AUB- QUESTIONS Flashcards

1
Q

Regarding the menstrual cycle…

1 - The secretory (luteal) phase of the cycle is fixed at 14 days

2 - The variability of menstrual cycle lengths is higher in women under 25 years of age than in women aged 35 to 39 years

3 - As age increases, menstrual cycle tends to shorten

4 - Endometrial sampling is required for all women presenting with AUB

5 - The normal monthly menstrual blood loss (MBL) is 80 ml

A

1 - The answer is true. This is the life span of the corpus luteum.

2 - The answer is true.

3 - The answer is true.

4 - The answer is false.

5 - The answer is false. Normal loss is 25-50 ml. Anaemia from heavy menstrual bleeding is more likely to occur if MBL exceeds 80 ml and particularly likely if MBL exceeds 120 ml

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2
Q
Preliminary assessment 2 - FIGO (PALM-COEIN) causes of AUB
A: P0 A0   L(ism)    M0- C0 O0 E0 I0 NO
B: P0   A1     L M0- C0 O0 E0 I0 NO
C: P1   A0 L  M0- C0 O0 E0 I0 NO
D: P0 A0 L  M0- C0 O0    E1   I0 NO
E: P0 A0   L(ism) M1  - C0 O0 E0 I0 NO
F: P1 A1    L0 M0- C0 O0 E0 I0 NO
G: P1   A0 L1 (0) M0- C0 O0 E0 I0 NO
H: P0   A1 L1(0) M0- C1     O0 E0 I0 NO

1 - Menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea in a 48-year-old woman. Hysteroscopy identified 3 cm posterior submucosal leiomyoma. Endometrial biopsy has identified atypical endometrial hyperplasia.

2 - A 30-year-old woman with menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea unresponsive to tranexamic acid. Adenomyosis and subserosal leiomyoma were diagnosed by MRI. Coagulation screen confirms presence of mild von Willebrand disease.

3 - Dysmenorrhoea and menorrhagia unresponsive to Mirena therapy in a 40-year-old woman. Ultrasound shows diffuse thickening of the posterior uterine wall that contained focal ill-defined myometrial lacunae and hypoechoic heterogeneity.

4 - Menorrhagia in a 40-year-old woman. No abnormality identified on haematological, ultrasound, hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy testing.

A

The answer is Part E.

The answer is Part H.

The answer is Part B.

The answer is Part D.

In 2011, FIGO approved a new classification system for the causes of AUB and have called it PALM-COEIN.

Where PALM-COEIN criteria refers to structural causes (polyp; adenomyosis; leiomyoma; malignancy and hyperplasia) and non-structural (coagulopathy; ovulatory dysfunction; endometrial; iatrogenic; and not yet classified) causes for AUB. Using the full notation ‘PALM-COEIN’ it is possible to define women with AUB who have one or more contributing pathologies.

In all cases, the presence or absence of each criterion is noted using 0 if absent, 1 if present, and ? if not yet assessed. For each of the clinical cases listed below, indicate which is the most likely representative image and corresponding PALM-COEIN terminology description.

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3
Q

TRUE /FALSE
The presence of which of the following ‘red flag’ features indicate referral to secondary care (e.g. one-stop ambulatory gynaecology clinic or rapid access gynaecology clinic)?

1 - New onset postmenopausal bleeding in a 52-year-old woman.

2 - HMB in a 45-year-old woman that has not responded to 3 months of tranexamic acid therapy.

3 - IMB for 6 months in a 28-year-old woman.

4 - HMB in a 32-year-old woman with a uterine cavity that measures 10 cm by uterine sounding.

A

1 - The answer is true.

2 -The answer is true.

3 - The answer is true.

4 - The answer is false.

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4
Q
  • Cervical cytology
  • Endometrial biopsy
  • Full blood count
  • Intpatient hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy.
  • Laparoscopy
  • MRI pelvis
  • Outpatient hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy.
  • Saline infusion sonohysteroraphy
  • Serum ferritin
  • Testing for coagulation disorders (e.g. Von Willebrand’s factor)
  • Thyroid function tests
  • Transvaginal +/- transabdominal pelvic ultrasound

The following items are general scenarios or questions regarding women presenting with AUB. For each item choose the single best diagnostic procedure from the options listed below that enables optimal management. Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.

1 - A 32-year-old woman presents with symptoms of menorrhagia, dysmenorrhoea and cyclical, localised pelvic pain. The pelvic ultrasound showed no abnormality.

2 - A 48-year-old woman with menorrhagia and a 24-week sized multifibroid uterus has opted for uterine fibroid embolisation. Ultrasound shows variable sized intramural fibroids. Apart from hysteroscopy, what investigation is a necessary pre-requisite to uterine artery embolisation.

3 - What is the first-line diagnostic tool for the identification of structural pathology in women with HMB?

4 - A 56-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding. Ultrasound identified an endometrial thickness of 15mm and an intrauterine fundal echogenic mass of 2 cm. She is taking warfarin as prophylaxis due to a prosthetic metal heart value. She has congestive cardiac failure.

5 - Which specific test, additional to routine screening, is undertaken on women with HMB in their teenage years or who have had HMB since menarche.

A

1 -The answer is laparoscopy. This procedure provides the opportunity to simultaneously diagnose and treat endometriosis, which may be responsible for the menstrual abnormalities and pelvic pain.

2 - The answer is MRI pelvis.

3 - The answer is transvaginal +/- transabdominal pelvic ultrasound. Neither saline infusion sonography, nor MRI, should be used as first-line diagnostic tools for HMB.

4 - The answer is outpatient hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy.

5 - The answer is testing for coagulation disorders (e.g. Von Willebrand’s factor)

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5
Q
  • Abdominal hysterectomy
  • COCP
  • Endometrial ablation
  • Etonoestrel implant (implanon)
  • GNRH - agonist
  • Hysteroscopic myomectomy
  • Hysteroscopic polypectomy
  • Depo- provera
  • Laparoscopic vaginal assisted hysterectomy
  • Mirena
  • Mefenamic acid
  • Norethisteron daily from DAY 5-26 O
  • Total laparoscopic hysterectomy
  • Tranexemix acid
  • UAE
  • Vaginal hysterectomy

The following items are clinical scenarios of women presenting with AUB. For each item choose the best treatment from the options listed that enables optimal management. Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.

1 - A 34-year-old woman (parity 3) presents with menorrhagia. Considering she has no uterine pathology and is seeking an effective long-term reversible form of contraception, what would you suggest?

2 - A 41-year-old woman with three children presents with menorrhagia, without significant dysmenorrhoea, that has not responded to 6 months of Mirena therapy. Hysteroscopy showed a normal-shaped uterine cavity with cavity length of 10 cm. No intracavity fibroids or polyps were identified. She does not seek future fertility. What is the best treatment option, with the lowest risk?

3 - A 42-year-old woman is seeking a hysterectomy for persistent menorrhagia that has been unresponsive to endometrial ablation. She is parity 3, has a normal sized uterus and second degree cervical descent. She wishes to conserve her ovaries. What is the preferred type of hysterectomy?

4 - A 24-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia but without significant dysmenorrhoea. Given that she wishes to conceive, what would be the best form of treatment?

5 - What treatment would you suggest for a 44-year-old woman with a completed family and 28-week size fibroid uterus who is complaining of menorrhagia, chronic abdominal pain, bowel and bladder obstructive symptoms? Note: she is seeking a definitive cure.

A

1 - The answer is levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena). Women should be fully counselled regarding possible changes to their menstrual cycles particularly in the first few months following the insertion of an LNG-IUS. Perseverance for at least 6 months is recommended for the benefits of this procedure to be appreciated.

2 - The answer is endometrial ablation. Compared with hysterectomy, endometrial ablation is quicker to perform and results in shorter hospital stays and a faster return to work. Hysterectomy on the other hand, results in more adverse effects and is more expensive. It should be noted that the need for retreatment in endometrial ablation (approximately 20% over 5 years) leads its differential benefits to decrease over time.

3 - The answer is vaginal hysterectomy. A meta-analysis of studies comparing types of hysterectomy has shown the lowest complication rate with vaginal hysterectomy.

4 - The answer is tranexamic acid. This treatment is able to achieve a 60–75% reduction in menstrual blood loss. When HMB coexists with dysmenorrhoea then NSAIDs should be preferred to tranexamic acid because NSAIDs may impair the ovulatory process and thus may impair fertility (although the evidence for this association is mainly of theoretical origination). Use of NSAIDs or tranexamic acid should be stopped if they do not improve symptoms within 3 months.

5 - The answer is abdominal hysterectomy. Such a large fibroid uterus is unlikely to be effectively treated by either myomectomy or uterine artery embolisation.

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6
Q

Preliminary assessment 6 - Endometrial ablation

Regarding endometrial ablation…

1 - UK MHRA guidance recommends uterine assessment (ultrasound and/or hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy) is conducted prior to scheduling for endometrial ablation

2 - Endometrial ablation may be undertaken on women not wishing to become pregnant in the future

3 - Endometrial ablation should be considered preferable to hysterectomy in women with HMB whose uterine cavity length does not exceed 12 cm

4 - Ablative techniques are contraindicated in women with a single previous caesarean section and a lower uterine myometrial thickness of 12 mm

5 - Immediately after dilatation of the cervix and prior to positioning the device for treatment, the uterine cavity should be reassessed by hysteroscopy (or ultrasound) to confirm there is no uterine perforation, false passage or uterine wall trauma

6 - Endometrial thinning and/or scheduling of ablation surgery for the postmenstrual phase are necessary pre-requisites for thermal balloon and bipolar radio-frequency endometrial ablation techniques

A

1 - The answer is true.

2 - The answer is false. Women must be counselled on the need to use effective contraception after endometrial ablation.

3 - The answer is true, based on cost-effectiveness studies reported in NICE HMB guideline.

4 - The answer is false.

5 - The answer is true.

6 - The answer is false. Endometrial thinning may be advantageous for microwave endometrial ablation. However, there is no such requirement for thermal balloon endometrial ablation. Most ablative techniques nowadays do not require such preoperative endometrial preparatory strategies.

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7
Q

KEY POINTS MENSTRUATION

A

Key points
Menstruation is controlled by the cyclical hormonal change in the menstrual cycle.
Normal frequency is between 24–38 days.
Normal duration is 4.5–8 days.
Normal volume is between 5–80 ml.
Regular cycle-to-cycle variation is between 2–20 days.

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8
Q

Recommendations prior to endometrial ablation

A

An endometrial biopsy is obtained and histologically analysed to exclude the possibility of endometrial hyperplasia or endometrial cancer.
Hysteroscopy is performed immediately prior to the insertion of the ablation device to ensure that:
any sounding or dilation of the cervix has not caused a perforation or false passage, resulting in subsequent introduction of the ablation device into the wrong space
there is no significant intrauterine pathology that would preclude ablation, e.g. uterine cavity distorted by intrauterine fibroids
the operator can accurately determine uterine cavity length (and cervical canal length if using NovaSure®).

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9
Q

Regarding endometrial ablation…

1 - Second-generation ablation techniques are less costly than hysterectomy but hysterectomy provides greater gain in quality of life over the long term

2 - Hysteroscopy should be undertaken post-dilation of the cervix and prior to insertion of the ablation device in the uterus to confirm uterine integrity

3 - Endometrial thinning pre-ablation is required for most ablative techniques

4 - Endometrial ablation provides effective contraception

5 - Hysteroscopic sterilisation may be conducted at the same time as endometrial ablation

6 - Endometrial ablative techniques should be undertaken under local anaesthetic where appropriate

A

1 - The answer is true.

2 - The answer is true.

3 - The answer is false.

4 - The answer is false.

5 - The answer is true.

6 - The answer is true.

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10
Q

TRUE /FALSE

1 - The number of hysterectomies performed for benign gynaecological disorders decreased by over 50% between 1993–2002

2 - There is no significant difference in urinary tract injury (includes bladder and ureter) between laparoscopic hysterectomy and abdominal hysterectomy

3 - There is no statistically significant differences in urinary tract injury for LH versus VH or for LH(a) versus LAVH

4 - Approximately 85% of women are willing to accept a 50:50 chance of treatment failure for HMB in order to avoid hysterectomy

5 - There are fewer abdominal wall infections and other postoperative infective episodes for LH versus AH

6 - In women undergoing VH compared with AH, hospital stay was shorter and there was a quicker return to normal activities

7 - The presence of fibroids at a hysterectomy increases the risk of operative complications

8 - The route of hysterectomy to be used should be considered in the following order: first line, vaginal; second line, abdominal; and third line, laparoscopic

9 - There is no medical advantage to perform medical pre-treatment before hysterectomy and myomectomy with GnRH-a for 3–4 months for women with enlarged uterine fibroids

10 - Over the short- and long-term, there is higher patient satisfaction with hysterectomy than endometrial ablation

A

1 - The answer is true. According to UK hospital episode statistics there were 24 355 hysterectomies in 1993 and 10 559 in 2002.

2 - The answer is false. A systematic review showed that there was a significant two-fold increase for LH versus AH (OR 2.61, 95% CI 1.22 to 5.60).

3 - The answer is true.

4 - The answer is true. This was identified in a UK patient preference study.

5 - The answer is true.

6 - The answer is true.

7 - The answer is true. Hysterectomy for fibroids was associated with significantly more complications than women with DUB (adjusted OR 1.34 [95% CI 1.14 to 1.56]).

8 - The answer is true.

9 - The answer is false.

10 - The answer is true. The systematic review of hysterectomy against endometrial ablation found that patient satisfaction favoured hysterectomy (at 12 months OR = 0.46 [0.24 to 0.88], and at 24 months OR = 0.31 [0.16 to 0.59]).

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11
Q

Utilise the NICE 2007 Heavy menstrual bleeding (link is external) guideline with its three-step approach.

A

1 - Step one is medical treatment with both hormonal and non-hormonal treatment.

2 - Step two is minimally invasive uterus conserving surgery e.g. hysteroscopic fibroid resection, endometrial ablation, transcervical resection of endometrium and laparoscopic myomectomy.

3 - Additional treatments have been added to step 2 involving newly developed intervention in keeping with the above. It includes MRI guided focused USS therapy, radiofrequency ablation of fibroids, uterine fibroid embolisation and laparoscopic uterine artery occlusion.

4 - Step three involves major surgical procedures e.g. abdominal myomectomy and hysterectomy.

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12
Q

Treatment of HMB

Choose the treatment technique associated with the adverse effects listed in the items below. Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.

A - Day-case procedure. 
COMMON: 
1 - persistent vaginal discharge, 
2 - post-embolisation syndrome [pain, nausea, vomiting and fever (not involving hospitalisation)]. 
LESS COMMON: 
1 - need for additional surgery, 
2 - premature ovarian failure particularly in women over the age of 45 years, 
3 - haematoma. 
RARE: 
1 - haemorrhage, 
2 - non-target embolisation causing tissue necrosis, 
3 - infection causing septicaemia.

B- Inpatient surgical procedure.
COMMON:
1 - menopausal-like symptoms. Although beneficial outcome is substantial reduction in the risk of developing ovarian cancer.

C- Inpatient surgical procedure.
COMMON:
infection.
LESS COMMON:
1 - intraoperative haemorrhage,
2 - damage to other abdominal organs, such as the urinary tract or bowel,
3 - urinary dysfunction (frequent passing of urine and incontinence).
RARE:
1 - thrombosis (DVT and clot on the lung).
VERY RARE:
1 - death. (Complications are more likely if performed in the presence of fibroids).

D - Surgical procedure. 
LESS COMMON: 
1 - adhesions (which may lead to pain and/or impaired fertility), 
2 - need for additional surgery, 
3 - recurrence of uterine fibroids, 
4 - perforation (if performed by hysteroscopic route), infection. 
RARE: 
haemorrhage.

E - Day-case surgical procedure, able to be performed under local anaesthetic in outpatient setting.
COMMON:
1 - vaginal discharge;
2 - increased period pain or cramping (even if no further bleeding);
3 - need for additional surgery.
LESS COMMON:
1 - infection.
RARE:
1 - uterine perforation (but very rare with second generation techniques).

F - Preparations are licensed for 4 weeks or 3 months. COMMON:
menopausal-like symptoms (such as hot flushes, increased sweating, vaginal dryness) which may require add-back therapy.
LESS COMMON:
osteoporosis, particularly trabecular bone with longer than 6 months’ use.

G - Preparations are licensed for 3 months or 3 years. COMMON:
weight gain,
irregular bleeding,
amenorrhoea,
premenstrual-like syndrome (including bloating, fluid retention, breast tenderness).
LESS COMMON:
small loss of bone mineral density,
largely recovered when treatment discontinued.

H - Taken daily from days 5–26. 
COMMON: 
hormonal side effects, 
weight gain,
bloating, 
breast tenderness, 
headaches, 
acne (but all are usually minor and transient) 
RARE: 
depression.

I - Taken daily from days 1–21. Numerous contraceptive and non-contraceptive beneficial effects (e.g. reduced risk of ovarian cancer and treatment for estrogen-sensitive disorders, such as endometriosis and fibroids). COMMON: hormonal side effects, mood changes, headaches, nausea, fluid retention, breast tenderness. VERY RARE: deep vein thrombosis, stroke, heart attacks.

J - Only taken at the time of menses, no hormonal side effects, non-contraceptive. COMMON: indigestion; diarrhoea. RARE: worsening of asthma in sensitive individuals, peptic ulcers with possible bleeding and peritonitis.

K - Only taken at the time of menses, 
no hormonal side effects, 
non-contraceptive. 
LESS COMMON: 
indigestion, 
diarrhoea, 
headaches.

L - Licensed for 5-year therapeutic usage.
COMMON:
irregular bleeding that may last for over 6 months, hormone-related problems such as breast tenderness, acne or headaches (generally minor and transient).
LESS COMMON:
amenorrhoea.
RARE:
uterine perforation at the time of device insertion.

A

A - UAE

B - The answer is oophorectomy at time of hysterectomy.

C - The answer is hysterectomy.

D - The answer is myomectomy.

E - The answer is endometrial ablation.

F - The answer is GnRHa (gonadotrophin-releasing hormone analogue).

G - The answer is injected long-acting progestogens.

H - The answer is oral progestogen: norethisterone (15 mg) daily.

I - The answer is combined oral contraceptives.

J - The answer is non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

K - The answer is tranexamic acid.

L - The answer is Mirena (levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system).

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13
Q
  • No suspicious pathology. Physical examination not required. Commence first-line treatment.
  • Suspicious pathology. Physical examination required. Obtain cervical smear. Prompt referral to secondary care for urgent transvaginal pelvic ultrasound.
  • Suspicious pathology. Physical examination and pelvic ultrasound required. Recommend diagnostic hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy.
  • Suspicious pathology. Physical examination and pelvic ultrasound required. Recommend diagnostic hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy and laparoscopy.

AUB investigation and management

The following items are clinical scenarios of women presenting with abnormal uterine bleeding. For each item choose the best diagnostic procedure from the options listed above that enables optimal management. Each option can be used once, more than once or not at all.

1 - A 47-year-old woman presents with a 6 month history of intermenstrual bleeding. Despite this, she still exhibits regular menstrual cycles without associated pelvic pain and without any postcoital bleeding. She currently uses condoms for contraception, is not clinically anaemic and all previous cervical smears appeared normal. Her last smear was 1 year prior to symptoms.

2 - After a 2 month episode of postmenopausal bleeding, a woman presents with a cervical smear reporting ‘atypical glandular cells of undetermined significance, possibly endometrial cell origin’.

3 - A 41-year-old woman has a 2 year history of heavy menstrual bleeding. She exhibits regular menstrual cycles without any associated pelvic pain and does not suffer from intermenstrual or postcoital bleeding. She is currently using condoms for contraception and is not clinically anaemic. All previous cervical smears normal and her last smear was 1 year prior.

4 - A 61-year-old woman is concerned because over the last week she has been experiencing vaginal blood loss described as a period-like. Her final menstrual period was when she was around 50 and she has never taken HRT.

A

1 - The answer is suspicious pathology. Physical examination and pelvic ultrasound required. Recommend diagnostic hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy.

Persistent intermenstrual bleeding requires investigation. Given the risk associated with her age group, malignancy needs to be excluded definitively and after the initial investigation of a pelvic ultrasound more tests may be advised.

2 - The answer is suspicious pathology. Physical examination and pelvic ultrasound required. Recommend diagnostic hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy. Underlying uterine cancer. Endometrial hyperplasia or cervical adenocarcinoma is present in 30–40% of such cases thus warranting urgent hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy.

3 - The answer is no suspicious pathology. Physical examination not required. Commence first-line treatment as recommended in the NICE HMB guideline.

4 - The answer is suspicious pathology. Physical examination required. Obtain cervical smear. Prompt referral to secondary care for urgent transvaginal pelvic ultrasound.

PMB requires urgent investigation to exclude malignancy. If endometrial thickness is less than 4 mm and if pelvic ultrasound reveals no abnormalities then no further investigation is required.

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14
Q

Key points

Endometrial polyps

A

Key points
Endometrial polyps are localised hyperplastic overgrowths of endometrial glands and stroma.
They can cause HMB, PMB, abnormal vaginal discharge and breakthrough bleeding. When large or multiple they are implicated in subfertility.
Polyps of >1 cm, AUB and PBM are all risk factors for malignant polyps.
Diagnosis is achieved with USS, SIS and hysteroscopy.
They can be observed or removed hysteroscopically (symptomatic, asymptomatic in postmenopausal patient, >1cm in size in an asymptomatic premenopausal patient).

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15
Q

Key points

adenomyoma

A

Key points
A benign condition causing heavy painful periods, contributing to 10% of HMB and 30% of HMB with dysmenorrhoea.
Histologically it is defined as the presence of non-neoplastic endometrial glands and stroma in the myometrium.
On USS it is represented by an enlarged globular regular uterus with no fibroids, myometrial cystic areas and decreased myometrial echogenicity.
MRI diagnostic rates are higher than USS.
There are no serum markers available.
Management options include:
medical – mefanamic, tranexamic acid, low dose COC, high dose continuous progesterones, GnRHa agonists and the Mirena LNG-IUS
uterus conserving – balloon ablation and uterine artery embolisation
adenomyoma excision at abdominal myomectomy
laparoscopic myometrial electrocoagulation
hysterectomy.

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16
Q

Key points

Fibroids

A

Key points
Fibroids are smooth muscle tumours of the uterus, usually benign but they can have malignant transformations in >1% resulting in leiomyosarcoma.
They are classified by their location as subserosal, intramural and submucous.
Symptoms include AUB, HMB, dysparunia, anaemia and pressure symptoms. In obstetrics they can cause subfertility, miscarriage, pain secondary to degeneration, preterm labour, malpresentation and postpartum haemorrhage.
Treatment options vary depending on whether the woman wishes to conceive or not.
Seeking contraception:
1st step – COC, oral/injected/IUS progestogens, short course of GnRHa
2nd step – hysteroscopic myomectomy +/- ablation +/- Mirena IUS. Additional minimally invasive uterus-conserving treatment; UAE, MR focused ultrasonography, laparoscopic uterine artery occlusion and bipolar radiofrequency ablation
3rd step – hysterectomy +/- bilateral salpingo-ophrectomy.
Wishing to conceive:
1st step – tranexamic acid/NSAIDs
2nd step – hysteroscopic myomectomy, laparoscopic myomectomy. Additional minimally invasive uterus-conserving treatments as above
3rd step – abdominal myomectomy.

17
Q

Leiomyoma (fibroid)
Clinical scenario

A 38-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of painful, heavy periods.
She bleeds for 10 days each month.
She feels her abdomen has become bloated over the same time period.
She feels tired most of the time, especially at the time of menses.
She has occasional constipation.
She is parity 2.
The GP has palpated a large, abdominal mass arising from the pelvis that feels firm.
The GP has estimated the abodminal mass to be around 28 weeks of gestation size and believes it to be consistent with a large fibroid uterus.

In the above clinical case, MRI scanning should be used as the first-line diagnostic tool.

Medical treatments are likely to be successful if there is a large, multi-fibroid uterus.

Hysterectomy may be used as a first-line treatment solely for HMB in the presence of large fibroids and other fibroid related symptoms.

1- UAE or myomectomy are appropriate treatment options if the woman wishes to retain her fertility

2- GnRHa may be beneficially used prior to UAE, myomectomy or hysterectomy

3- Women who wish to become pregnant following myomectomy or UAE should be cautioned about potential complications during pregnancy

A

1 - The answer is true.

2 - The answer is true.

3 - The answer is true.

18
Q

key points of endometrial hyperplasia

A

Key facts
AUB is the most common presenting symptom of endometrial hyperplasia.
Endometrial hyperplasia, although a benign condition, may be considered as a precursor to endometrial cancer.
It is most often diagnosed in postmenopausal women, but women at any age with unopposed estrogen from any source are at an increased risk for developing endometrial hyperplasia, e.g. HRT or tamoxifen.
In the absence of cytological atypia, less than 2% of cases progress to cancer.
In the presence of cytological atypia, around 30–50% progress to endometrial cancer or have co-existing endometrial cancer. Therefore, hysterectomy is recommended for women with atypical endometrial hyperplasia.
Oral progestagens or Mirena LNG-IUS (unlicensed) have been used successfully in the management of non-atypical endometrial hyperplasia.
The choice of treatment for endometrial hyperplasia is dependent on patient age, the presence of cytologic atypia, the desire for future childbearing, and surgical risk.

19
Q

Endometrial hyperplasia
Case scenario

A 48-year-old woman presents to secondary care with a 3-year history of worsening HMB with irregularity of her menstrual cycle
She is para 2
Her BMI is 42
She feels tired and lethargic
She is unresponsive to a 3-month course of tranexamic acid treatment
Her cervical smear 12 months ago was normal.
The woman’s pelvic ultrasound shows a uterus of 10 cm cavity length and endometrial thickness of 15 mm (in menstrual phase of cycle) with no uterine structural abnormalities and normal ovaries.

The following course of actions would be appropriate in the initial secondary care management of this case.

1 - Consider listing directly for hysterectomy

2 - Insert Mirena LNG-IUS

3 - List for general anaesthetic day-case hysteroscopy and endometrial ablation

4 - Undertake outpatient hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy and discuss risk/benefits of insertion of Mirena LNG-IUS with the woman prior to hysteroscopy

5 - Request a full blood count, endocrine profile (FSH, LH, testosterone, prolactin, day 21 progesterone, estradiol, TFTs) and fasting glucose/HbA1c

A

1 - The answer is false.

2 - The answer is false.

3 - The answer is false.

4 - The answer is true.

5 - The answer is false.

20
Q

Key points

VWD

A

Key points
VWD is a common cause of menorrhagia.
Management should be with COC (to increase fibrinogen, prothrombin, factor VII, factor VII and vWF), other management options include Mirena IUS or endometrial ablation if the woman’s family is complete.
Desmopressin acetate and vWF replacement may be required.

21
Q

A 50-year-old woman had a Mirena IUS inserted 2 years ago for heavy menstrual periods. She was initially amenorrhoeic but has now developed heavy menstrual bleeding again. Endometrial biopsy shows complex endometrial hyperplasia with atypia.

What is the best treatment option?

Oral contraceptive pills in addition to Mirena in situ
Reinsert a Mirena coil
Total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophrectomy
Total abdominal hysterectomy
Tranexamic acid in addition to Mirena coil

A

The correct answer is total abdominal hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophrectomy. Complex hyperplasia regresses in the majority of the cases; 22% of cases persist and 4% progress to endometrial cancer over 10 years. Complex hyperplasia with atypia, on the other hand, has been reported to progress in 29% of cases with a mean duration of 4.1 years.

22
Q

A 55-year-old woman has been referred to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic following an ultrasound organised by her GP for abdominal bloating. This showed the presence of cystic spaces in the endometrium and an endometrial thickness of 15 mm. She has previously used tamoxifen for 5 years for breast cancer.

What is the best management option?

High dose oral progestogens
Do nothing as she did not have any bleeding
Hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy
Mirena IUS insertion
MRI
A

The correct answer is hysteroscopy and endometrial biopsy. Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM). It has both estrogenic and antiestrogenic properties. In standard doses, tamoxifen is associated with endometrial proliferation, hyperplasia, polyp formation, invasive carcinoma and uterine sarcoma.

Most studies show a two to three times increased risk of endometrial cancer in women on tamoxifen compared with an age matched population not on tamoxifen.

23
Q

You review a 48-year-old woman in the menstrual disorders clinic who complains of a 3-year history of heavy menstrual bleeding. She is a mother of four children, all born by normal vaginal deliveries. Her menstrual cycle is every 29 days and the bleeding lasts for 6 days. However, recently it has become associated with clots.

Cervical smears are up-to-date and her BMI is 39. You perform a transvaginal scan which reveals a bulky uterus of 8 mm endometrial thickness and three intramural fibroids of 2, 4 and 5 cm size respectively. On vaginal examination you find stage I cystocele, stage II rectocele and stage II uterine descent.

The current waiting list for benign gynaecological surgery in your hospital is 4 months.

What is the next most appropriate step in her management?

Add on to the waiting list for laparoscopic-assisted vaginal hysterectomy
Arrange for pre-operative assessment for total abdominal hysterectomy
Counsel regarding NovaSure endometrial ablation
Insert Mirena intrauterine system and follow up in 6 months
Perform endometrial sampling

A

The correct answer is perform endometrial sampling. This woman has three risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia: her age, the increased endometrial thickness and the high BMI. Although vaginal hysterectomy might seem necessary, endometrial sampling is essential at this stage. See: National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. Heavy Menstrual Bleeding: assessment and management. NICE Guideline 44. London: NICE. 2007 (link is external).

24
Q

You are performing an outpatient hysteroscopy on a 62-year old woman who presents with postmenopausal bleeding. Her menstrual cycles ceased at the age of 50. She used combined HRT for 2 years afterwards.

A transvaginal scan reveals an endometrial thickness of 8 mm with a hyper-echoic intracavitary shadow suggestive of an endometrial polyp. The size of the polyp was 16 mm in diameter.

What finding on hysteroscopy would make you consider the polyp as a malignant lesion?

Broad-based avascular lesion
Haemorrhagic lesion with pus-like discharge
Multiple projections with mucous-like content
Smooth surface pedunculated polyp
Vascular surface

A

The correct answer is vascular surface. In most cases, a vascular surface of any endometrial lesion means neovascularisation, a typical feature of malignant tissue transformation. Hence, endometrial malignancy must be ruled out in this case.

25
Q

A 46-year-old para 2 who has completed her family presents with a history of painful heavy menstrual bleeding in association with infrequent cycles (every 2–3 months) for 1 year. Her BMI is 44. She is currently on iron supplements for anaemia and is prescribed proton pump inhibitors for GORD. She is otherwise fit and well. Abdominopelvic examination is unremarkable. Pelvic ultrasound shows an endometrial thickness of 12 mm with a bulky uterus and normal ovaries with no pelvic pathology. A pipelle biopsy suggests a proliferative endometrium.

what treatment is most suited to her?

Combined oral contraceptive pill
GnRH Analogues
Mefenamic acid
Mirena IUS
Tranexemic acid
A

The answer is Mirena® IUS. The possible diagnoses in this patient could be anovulation (given her BMI) with resultant infrequent cycles. Given the findings of bulky uterus and painful heavy periods in a parous woman in the 4–5th decade of life, adenomyosis is a likely diagnosis as well.

Mefenamic acid is not suited as NSAIDS are associated with gastric irritation. Plus it is often only a short-term solution. In addition it will not protect the endometrium.

Tranexemic acid again may be a short term solution for the bleeding, but will not regulate the cycle or protect the endometrium. There is some link between high doses of tranexemic acid and blood clots; given her BMI this may not be the best choice. Also it is unlikely to improve pain.

Oral COCP/POP would help with pain and bleeding but require good compliance. With a high BMI, COCPs may not be suited as first line treatments.

Mirena® IUS provides a long term solution (5 years), when she is likely to attain menopause. It will also protect the endometrium from high levels of oestrogen exposure. It will also improve pain.

26
Q

SBA 6
A 38-year-old Para 1 has a symptomatic fibroid uterus (5 cm intramural fibroid found on ultrasound scan). She has been commenced on ulipristal acetate 5 mg OD for heavy menstrual bleeding associated with this fibroid. She is keen to avoid surgery at present. 

What is the electronic Medicines Compendium (eMC) guidance for the maximum permissible dose of ulipristal acetate in the UK for this purpose?

2.5 mg OD for 6 months for 4 treatment cycles
5 mg BD for a maximum of 3 months for 3 treatment cycles
5 mg OD for a maximum of 3 months for 4 treatment cycles
5 mg OD for a maximum of 6 months for 4 treatment cycles
10 mg OD for a maximum of 3 months for 4 treatment cycles

A

The answer is 5 mg OD for a maximum of 3 months for 4 treatment cycles. Further information on dosage can be found here (link is external).

27
Q

A woman who has recently had a uterine artery embolisation performed for a fibroid uterus (18 weeks size – intramural and submucous fibroids) presents to the emergency department with fever, nausea, vomiting, and foul smelling vaginal discharge.

Which investigation is best suited to guide further management?

CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
Hysteroscopy
MRI of the abdomen and pelvis
Transabdominal ultrasound
Transvaginal ultrasound
A

The answer is MRI of the abdomen and pelvis. MRI with contrast is best suited to identify a partially infarcted/necrosed fibroid with may be secondarily infected. This would also help differentiate postembolisation syndrome. 

28
Q

Ms XY is a 27-year-old para 0 with a BMI of 22. She presents with a history of post-coital bleeding for 6 months. She feels this is often unpredictable and is affecting her relationship. She is otherwise fit and well. She is using a COCP over the last year for contraception. Gynaecological examination is within normal limits with the exception of a cervical ectropion. Swabs for Chlamydia and an HVS are negative. Pelvic USS shows an endometrial thickness of 10 mm with a normal uterus, rest of the pelvic anatomy being normal. What treatment is most suited to her?

Change of contraception

Colposcopy +/- biopsy

Local silver nitrate application

Repeat cervical smear with HPV testing

Repeat cervical smear without HPV testing

A

Local silver nitrate application