high concentrations) with the TSH receptor.

In contrast to epithelial cancers, where bilateral ovarian involvement is not unusual, unilaterality is typical for ovarian GCTs (CAVE:~10–20% of dysgerminomas are bilateral).

Prognostic factors for malignant germ cell tumours include tumour size (>10cm), histological type (endodermal sinus, choriocarcinoma) and grade (high grade for immature teratomas).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Answer whether the following symptoms relate to germ cell tumours, epithelial ovarian tumours, neither or both!

Pelvic mass

Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither
Ascites
Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither
GI symptoms
Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither
A 6-month delay in presentation

Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither

A

1 - The answer is both.

2 - The answer is epithelial ovarian tumour.

3 - The answer is epithelial ovarian tumour.

4 - The answer is epithelial ovarian tumour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Answer whether the following management options relate to germ cell tumours, epithelial ovarian tumours, neither or both!

1 - Surgery – total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy omentectomy

Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither

2 - Surgery – oophorectomy

Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither

3 - Surgery – biopsy only

Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither

4 - Chemotherapy – includes platinum

Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither

A

1 - The answer is epithelial ovarian tumour.

2 - The answer is germ cell tumour.

3 - The answer is neither.

4 - The answer is both.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Answer whether the following prognosis relates to either a germ cell tumour, an epithelial ovarian tumour, neither or both!

1 - 88% survival

Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither

2 - 50% survival

Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither

3 - 30% survival

Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither

A

1 - The answer is germ cell tumour.

2 - The answer is neither.

3 - The answer is epithelial ovarian tumour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Answer whether the following relate to a germ cell tumour, a epithelial ovarian tumour, neither or both!

1 - Age at presentation is 16–20 years

Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither

2 - Age at presentation is 60–75 years

Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither

3 - Stage at presentation is stage I

Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither

4 - Stage at presentation is stage III

Epithelial ovarian tumour
Germ cell tumour
Both
Neither

A

1 - The answer is germ cell tumour.

2 - The answer is epithelial ovarian tumour.

3 - The answer is germ cell tumour.

4 - The answer is epithelial ovarian tumour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Key points of GCT presentation

A

Typical symptoms include rapidly enlarging abdominal/pelvic mass, acute severe lower abdominal pain due to tumour rupture, haemorrhage or torsion.
Other symptoms may include dysuria, urinary frequency, rectal symptoms, menstrual irregularities, positive pregnancy test (rarely: precocious puberty, hyperthyroidism).
Ovarian GCTs are commonly unilateral (CAVE: ~10–20% of dysgerminomas bilateral).
Prognostic factors for malignant GCTs include tumour size (>10 cm), histological type (endodermal sinus, choriocarcinoma) and grade (high grade for immature teratomas).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A nulliparous 18-year-old woman presents to A&E with a 2-week history of worsening abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. She is not septic or dehydrated, but is in pain. Examination demonstrates a tender, distended abdomen, but no rebound or guarding. Urinalysis is normal and she is apyrexial, normotensive and not tachycardic.

What could be the differential diagnosis?
What investigations are needed at the outset?

A

The common causes of abdominal and pelvic pain in a young woman are:

appendicitis
ectopic pregnancy
ovarian cyst accident
mesenteric adenitis
pelvic inflammatory disease
constipation
Infective causes (PID, appendicitis, mesenteric adenitis) would be unlikely without a tachycardia or temperature, but would be worth excluding.

Investigations that would be helpful initially would be:
Abdominal examination Any signs of an acute abdomen? Any peritonism? Bowel sounds
Vaginal examination Cervical excitation? Pelvic mass or tenderness? Purulent/bloody cervical discharge
Rectal examination Any right iliac fossa pain or mass associated with appendicitis (low lying)?
Full blood count Looking for anaemia and neutrophilia
β-hCG To exclude ectopic pregnancy
Pelvic ultrasound (transvaginal if possible) To investigate for adnexal masses
Case study – results of the investigations
Abdomen Soft. No rebound or guarding. Some tenderness in the right iliac fossa
VE/PR Normal-sized anteverted uterus. Smooth, firm and mobile right adnexal mass. Empty rectum
Full blood count Haemoglobin: 10.9
White cell count: 8.4
Platelets: 280
β-hCG Negative
Midstream urine No growth
Ultrasound scan Normal uterus and left ovary. Thin endometrium. 10 × 13 cm right adnexal mass with cystic and solid components. No free fluid.
A germ cell is suspected. Complete the assessment on the following page about what investigations are required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A germ cell tumour is suspected. Which of the following investigations are required preoperatively?

A germ cell tumour is suspected. Which of the following investigations are required preoperatively?

α-fetoprotein
True
False

Chest x-ray
True
False

hCG
True
False

LDH
True
False

A

1 - The answer is true. This is a marker for teratomas and yolk sac tumours.

2 - The answer is true. Lung metastases are possible particularly with choriocarcinomas.

3 - The answer is true. Ovarian choriocarcinomas are rare but are a form of germ cell tumour.

4 - The answer is true. LDH is a marker for dysgerminomas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A germ cell tumour is suspected. Which of the following investigations are required preoperatively?

A germ cell tumour is suspected. Which of the following investigations are required preoperatively?

Group and save
True
False

CA125
True
False

ECG
True
False

CA19-9
True
False

A

1 - The answer is true. This is appropriate for any laparotomy.

2 - The answer is true. This is appropriate for any large pelvic mass.

3 - The answer is false. ECGs are only required preoperatively in patients with a known cardiac history or who are aged >50 years.

4 - The answer is false. This is a marker to look for upper gastrointertinal tumours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The following should be removed via surgery from a young woman you suspect of having a GCT.

The following should be removed via surgery from a young woman you suspect of having a GCT.

Uterus
True
False

Ovarian mass
True
False

Contralateral ovary
True
False

A

1 - The answer is false. The standard surgery for an epithelial ovarian tumour would be a total abdominal hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and omentectomy. However, this would be inappropriate in a young woman with a chemosensitive tumour.

2 - The answer is true. Removal is clearly needed both for histology and, if required, symptom resolution.

3 - The answer is false. The standard surgery for an epithelial ovarian tumour would be a total abdominal hysterectomy, bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and omentectomy. However, this would be inappropriate in a young woman with a chemosensitive tumour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The following should be removed via surgery from a young woman you suspect of having a GCT.

The following should be removed via surgery from a young woman you suspect of having a GCT.

Enlarged pelvic and para-aortic lymph nodes
True
False

Omentum
True
False

A

1 - The answer is true. A systematic pelvic lymphadenectomy is not appropriate in a chemosensitive tumour. However, a careful clinical assessment and removal of any enlarged nodes is advisable. This is for staging only, not for treatment.

2 - The answer is true. Ovarian tumours of all types commonly spread transcoelomically. Hence an omental biopsy for staging to plan future chemotherapy is appropriate. An omentectomy is also appropriate – the choice is really dependent upon the surgeon, the access and the route of surgery (laparoscopic or open).

17
Q

Key points of surgery of GCT

A
  • Fertility-preserving surgery via mid-line incision (unilateral salpingo-ophorectomy and surgical staging) is accepted standard of care in early-stage disease.
  • Biopsy of a contralateral normal ovary is not recommended (might impair fertility).
  • In advanced stage, chemotherapy is recommended as primary treatment followed by completion surgery to resect residual masses.
  • In recurrence, surgical removal is recommended, followed by chemotherapy if adverse features were found in the histological specimen.
18
Q

Standard recommendations of treatment of GCT

A

Tumour Stage Treatment

Dysgerminoma:	
- Stage IA/IB
       Surgery + surveillance
- Stage IC	
       Surgery + postoperative chemotherapy

Non-dysgerminoma
- Stage IA, IB of any type or Stage IC immature GCT grade 1/2
Surgery + postoperative surveillance
- Stage IC, grade 3 immature
Surgery + surveillance
Or
Surgery + postoperative adjuvant chemotherapy

  • Stage IC or unsuspected stage II
    Surgery + chemotherapy
  • Stage II or greater
    Neoadjuvant chemotherapy followed by surgery
19
Q

Side effects of chemotherapy

While effective, there are toxicities associated with chemotherapy; common side effects from BEP/POMB-ACE chemotherapy include:

A

1 - nausea and vomiting (manageable with 5-hydroxytryptamine 3 receptor antagonists/ dexamethasone and neurokinin-1 antagonists)
2 - fatigue
3 - sore mouth
4 - high-tone hearing loss/tinnitus (ototoxicity; due to cisplatin)
5 - peripheral neuritis
6 - nephrotoxicity (exacerbated by dehydration)
7 - myelosuppression with risk of infection (neutropenic sepsis)/bleeding (thrombocytopenia) and anaemia
8 - pulmonary toxicity (bleomycin). Any new-onset cough/shortness of breath should be investigated urgently to exclude pneumonitis or fibrosis.

20
Q

Chemotherapy

Stage IC yolk sac tumours are treated with surgery alone.
True
False

Germ cell tumours are usually hereditary.
True
False

All dysgerminomas require chemotherapy
True
False

Surgery for a germ cell tumour is total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy and omentectomy.
True
False

Bleomycin toxicity is dose-related
True
False

A

1 - The answer is false.

2 - The answer is false. They are rarely hereditary.

3 - The answer is false.

4 - The answer is true.

21
Q

Chemotherapy

The long-term side effects of etoposide include an increased incidence of leukaemia
True
False

The complete remission rate following chemotherapy is approximately 90%
True
False

Pregnancy is uncommon following chemotherapy for germ cell tumours
True
False

There is an increased incidence of congenital abnormalities in babies born following chemotherapy for germ cell tumours
True
False

A

1 - The answer is true.

2 - The answer is true.

3 - The answer is false.

4 - The answer is false.

22
Q

Key points, Chemotherapy of GCT

A
  • Chemotherapy is standard of care for all MOGCTs.
  • Decision to treat is based on the type of GCT, the grade of differentiation and disease stage.
  • Stage IA tumours are managed safely without immediate adjuvant chemotherapy (reserved for relapse), but an intensive surveillance protocol must be in place (e.g. tumour markers, chest x-ray and abdomino-pelvic MRI).
  • The woman should be counselled to avoid pregnancy for first 2 years following treatment.
  • Adjuvant chemotherapy is the accepted standard for most cases with greater than stage IA disease.
  • Commonly used regimen include BEP or for high-risk patients POMB/ACE.
23
Q

There are several strategies available for breaking bad news but all, in essence, follow a similar pattern:

A

elicit what is known so far
a ‘warning shot’
allow pauses for thought and questions; don’t rush
explanation if requested
empathy
plan of management
offer of future help, support and meetings.

24
Q

Look up the published success rates for chemotherapy for an ovarian GCT, consider the side effects, and then plan how you would talk to a young woman and her family about a diagnosis of a stage IC dysgerminoma following surgery.

Things to remember when planning a discussion of a cancer diagnosis:

A

breaking bad news – how to do it (to help the patient and yourself)
little of what is said is taken in – be concise
what does the patient want to know – everything, a little or nothing?
it is likely that important questions will come up – survival, side effects and questions about future fertility.

25
Q

What is the correct FIGO stage for each of the following?

Tumour in ovaries, pelvis, para-aortic lymph nodes and with microscopic spread in the omentum

Tumour in ovaries and omentum (less than 2 cm)

Tumour in one ovary, positive washings

Tumour involving ovaries and pelvic peritoneum, negative washings

Involvement of both ovaries, negative washings

A

Tumour in ovaries, pelvis, para-aortic lymph nodes and with microscopic spread in the omentum

Stage IIIA2
__________________

Tumour in ovaries and omentum (less than 2 cm)

Stage IIIB
___________________

Tumour in one ovary, positive washings

Stage IC3
_________________

Tumour involving ovaries and pelvic peritoneum, negative washings

Stage IIB
______________________

Involvement of both ovaries, negative washings

The answer is stage IB.

26
Q

A 17-year-old girl without a significant past medical history has been diagnosed and treated for a yolk-sac tumour.

Which tumour marker would be most appropriate to use for follow up?

α-fetoprotein
CA125
hCG
Lactate dehydrogenase
Placental alkaline phosphatase
A

The correct answer is α-FP. Tumour markers can be used for pre-operative assessment and post-operative follow up in germ cell tumours. Trophoblast-derived tumours produce hCG; yolk sac tumours α-FP +/- LDH. Dysgerminomas are undifferentiated tumours and can produce hCG, PLAP and LDH, but not α-FP.

27
Q

A 19-year-old woman undergoes surgery for a unilateral pelvic mass. Intraoperative findings show implants on the fallopian tube and cytology confirms malignant peritoneal washings. Histology confirms a granulosa cell tumour. CT imaging excludes nodal involvement or distant metastasis.

What is the correct FIGO staging for this woman?

IIA
IIB
IIIA2
IIIB
IIIC
A

The correct answer is stage IIA. The presence of positive peritoneal cytology without disease extensions or implants outside the ovaries has been classified as stage IC3 according to the latest FIGO staging guidelines.

28
Q

Single best answer question 3

An 18-year-old nulliparous woman with a right ovarian mass has been diagnosed with a stage IA choriocarcinoma.

Which is the most appropriate surgical treatment option?

  • Laparoscopy + USO + omental/peritoneal biopsies + biopsy of the contralateral ovary + washings
  • Laparoscopy + BSO + omental/peritoneal biopsies and washings
  • Laparotomy + USO + omental/ peritoneal biopsies and washings
  • Laparotomy + USO + omental/ peritoneal biopsies + biopsy of the contralateral ovary + washings
  • Laparotomy + BSO + omental/ peritoneal biopsies and washings
A

The correct answer is laparotomy+ USO+ omental/ peritoneal biopsies and washings. Primary surgery is the standard of care for apparently early-stage (suspected stage IA) MOGCTs. Fertility-preserving surgery via a mid-line incision with unilateral salpingo-ophorectomy alongside careful surgical staging with omental and multiple peritoneal biopsies, peritoneal washings and biopsy of any suspicious lymph nodes has become the accepted standard of care. Biopsies from a seemingly health contralateral ovary are not recommended due to potential impairment of fertility. Advanced disease will require multi-modal treatment.

29
Q

A 16-year-old girl with a left ovarian mass undergoes surgery and is diagnosed with stage 1C yolk sac tumour.

Which is the most appropriate chemotherapy regimen?

ACE (actinomycin/cyclophosphamide/etoposide)
BEP (bleomycin/etoposide/cisplatin)
Carboplatin and paclitaxel
Cisplatin single agent
POMB (cisplatin/vincristine/methotrexate/bleomycin)

A

The answer is B-BEP. For patients with germ cell tumours and greater than stage IA disease, the risk of relapse is considered high enough to recommend post-operative chemotherapy. Choice of chemotherapy depends on histology and is monitored with biochemical (tumour markers) and radiological response. BEP is commonly used. The POMB/ACE regime tends to be used in patients with higher stage disease. For stage IB disease, the decision for adjuvant chemotherapy needs to be made on an individual basis.

30
Q

A 25-year-old woman who is para 2 was treated with surgery + chemotherapy for stage IC dysgerminoma. She is anxious about the future and during a follow up consultation enquires about the “chance of seeing her children grow up”.

In this case, what is the most likely percentage for her estimated five-year survival?

50%
60%
70%
80%
90%
A

The correct answer is 90%. For patients with germ cell tumours requiring chemotherapy (stage IC or greater), published reports have shown a long-term survival of approximately 90%. The overall aim in treatment of germ cell tumours overall is cure, not palliation.

31
Q

A 20-year-old nulliparous woman received surgical treatment and chemotherapy for a stage IA yolk sac tumour. She is keen to start a family in the near future.

What are her chances of a successful pregnancy?

15%
25%
35%
55%
70%
A

The correct answer is 70%. Publications have reported a successful pregnancy rate of 69–75% in those wishing to conceive following chemotherapy for GCTs. Treatment with surgery alone or surgery and chemotherapy does not appear to materially alter the chances of conception. Equally importantly, there are no reports of an increased congenital abnormality rate following chemotherapy.

32
Q

A 24-year-old woman was seen for a rapidly growing abdominal mass and abdominal pain. Further radiological investigations and the tumour marker panel suggest an endodermal sinus tumour. Her case is being discussed by at the gynaecological oncology mutidisciplinary team panel.

Which of the following is the best management in this case?

1 - Radiotherapy
2 - Surgical exploration, total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo- oophorectomy
3 - Surgical exploration, unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
4 - Surgical exploration, unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with either adjuvant or therapeutic combination chemotherapy
5 - Surgical staging

A

The correct answer is surgical exploration, unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy with either adjuvant or therapeutic combination chemotherapy.

The surgical treatment of endodermal sinus tumour is surgical exploration, unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. The addition of hysterectomy and contralateral salpingo-oophorectomy does not alter the outcome. Any gross metastases should be removed, if possible, but thorough surgical staging is not indicated because all women need chemotherapy. Routine combination chemotherapy has significantly improved the 2-year survival to 70%. Loss of fertility is a problem with radiation therapy therefore it is not used as first line treatment.

33
Q

A 17-year-old girl has recently been found to have a quickly growing large unilateral ovarian mass. During the operation, the surgical team decides to incise the tumour capsule to drain 5 litres of its content with a suction prior to removal, in order to avoid making a large midline laparotomy. Some of the cyst liquid is spilled into the abdominal cavity during the process. After removal of the mass, no disease was apparent elsewhere. Histology confirms a granulosa cell tumour. Staging CT imaging shows no evidence of secondary malignancy.

What FIGO stage best descibes this woman?

Stage IA
Stage IC1
Stage IC2
Stage IC3
Stage IIIA2
A

The answer is FIGO stage IC1. Surgical spill, whether during deliberate incision of the capsule or accidental during dissection has been classified as FIGO stage IC1 in the latest FIGO staging guideline.