Pulmo Flashcards

1
Q

Innervation of the diaphragm

A

Phrenic nerve

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2
Q

Nerve roots of origin of phrenic nerve

A

C3,4,5

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3
Q

Most common location of Morgagni hernia

A

Right anterior

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4
Q

Most common site of Bochdalek hernia

A

Left posterior

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5
Q

Most common congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

Bochdalek

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6
Q

Neutrophil-derived elastase that destroy lung parenchyma is inhibited by

A

α1-antitrypsin

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7
Q

Source of resistance in inspiration that is being reduced by surfactant

A

Compliance resistance

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8
Q

Pathology of adult RDS

A

Diffuse alveolar damage

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9
Q

Most common cause of adult RDS

A

Sepsis

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10
Q

Type of pneumocytes affected in adult RDS

A

Type I pneumocytes

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11
Q

Lung volumes (4)

A

1) IRV
2) TV
3) ERV
4) RV

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12
Q

Lung capacities

A

1) Inspiratory capacity
2) Functional residual capacity
3) Vital capacity
4) Total lung capacity

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13
Q

Capacity-associated volumes: Inspiratory capacity

A

IRV + TV

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14
Q

Capacity-associated volumes: Functional residual capacity

A

ERV + RV

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15
Q

Capacity-associated volumes: Vital capacity

A

IRV + TV + ERV

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16
Q

Equilibrium point at which the elastic recoil of the lungs is equal and opposite to the outward force of chest wall

A

FRC

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17
Q

Best zone of ventilation in children

A

Mid to lower lung fields

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18
Q

Ghon’s focus is usually found at which lung fields

A

Mid to lower lung fields

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19
Q

States that partial pressure exerted by a gas in a mixture of gases is proportional to the fractional concentration of that gas

A

Dalton’s law

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20
Q

Most common cause of V/Q mismatch

A

Hypoxemia

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21
Q

Fick’s law of diffusion states that diffusion rate of oxygen across pulmonary membrane depends on

A

1) Pressure gradient
2) Surface area
3) Diffusion distance

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22
Q

Processes that impair O2 diffusion

A

1) Decreased O2 gradient (high altitude)
2) Decreased surface area (emphysema)
3) Increased diffusion distance (pulmonary fibrosis)

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23
Q

Cardiac output at rest

A

5L/min

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24
Q

V/Q ratio at zone 1

A

3.3

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25
Q

V/Q ratio at zone 2

A

1.0

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26
Q

V/Q ratio at zone 3

A

0.6

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27
Q

CO2 is converted to carbonic acid: Inside the RBC vs outside the RBC

A

Inside

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28
Q

Direction of flow of Cl in chloride shift

A

Into RBC

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29
Q

Direction of flow of HCO3 in chloride shift

A

Out of RBC

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30
Q

Dorsal and ventral respiratory groups are found in

A

Medulla

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31
Q

Pneumotaxic and apneustic centres are found in

A

Pons

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32
Q

Controls basic rhythm of respiration

A

DRG

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33
Q

Stimulates expiratory muscles

A

VRG

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34
Q

Most preventable cause of death among hospitalized patients

A

Pulmonary embolism

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35
Q

Embolus that occlude the main pulmonary artery, impact across bifurcation

A

Saddle embolus

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36
Q

Embolus that pass through inter arterial and inter ventricular defect to gain access to the systemic circulation

A

Paradoxical embolus

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37
Q

Most common cause of PE

A

Proximal leg DVT

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38
Q

T/F Majority of deep leg vein thrombi are clinically silent

A

T

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39
Q

% of deep leg vein thrombi that cause infarction

A

10

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40
Q

Lobe most commonly affected by PE

A

Lower lobe

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41
Q

% of pulmonary circulation that has to be obstructed to cause sudden death

A

> 60

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42
Q

% chance of having a second embolus in PE survivors

A

30

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43
Q

Virchow’s triad

A

SHE

1) Stasis
2) Hypercoagulability
3) Endothelial injury

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44
Q

Natural anticoagulants in the body

A

1) Protein C
2) Protein S
3) AT III

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45
Q

Most commonly inherited thrombophilic condition

A

Factor V Leiden mutation

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46
Q

Major risk factors for PE (5)

A

1) Post op
2) Prior VTE
3) CVA
4) Estrogen treatment
5) APAS

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47
Q

PE: Most common history

A

Unexplained breathlessness

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48
Q

PE: Most common symptom

A

Dyspnea

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49
Q

PE: Most common sign

A

Tachypnea

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50
Q

Symptoms of massive PE (4)

A

1) Dyspnea
2) Hypotension
3) Cyanosis
4) Syncope

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51
Q

Symptoms of small PE (3)

A

1) Pleuritic pain
2) Cough
3) Hemoptysis

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52
Q

Most common history of DVT

A

Cramp in the lower calf

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53
Q

Most common signs and symptoms of DVT (4)

A

1) Swelling
2) Pain
3) Erythema
4) Warmth

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54
Q

Classic findings/signs in PE (3)

A

1) Homans sign
2) Moses sign
3) Palpable cord sign

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55
Q

Pain elicited when calf muscle is compressed against the tibia but none when compressed from side to side

A

Moses sign or Bancroft sign

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56
Q

Pain of the calf muscle on compression either by squeezing or forced dorsiflexion

A

Homans sign

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57
Q

Asymmetry in tolerance to pressure of 180mmHg applied on each calves simultaneously

A

Lowenberg sign

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58
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of DVT

A

Contrast venography

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59
Q

Most reliable criterion for DVT on contrast venography

A

Constant intraluminal filling defect

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60
Q

Natural history of DVT (3)

A

1) Progressive proximal extension
2) Complete/partial dissolution
3) Embolization

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61
Q

PE on ECG

A

S1Q3T3

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62
Q

PE: Most common ECG abnormality

A

T wave inversion in leads V1-V4

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63
Q

Primary criterion for DVT on venous ultrasonography

A

Loss of vein compressibility

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64
Q

PE on x-ray: Focal oligemia

A

Westermark sign

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65
Q

PE on x-ray: Peripheral wedge-shaped density above the diaphragm

A

Hampton hump

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66
Q

PE on x-ray: Enlarged right descending pulmonary artery

A

Palla sign

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67
Q

PE on x-ray: Prominent central artery

A

Fleischner sign

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68
Q

Principal imaging test for diagnosis of PE

A

Chest CT with IV contrast

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69
Q

RV enlargement on chest CT with contrast indicates

A

Increase likelihood of death within the next 30 days

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70
Q

Most common radiographic abnormalities of PE (2)

A

1) Atelectasis

2) Pulmonary opacities

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71
Q

PE on ABG

A

1) Hypoxemia

2) Hypocarbia

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72
Q

PE on 2D echo

A

RV pressure overload

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73
Q

The Great Masquerader

A

PE

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74
Q

Virchow’s triad is a predisposing factor to

A

DVT

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75
Q

PE: Prevention

A

Heparin

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76
Q

PE: Acute management

A

Unfractionated heparin

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77
Q

PE: Long-term prevention of recurrence

A

Warfarin

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78
Q

Substance used in lung scanning

A

Albumin-labeled gamma-emitting radionuclide

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79
Q

PE: High-probability lung scan

A

2 or more segmental perfusion defects in the presence of normal ventilation

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80
Q

Best known indirect sign of PE on 2D Echo

A

McConnell sign

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81
Q

Hypokineses of RV free wall with normal motion of RV apex

A

McConnell sign

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82
Q

Definitive diagnosis of PE

A

Pulmonary angiography

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83
Q

Finding of PE on pulmo angio

A

Intraluminal filling defect in more than 1 projection

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84
Q

Target aPTT in unfractionated heparin therapy for PE

A

2-3x upper limit of laboratory normal value

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85
Q

Major disadvantage of unfractionated heparin therapy

A

Repeated blood sampling for dose adjustment every 4-6 hrs

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86
Q

Unfractionated heparin therapy for PE increases the risk for

A

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

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87
Q

Advantage of low molecular weight heparin over unfractionated heparin

A

No monitoring or dose adjustment needed unless patient is markedly obese or has CKD

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88
Q

Monotherapy for symptomatic VTE patients with cancer

A

Dalteparin

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89
Q

Anti-Xa

A

1) Fondaparinux

2) Rivaroxaban

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90
Q

Advantages of Fondaparinux (2)

A

1) Once-daily subcutaneous injection

2) No lab monitoring

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91
Q

Novel drugs for prevention of VTE after total hip and total knee replacement

A

1) Rivaroxaban

2) Dabigatran

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92
Q

Dabigatran MOA

A

Direct thrombin inhibitor

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93
Q

Most serious complication of anticoagulation

A

Hemorrhage

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94
Q

Management for life-threatening or intracranial haemorrhage due to heparin or LMWH

A

Protamine sulfate

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95
Q

Anticoagulant for patients with renal insufficiency

A

Argatroban

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96
Q

Anticoagulant for patients with hepatic failure

A

Lepirudin

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97
Q

2 principal indications for IVC filter insertion

A

1) Active bleeding that precludes anticoagulation

2) Recurrent venous thrombosis despite intensive anticoagulation

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98
Q

Lower rate of death and recurrent PE

A

Fibrinolysis

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99
Q

Preferred fibrinolytic regimen for PE

A

100mg rtPA as continuous IV infusion over 2 hours

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100
Q

Patient with PE respond to fibrinolytics up to ___ after PE has occurred

A

14 days

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101
Q

Contraindications to fibrinolysis

A

1) Intracranial disease
2) Recent surgery
3) Trauma

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102
Q

Mode of transmission of pTB

A

Droplet nuclei

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103
Q

Most common and important agent of human disease

A

MTb

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104
Q

T/F Majority of inhaled MTb bacilli reach the alveoli

A

F

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105
Q

Survival of MTb in macrophages depend on

A

Reduced acidification due to lack of accumulation of proton-adenosine triphosphate

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106
Q

Why MTb do not die in macrophages

A

Inhibits intracellular release of Ca resulting in impaired Ca/calmodulin pathway that lead to phagosome-lysosome fusion

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107
Q

T/F Primary PTB may be asymptomatic

A

T

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108
Q

Lesion formed in PTb after initial infection that heals spontaneously into a small calcified nodule

A

Ghon focus

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109
Q

The Ghon focus is pathologically

A

Subpleural granuloma

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110
Q

Most common site of extra pulmonary TB in children

A

Hilar LN

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111
Q

Clinical finding of PTb in young children and impaired immunity

A

Pleural effusion

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112
Q

Most common population of post primary disease

A

Public school teachers

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113
Q

Responsible for the acid-fastness of MTb

A

Mycolic acid

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114
Q

Caseous necrosis in MTb infection is due to

A

Phosphatides

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115
Q

Common location of secondary PTb lesion

A

1) Apical and posterior segment of upper lobes

2) Superior segments of lower lobes

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116
Q

Pneumonia in PTb that results from massive involvement of pulmonary segments or lobes

A

Caseating pneumonia

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117
Q

Gold standard for diagnosis of PTb

A

Mycobacterial culture

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118
Q

Duration required for expected growth in mycobacterial culture

A

4-6 weeks

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119
Q

Medium for PTb culture

A

Egg- or agar-based medium, Lowenstein-Jensen or Middlebrook 7H10

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120
Q

Temp for PTb culture

A

37C

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121
Q

CO2/O2 for Middlebrook medium in PTb culture

A

5% CO2

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122
Q

Decreases the time for bacteriologic confirmation of TB to 2-3 weeks

A

Immunochromatographic lateral flow assay

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123
Q

Most useful for the rapid confirmation of TB in persons with AFB-positive, AFB-negative, and extrapulmonary smears

A

Nucleic acid amplification

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124
Q

MTb isolates should be tested for susceptibility to which drugs to detect MDR Tb

A

1) Isoniazid

2) Rifampin

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125
Q

When MDR-Tb is found, expanded susceptibility testing should be done against which drugs

A

Fluoroquinolones and injectable drugs

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126
Q

Tuberculin reaction is what type of hypersensitivity

A

Type IV

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127
Q

Positive tuberculin reaction size in mm: HIV infected

A

> =5

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128
Q

Positive tuberculin reaction size in mm: On immunosuppressive therapy

A

> =5

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129
Q

Positive tuberculin reaction size in mm: Low risk persons

A

> =15

130
Q

Positive tuberculin reaction size in mm: High-prevalence ares

A

> =10

131
Q

Positive tuberculin reaction size in mm: Malnutrition

A

> =10

132
Q

Positive tuberculin reaction size in mm: Steroids

A

> =10

133
Q

Positive tuberculin reaction size in mm: Close contact with Tb patients

A

> =5

134
Q

Positive tuberculin reaction size in mm: Fibrotic lesions on chest radiography

A

> =5

135
Q

Positive tuberculin reaction size in mm: Recently infected persons (2 years)

A

> =10

136
Q

Positive tuberculin reaction size in mm: Persons with high-risk medical conditions

A

> =10

137
Q

Recommended daily dose: INH

A

5 mg/kg, max 300 mg

138
Q

Recommended daily dose: RIF

A

10 mg/kg, max 600 mg

139
Q

Recommended daily dose: PYR

A

25 mg/kg, max 2g

140
Q

Recommended daily dose: Ethambutol

A

15 mg/kg

141
Q

First pulmonary infection to set in in patients with HIV infection

A

PTb

142
Q

PTB treatment regimens: New smear- or culture-positive

A

2HRZE/4HR (6 months)

143
Q

PTB treatment regimens: New culture-negative

A

2HRZE/4HR (6 months)

144
Q

PTB treatment regimens: Pregnancy

A

2HRE/7HR (9 months, no pyrazinamide)

145
Q

PTB treatment regimens: Relapse

A

2HRZES/1HRZE/5HRE (8 months, with S during induction)

146
Q

PTB treatment regimens: Treatment default

A

3 HRZES/5HRE (8 months, 3 months induction with S)

147
Q

PTB treatment regimens: Treatment failure, resistance or intolerance to H

A

6RZE

148
Q

PTB treatment regimens: Treatment failure, resistance or intolerance to R

A

12-18 mos HZEQ

149
Q

PTB treatment regimens: Treatment failure, resistance or intolerance to H and R

A

20 mos ZEQ + S or another injectable

150
Q

PTB treatment regimens: Resistance to all first line drugs

A

20 mos 1 injectable + 3 of cycloserine, ethionamide, Q, PAS

151
Q

PTB treatment regimens: Intolerance to Z

A

2 mos HRE, 7 mos HR

152
Q

Duration of cough to suspect PTb

A

2 weeks

153
Q

Initial work-up of choice for PTB

A

Sputum AFB

154
Q

At least how many sputum specimens should be sent for sputum AFB

A

2

155
Q

Preferred number of sputum specimens to be sent for sputum AFB

A

3

156
Q

Most efficient way of identifying cases of PTB

A

Sputum AFB

157
Q

Diagnostic modality for PTB that correlated with infectiousness

A

Sputum AFB

158
Q

TB culture with drug susceptibility testing (DST) is primarily recommended for what population of patients

A

High risk for drug resistance

159
Q

TB culture is recommended for which population of smear positive patients (5)

A

1) Retreatment
2) Treatment failure
3) MDR-TB suspect
4) Household contacts of patients with MDR-TB
5) HIV

160
Q

PTB drugs: Dosing during initial phase

A

Daily

161
Q

PTB drugs: Dosing during continuation phase

A

3x a week

162
Q

PTB relapse case is defined as

A

Previously treated with 1 full course under DOT and declared cured or treatment completed and has become smear positive again

163
Q

T/F Relapses after a previous regimen under DOT have the same drug susceptibilities as initial isolates

A

T

164
Q

Management for symptomatic patients who were not on DOTS in the previous treatment (2)

A

1) TB culture with DST

2) 2HRZES/1HRZE/5HRE

165
Q

PTB treatment failure case is defined as

A

While on treatment, remained or became smear (+) again at 5th month of treatment or later OR smear (-) at the start and becomes smear (+) at the 2nd month

166
Q

T/F BCG vaccination is recommended for adults to confer protection

A

F

167
Q

T/F Empiric treatment with various anti-TB drugs is recommended for suspected MDR-TB cases

A

F

168
Q

Recommended management for MDR-TB cases

A

Immediate referral to PMTM program

169
Q

Preferred mode of administration of anti-TB drugs

A

FDC

170
Q

Recommended adjunctive therapy for PTB (3)

A

1) Arginine
2) Vitamin A
3) Zinc

171
Q

MDR-TB is defined by the WHO as

A

In vitro resistance to both HR

172
Q

PTB case definitions: New

A

Never had treatment or previous anti-Tb for less than 4 weeks

173
Q

PTB case definitions: Return to treatment after default

A

Stopped taking meds for >=2 mos and comes back smear (+)

174
Q

PTB case definitions: Transfer-in

A

Management started from another area and now transferred to a new clinic

175
Q

Management for PTB treatment failure case

A

2HRZES/1HRZE/5HRE

176
Q

PTB case definitions: Chronic case

A

Became or remained smear (+) after completing a fully-supervised RETREATMENT regimen

177
Q

WHO case definitions of TB: Latent TB

A

TB infection, no evidence of disease

178
Q

WHO case definitions of TB: Active TB

A

Clinically active TB

179
Q

PTB case definitions: 2 weeks or more of cough with or without accompanying symptoms

A

TB symptomatic

180
Q

3-specimen collection for AFB smear

A

1-Spot at time of consultation
2-Early morning
3-Second spot specimen when the patient comes back the next day

181
Q

Recommended for patients who are unable to spontaneously bring up sputum for AFB

A

Sputum induction with nebulisation of a hypertonic saline

182
Q

T/F After a TB symptomatic is found to be smear positive, no further tests are required to confirm the diagnosis of PTB

A

T

183
Q

T/F T/F After a TB symptomatic is found to be smear positive, no further tests are required to initiate anti-TB therapy

A

T

184
Q

T/F Chest radiographs are routinely necessary in the management of TB symptomatic patient who is smear positive

A

F

185
Q

TB radiograph description: Minimal vs extensive - all or the greater portion of a lobe

A

Extensive

186
Q

TB radiograph description: Minimal vs extensive - 4-cm cavity

A

Extensive

187
Q

TB radiograph description: Minimal vs extensive - Multiple cavitations measure up to 4 cm

A

Extensive

188
Q

TB radiograph description: Minimal vs extensive - Cavities less than 4cm

A

Extensive

189
Q

Status asthmatics is defined as

A

Severe obstruction persisting for days or weeks

190
Q

Asthma: Single largest risk factor

A

Atopy

191
Q

Asthma: Most atopic patients have allergic sensitisation to

A

Dust mite

192
Q

Major risk factors for asthma deaths (3)

A

1) Poorly controlled disease
2) Lack of corticosteroid therapy
3) Previous admissions to hospital with near-fatal asthma

193
Q

Chronic inflammatory disease of airways characterised by increased responsiveness of the tracheobronchial tree to various stimuli

A

Asthma

194
Q

Most severe form of asthma

A

Status asthmaticus

195
Q

Asthma: Peak age

A

3

196
Q

Asthma: Male-to-female ratio

A

M

197
Q

Asthma: Sex ratio equalises by

A

30 y/o

198
Q

Asthma: Drug implicated as a risk factor for asthma

A

Acetaminophen

199
Q

Asthma: Relation between breastfeeding during infancy and risk of childhood asthma

A

Reduces risk

200
Q

Hallmark of asthma

A

Airway hyperresponsiveness to both specific and nonspecific stimuli

201
Q

Types of asthma

A

1) Allergic/extrinsic

2) Idiosyncratic/intrinsic

202
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: Associated with personal and/or family history of allergic diseases

A

Allergic

203
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: No defined immunologic mechanism

A

Idiosyncratic

204
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: Precipitated by upper respiratory infections

A

Idiosyncratic

205
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: Precipitated by exercise

A

Idiosyncratic

206
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: IgE-mediated

A

Allergic

207
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: Precipitated by GER

A

Idiosyncratic

208
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: Precipitated by cold air

A

Idiosyncratic

209
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: Precipitated by tobacco smoke

A

Idiosyncratic

210
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: Precipitated by dust mites

A

Allergic

211
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: Precipitated by Cockroaches

A

Allergic

212
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: Precipitated by animal dander especially CATS

A

Allergic

213
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: Precipitated by pollutants

A

Idiosyncratic

214
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: Precipitated by sulfites in food

A

Idiosyncratic

215
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: Precipitated by emotional stress

A

Idiosyncratic

216
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: Precipitated by pharmacologic agents

A

Idiosyncratic

217
Q

Allergic vs idiosyncratic asthma: Precipitated by seasonal pollen

A

Allergic

218
Q

Most common trigger for allergic asthma

A

Atopy

219
Q

Most common trigger for idiosyncratic asthma

A

Pulmonary infection

220
Q

Ciliated columnar cells sloughed from bronchial linings seen in sections of lungs of asthmatic patients

A

Creola bodies

221
Q

Characteristic physiologic abnormality of asthma

A

Airway hyperresponsiveness

222
Q

The only asthma stimulus that can produce constant symptoms

A

Respiratory viruses

223
Q

Common agents of viral pneumonia in children

A

1) RSV

2) Parainfluenza

224
Q

Common agents of viral pneumonia in older children and adults

A

1) Rhinovirus

2) Influenza

225
Q

Classic triad of asthma

A

1) Wheezing
2) Dyspnea
3) Cough

226
Q

Typical attack of asthma occurs

A

At night

227
Q

Characteristic INITIAL wheeze

A

Expiratory

228
Q

2 signs that are very valuable in indicating severity of obstruction in asthma

A

1) Accessory muscles become visibly active

2) Paradoxical pulse

229
Q

Second wave of bronchoconstriction in 30-50% of allergic asthma cases occurs when

A

6-10 hours later

230
Q

Heart rate in asthmatic patients with IMPENDING RESPIRATORY FAILURE

A

Relative bradycardia

231
Q

T/F Heart rate in asthma increases with severity

A

T

232
Q

Pulsus paradoxus is defined as

A

Markedly decreased pulse during inhalation

233
Q

Pulsus paradoxus in moderate episode of asthma

A

10-25 mmHg

234
Q

Pulsus paradoxus in severe episode of asthma

A

> 25 mmHg

235
Q

Absence of wheezing in asthma indicates

A

Impending respiratory failure

236
Q

Indicators of asthma severity

A

1) Heart rate
2) Respiratory rate
3) Pulsus paradoxus
4) Use of accessory muscles

237
Q

Most useful measures (pulmonary function test parameters) to show initial airflow obstruction and reversibility with bronchodilator

A

1) Peak flow

2) FEV1

238
Q

Curschmann spirals and Charcot Leyden crystals are seen in what specimen

A

Sputum

239
Q

Typical acid-base imbalance seen with asthma

A

Respiratory alkalosis

240
Q

Acid-base imbalance in asthma that indicates impending respiratory collapse

A

Metabolic acidosis

241
Q

ECG findings in asthma

A

1) Right axis deviation
2) RBBB
3) Right ventricular hypertrophy with depolarisation abnormalities

242
Q

Reversiblity of asthma is seen on PFT as

A

> =12% and 200 mL increase in FEV1 15 minutes after 2 puffs of SABA

243
Q

Asthma: Assessment of symptom control is assessed over what duration

A

4 weeks

244
Q

Asthma: Parameters to assess control

A

1) Daytime symptoms >2x a week
2) Night awakenings
3) Use of reliever >2x a week
4) Activity limitation

245
Q

Asthma: Comorbidities

A

1) Rhinitis
2) Rhinosinusitis
3) GERD
4) Obesity
5) Obstructive sleep apnea
6) Depression
7) Anxiety

246
Q

Asthma: Well-controlled if

A

None of 4 control parameters present

247
Q

Asthma: Partly-controlled if

A

1-2 of control parameters present

248
Q

Asthma: Uncontrolled if

A

Asthma: 3-4 of control parameters present

249
Q

Asthma execerbation, mild/mod vs severe vs life-threatening: Talks in words

A

Severe

250
Q

Asthma execerbation, mild/mod vs severe vs life-threatening: RR less than 30

A

Mild/mod

251
Q

Asthma execerbation, mild/mod vs severe vs life-threatening: Pulse 100-120

A

Mild/mod

252
Q

Asthma execerbation, mild/mod vs severe vs life-threatening: Peak expiratory flow >50% predicted or best

A

Mild/mod

253
Q

Asthma execerbation, mild/mod vs severe vs life-threatening: Use of accessory muscles

A

Severe

254
Q

Asthma execerbation, mild/mod vs severe vs life-threatening: Drowsy

A

Life-threatening

255
Q

Asthma excerbation, management: Mild/mod (3)

A

1) SABA q20 x 1hr
2) Prednisolone
3) Controlled O2

256
Q

Asthma excerbation, management: Target O2 sat

A

93-95%

257
Q

Asthma excerbation, management: Severe asthma

A

Admit to acute care facility

258
Q

Disease state characterised by airflow limitation that is not fully reversible

A

COPD

259
Q

Anatomically defined condition characterised by destruction and enlargement of lung alveoli

A

Emphysema

260
Q

Clinically defined condition with chronic cough and phlegm

A

Chronic bronchitis

261
Q

Significant risk factor for emphysema in both smokers and non-smokers

A

Coal mine dust

262
Q

Most common form of severe α1 antitrypsin deficiency

A

2 z alleles or 1 z and 1 null allele

263
Q

COPD susceptibility determinants (2)

A

1) Hedgheog interacting protein gene on chromosome 4

2) Cluster of genes on chromosome 15

264
Q

Portions of lung affected by emphysema

A

Distal to the terminal bronchioles

265
Q

Emphysema: Most common type associated with smoking

A

Centriacinar

266
Q

Emphysema: Type most commonly associated with α1 antitrypsin

A

Panacinar

267
Q

Emphysema, type: Distal alveoli spared; affects central/proximal parts of acini

A

Centrilobular

268
Q

Emphysema, type: Affects all structures from acini to terminal alveoli

A

Panacinar

269
Q

Emphysema, type: Most often associated with spontaneous pneumothorax

A

Paraseptal

270
Q

Emphysema, type: Associated with scarring

A

Irregular

271
Q

Emphysema, type: Target O2 sat

A

88-92%

272
Q

Emphysema, type: When to repeat ABG after starting O2 supplementation

A

30-60 mins after

273
Q

Best diagnostic procedure for lymph node Tb

A

Excisional biopsy

274
Q

Portion of lung affected by bronchiectasis

A

Proximal to terminal bronchioles

275
Q

Characteristic sign in bronchiectasis

A

Foul-smelling purulent sputum

276
Q

Honeycomb lung

A

??? Bronchiectasis

277
Q

Bronchiectasis: Most common location

A

Lower lobes bilaterally

278
Q

Phases of ARDS: Hyaline membranes

A

Exudative phase (first 7 days)

279
Q

Phases of ARDS: Interstitial inflammation

A

Proliferative phase

280
Q

Phases of ARDS: Fibrosis

A

Fibrotic phase

281
Q

Pneumonia: 2 types

A

1) Bronchopneumonia2) Lobar pneumonia

282
Q

Pneumonia, CXR finding: Bronchopneumonia

A

Patchy consolidation

283
Q

Pneumonia: Accounts for majority of lobar pneumonia

A

S. pneumonia

284
Q

Pneumonia: Most common etiology of atypical pneumonia

A

M. pneumonia

285
Q

Particle size: Deposited in areas with largely turbulent airflow (nose and upper airways)

A

> 10mm

286
Q

Particle size: Deposited in trachea and bronchi

A

3-10mm

287
Q

Particle size: Deposited in terminal airways and alveoli

A

1-5mm

288
Q

Particle size: Remain suspended in inspired air

A

Less than 1mm

289
Q

Pores implicated in spread of pneumonia within an entire lobe

A

Pores of Kohn

290
Q

Stages of pneumonia in order

A

1) Congestion2) Red hepatization3) Gray hepatization4) Resolution

291
Q

Stage of pneumonia characterised by enzymatic digestion

A

Resolution

292
Q

Stage of pneumonia characterised by red vascular engorgement

A

Congestion

293
Q

Stage of pneumonia characterised by few neutrophils and macrophages

A

Congestion

294
Q

Stage of pneumonia characterised by disintegration of red cells

A

Gray hepatization

295
Q

Stage of pneumonia characterised by exudation of RBCs

A

Red hepatization

296
Q

Stage of pneumonia characterised by red, firm, airless, liver-like consistency

A

Red hepatization

297
Q

Stage of pneumonia characterised by fibrinosuppurative exudate

A

Gray hepatization

298
Q

Stage of pneumonia characterised by dry surface

A

Gray hepatization

299
Q

Atypical pneumonia is characterized by

A

Lack of alveolar exudate and presence of interstitial pneumonitis

300
Q

Atypical pneumonia is aka

A

Walking pneumonia

301
Q

Causative agents of atypical pneumonia

A

1) M. pneumonia2) Chlamydia psittaci3) Coxiella burnetti4) Legionella pneumophila

302
Q

Causative agent of Q fever

A

Coxiella burnetti

303
Q

Agent of SARS

A

SARS coronavirus

304
Q

Superbugs are susceptible only to

A

1) Polymyxins2) Tigecycline

305
Q

Enzyme present in superbugs

A

NDM-1 (New Delhi metallo-beta lactamase 1

306
Q

NDM-1 was first isolated in an isolate of

A

K. pneumoniae

307
Q

T/F Tuberculous intra-thoracic lymphadenopathy (mediastinal and/or hilar) or tuberculous pleural effusion, without radiographic abnormalities in the lungs, constitutes a case of extrapulmonary TB

A

T

308
Q

T/F PTB can be classified based on HIV status

A

T

309
Q

Tb classification based on drug resistance: Monoresistance

A

Resistance to one first-line anti-TB drug only

310
Q

Tb classification based on drug resistance: Polydrug resistance

A

Resistance to more than one first-line anti-TB drug (other than both isoniazid and rifampicin)

311
Q

Tb classification based on drug resistance: Multidrug resistance

A

Resistance to at least both isoniazid and rifampicin

312
Q

Tb classification based on drug resistance: Extensive drug resistance

A

Resistance to any fluoroquinolone and to at least one of three second-line injectable drugs (capreomycin, kanamycin and amikacin), in addition to multidrug resistance

313
Q

Tb classification based on drug resistance: Rifampicin resistance

A

Resistance to rifampicin detected using phenotypic or genotypic methods, with or without resistance to other anti-TB drugs. It includes any resistance to rifampicin, whether monoresistance, multidrug resistance, polydrug resistance or extensive drug resistance

314
Q

Treatment outcomes for TB: Cured

A

A pulmonary TB patient with bacteriologically confirmed TB at the beginning of treatment who was smear- or culture-negative in the last month of treatment and on at least one previous occasion

315
Q

Treatment outcomes for TB: Treatment completed

A

A TB patient who completed treatment without evidence of failure BUT with no record to show that sputum smear or culture results in the last month of treatment and on at least one previous occasion were negative, either because tests were not done or because results are unavailable

316
Q

Treatment outcomes for TB: Treatment failed

A

A TB patient whose sputum smear or culture is positive at month 5 or later during treatment

317
Q

Treatment outcomes for TB: Died

A

A TB patient who dies for any reason before starting or during the course of treatment

318
Q

Treatment outcomes for TB: Lost to follow-up

A

A TB patient who did not start treatment or whose treatment was interrupted for 2 consecutive months or more

319
Q

Treatment outcomes for TB: Not evaluated

A

A TB patient for whom no treatment outcome is assigned. This includes cases “transferred out” to another treatment unit as well as cases for whom the treatment outcome is unknown to the reporting unit.

320
Q

Treatment outcomes for TB: Treatment success

A

The sum of cured and treatment completed