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RUSVM Immunology (Semester 2) COPY > Matching Questions > Flashcards

Matching Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Circulating lymphocytes enter lymph nodes and Peyer’s patches by migrating out of this vessel

A

high endothelial venule

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2
Q

This term describes the increase in the number of blood eosinophils that occurs in some parasitic infestations:

A

eosinophilia

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3
Q

Antibody produced to somatic [O] antigen will bind to epitopes on this bacterial structure:

A

lipopolysaccharide

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4
Q

Enzymes of NK cells and cytolytic T cells that activate cellular apoptotic pathways:

A

granzymes

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5
Q

Serves as BCR on naive B cells:

A

monomeric IgM

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6
Q

The subset of CD4+ T cells that secrete cytokines that mostly stimulate B cells to produce antibody

A

TH2 cells

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7
Q

Germinal centers can be detected in this organ:

A

Spleen

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8
Q

Individuals or animals that lack this enzyme fail to produce mature T and B cells

A

DNA-dependent protein kinase

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9
Q

Antigen-binding regions of TCRab and BCR

A

Complementarity-determining regions

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10
Q

What are the predominant cells in acute inflammation?

A

neutrophils & macrophages

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11
Q

Group of serum proteins that can lyse antibody-coated Gram-negative bacteria:

A

Complement

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12
Q

Amino acid differences in the constant regions of these immunoglobulin chains form the basis for the 5 classes of immunoglobulin molecules

A

Immunoglobulin heavy chains

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13
Q

Mutation in the gene encoding granzymes will impair the effector function of this host immune cell:

A

NK cell

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14
Q

TAP [transporter associated with antigen processing] proteins play a major role in antigen presentation by this MHC molecule

A

Class I MHC Molecule

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15
Q

Pus [abscess] is an inflammatory exudate consisting of cell debris, microorganisms, and dead leukocytes [mostly neutrophils] observed at sites of some bacterial infections. This bacterial product is a major contributor to abscess development

A

Leukocidin

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16
Q

Long-lived plasma cells are found in this lymphoid organ:

A

Bone Marrow

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17
Q

This inflammatory reaction is characterized by the predominance of mononuclear cell, which include macrophages, epithelioid cells, and lymphocytes:

A

chronic inflammation

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18
Q

Treatment of choice when attending to a horse presenting with clinical signs of tetanus:

A

tetanus antitoxin

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19
Q

Cell membrane molecule expressed by both naive T cell and effector T cell:

A

CD28

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20
Q

A physiologic function of humoral immunity is providing host defense against these bacteria:

A

extracellular bacteria

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21
Q

Deficiency of this antibody may predispose to helminth infestations:

A

IgE

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22
Q

Phagolysosomes are formed during which phase of phagocytosis?

A

microbial digestion

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23
Q

ADCC involves the killing of antibody-coated targets by host immune cells. Which cell has no role in ADCC-mediated target killing?

A

Cytolytic T lymphocyte

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24
Q

What are the predominant lymphocytes in blood?

A

T lymphocytes

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25
Q

What is the 3rd phase of the antibody immune response?

A

Plateau phase

26
Q

Clonal selection occurs when a B cell encounters a:

A

Clonal selection occurs when a B cell encounters an antigen

27
Q

This chemical can destroy a helminth parasite by extensively damaging its cuticle:

A

Major basic protein

28
Q

Protein consisting of immunoglobulin light chains found in the urine of animals or individuals with multiple myelomas

A

Bence Jones proteins

29
Q

Antigen presentation by this MHC molecule is affected if the microbial protein inhibits the activity of the cytoplasmic organelle called proteosome:

A

Class I MHC Molecule

30
Q

Components of innate immunity provide the first and second lines of host defense against invading microbes. This line of host defense includes the skin epidermis.

A

First line of defense

31
Q

Activation and clonal expansion of antigen-specific T cells occur in this lymphoid organ:

A

Spleen

32
Q

Leukocyte extravasion from the bloodstream to sites of microbial invasion is a tightly coordinated series of steps. This event is the 3rd step in leukocyte extravasion:

A

Leukocyte arrest & adhesion

33
Q

This type of host defense describes the production of IgE in response to helminth infestation

A

naturally acquired active immunity

34
Q

Engagement of this T cell membrane receptor and its B7 protein ligand, results in inactivation of the T cell

A

CTLA-4

35
Q

Perforins and granzymes are found in the cytoplasic granules of this T cell

A

Effector cytolytic T lymphocyte

36
Q

May be used interchangeably with antibody class:

A

antibody isotype

37
Q

Bacterial structure that protects the bacterium from phagocytosis:

A

capsule

38
Q

FOllowing antigenic stimulation, a primary lymphoid follicle becomes:

A

a secondary lymphoid follicle

39
Q

____________ is the term used to describe cellular suicide

A

apoptosis

40
Q

Which is more effective in activating the complement system: IgG or IgM?

A

IgM

41
Q

The function of the mucociliary escalator is to:

A

remove microorganisms from the lower respiratory tract

42
Q

M cells are antigen transporting cells found in the:

A

intestinal mucosa

43
Q

_________ trigger overproduction of cytokines

A

superantigens

44
Q

Which immunoglobulin is produced in the highest concentration in the bdy?

A

IgA

45
Q

Engagement of which B cell receptro with its ligand will inhibit B cell activation?

A

CD32b

46
Q

What are Bacterial H antigens?

A

flagellar antigens

47
Q

__________ refers to the antigenic differences in the constant light and constant heavy regions

A

isotype

48
Q

__________ refers to the antigenic determinants formed by the amino acids in the hypervariable reigions.

A

idiotype

49
Q

Which phase of antibody production is defined by a time period when no antibody in the antigen can be detected in serum

A

lag

50
Q

True or False:

Granzymes are pore forming proteins present in the granules of CTLs that attach to target cell membranes

A

False.

Granzymes are released by CTLs and induce target cell apoptosis. Perforins are pore forming proteins released by CTLs

51
Q

Which is more desirable in the dairy industry:

High citrate:lactoferrin ratio or low citrate:lactoferrin ratio?

A

low citrate:lactoferrin ratio

High citrate:lactoferrin ratio encourages bacterial growth since citrate can be broken down by bacteria, releasing iron and encouraging bacterial growth and udder disease.

52
Q

The Fimbria antigen is also known as:

A

F antigen

53
Q

The Capsular antigen is also known as:

A

K antigen

54
Q

The Flagellar antigen is also known as:

A

H antigen

55
Q

LPS is also known as:

A

O antigen

56
Q

True or False:

Many protozoa have thick cuticles that make them resistant to the cytocidal products of neutrophils and macrophages.

A

False, asshole.

This is true of helminths

57
Q

Which cytokine is most closely associated with stimulation of development and activation of eosinophils?

A

IL-5

58
Q

True or False:

IL-4 stimulates the development and clonal expansion of TH2 subset from naïve CD4 T cells.

A

True.

…Nice

59
Q

Binding of B-7 to this cell surface receptor results in functional inactivation of activated T-cells:

A

CTLA-4

CTLA-4 is only present on effector T cells. When it binds to B7-1 or 2 on APCs the T cell is inactivated.

CTLA-4 and CD28 are NOT expressed at the same time on a T cell

60
Q

Which Ab accounts for 60-70% of daily total output of antibodies?

A

IgA

61
Q

True or False:

Avidity refers to the strength of the binding between one Fab fragment of Ab and an epitope of an Ag.

A

False, you retard. This is the definition of affinity.

Avidity is the sum total of the strength of binding of all Fabs and available epitopes.

RUSVM Immunology (Semester 2) COPY (8 decks)

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