7-1 Administrative Duties Flashcards
(136 cards)
1
Q
Shipboard medical procedures manual
A
COMNAVSURFORINST 6000.1
2
Q
Consolidated list of effective instructions
A
OPNAVNOTE 5215
3
Q
Medical readiness inspection program
A
COMNAVSURFORINST 6000.2
4
Q
Surface force training and readiness manual
A
COMNAVSURFPAC/COMNAVSURFLANINST 3502.7
5
Q
Afloat training group pacific users guide
A
ATGPACINST 3502.1
6
Q
What are the daily responsibilities of the SMDR?
HPIISSW8
A
- HREC maintenance
- potable water halogen residual
- immunizations
- inspection of cooks/food service
- sick call log
- situational/routine examinations
- walk through of mess/berthing
- 8 o’clock reports
7
Q
What are the weekly responsibilities of the SMDR?
A
- safety/sanitation inspection walk through
- bacteriological testing
- conduct crew training
- weekly 3-M
- IMR report
8
Q
What are the bi-weekly responsibilities of the SMDR?
A
- stretcher bearer training
- pest control spray/survey
9
Q
What are the monthly responsibilities of the SMDR?
A
- IMR into TMIP
- Outstanding supply requisitions
- conduct food service sanitation inspection, DD 2973
10
Q
What are the quarterly responsibilities of the SMDR?
A
- conduct habitability sanitation inspections
- potable water system inspection
- controlled substance inventory and report
- validate CBRN inventory
- drills/evacuate
- training report to training officer
11
Q
When is the controlled substance inventory and report required if a transaction occurs?
-submitted to the _____ by the ______?
A
Monthly
-submitted to the CO by the Senior member of the CSIB
12
Q
Which drills and exercises are conducted quarterly by the SMDR?
A
- basic first aid (11 basic wounds)
- battle dressing station
- personnel casualty transportation
- cardiac life support
13
Q
What are the semiannual responsibilities of the SMDR?
A
- Shipboard sanitation control exemption cert
- shipboard sanitation control cert
- operational/safety check by the BMET
- complete an inventory of all emergency AMALs
- HREC/DREC audit
- mass casualty drill
14
Q
What are the annual responsibilities of the SMDR?
A
- Submit long range training plan to training officer
- Submit exposure to ionizing radiation
- radiation health audit
- medical/dental budget to supply officer
- bulkhead-bulkhead inventory
- calibration of x-ray equipment, audiometers, anesthesia machines
- retire files
- HREC/DREC verification
- PHAs
- shipboard equipment replacement to force BMET
15
Q
What are the biennial responsibilities of the SMDR?
A
- request radiation health survey of x-ray equipment
- request lab assessment
16
Q
What are the triennial responsibilities of the SMDR?
A
-industrial hygiene survey, requested by command
17
Q
When are the pre-deployment, post-deployment health assessment, post-deployment health reassessment survey required?
A
- deployed ashore more than 30 days OCONUS without a fixed MTF
- Commander exercising control group deems a health threat exists
- Deployments to USCENTCOM
18
Q
What is defined as :
Structured/systemic process for evaluating the entire spectrum of clinical care
A
quality assurance
19
Q
What is the purpose of QA?
A
- improve quality of health care through problem identification and resolution
- focus is on clinical problems
20
Q
What are the goals of QA?
A
- maintain high level of unit wellness to meet mission need
- improve quality of health care given by all providers
21
Q
For QA, who is responsible for:
- overall program oversight and coordination
- establish MOU/MOA with BUMED
- establish protocols for battle group commanders
A
Fleet commander
22
Q
For QA, who is responsible for:
- Exercise overall control and accountability
- QA records maintenance
- credentialing
- reporting requirements
A
Type commander
23
Q
For QA, who is responsible for:
- IDC program director, appointed in writing by U.S. Fleet forces command
- Appoints physician supervisors for IDC oversight
- Ensures viable training program is maintained
- monitors and ensures compliance with all QA directives
A
Force medical officer
24
Q
The force medical officer is appointed as the?
In writing by?
A
- IDC program director
- United States Fleet Forces Command
25
For QA, who is responsible for:
- program manager, appointed in writing
- provides guidance, orientation to group/squadron senior corpsmen on program admin
- advises the program director of discrepancies
- identity/assign senior corpsmen as assistant IDC program managers
- Overseas IDC QA program
Force Medical Master Chief
26
For QA, who is responsible for:
- Serve as assistant program managers for TYCOM
- maintain IDC certifications
- provides updates to TYCOM database
- conduct quarterly QA reviews for IDC's
Group/squadron senior corpsmen
27
Where must QA reviews be documented?
- QA report
| - Medical department daily journal
28
When can the requirement for quarterly QA reviews be extended? and for how long?
- may be extended 6 months for deployed ships
| - greater than 6 months in cases of operational necessity
29
The CO shall obtain an immediate QA review for?
patient death
30
QA review can be labeled as?
| **in reference to the interval periods**
- episode/incident related
- periodic
- special procedure
31
All adverse reports are to be submitted to TYCOM within how long after event discovery?
48 hours
32
For QA, who is responsible for:
- within scope provide for the health of the crew
- inform chain of command immediately of any patient beyond scope
- countersign all sf 600
SMDR
33
When a death occurs within a command, who submits a memorandum for the record (MFR), within what time frame?
- SMDR submits
| - within 4 hours
34
The IDC is required to get a minimum of ____ CME's how often?
15 CMEs annually
35
What is chapter 1 of the shipboard medical procedures manual?
general
36
What is chapter 2 of the shipboard medical procedures manual?
training
37
What is chapter 3 of the shipboard medical procedures manual?
fiscal/supply management
38
What is chapter 4 of the shipboard medical procedures manual?
health care
39
What is chapter 5 of the shipboard medical procedures manual?
environmental health and preventative medicine afloat
40
What is chapter 6 of the shipboard medical procedures manual?
Medical planning
41
What is chapter 7 of the shipboard medical procedures manual?
blood program
42
What is the medical department's mission?
To promote, maintain, and preserve the health of the crew aboard ship
43
The medical department organizational manual shall be maintained on each ship.
- It is to be submitted by?
- Approved by?
- Reviewed how often?
- Submitted by current DH/SMDR
- Approved by CO
- Annual review
44
The watch, quarter, and station bill (WQSB) is to be current and posted in?
each battle dressing station and main medical
45
The watch, quarter, and station bill must include one BDS _____ and at a minimum four ______.
-phone talkers and stretcher bearers
46
The post deployment after action critique is submitted to who? Within how many days of returning from deployment?
- submitted to appropriate Fleet Commanders
| - 30 days
47
For medical department personnel training what are the 6 topics?
- BLS AED
- shipboard PQS/ HM PQS
- Pest control operator training and certification
- cardiac life support drills
- immunizations
- CBRN training
48
Which training plan includes:
- all hands medical training
- specialty medical training
- first aid and rescue
- CBRE training
- stretcher bearer training
- GMT
- drills/exercises
- medical department training
- rescue/SAR swimmer
- toxic gas drill/man overboard
Long range training plan
49
The planning board for training is chaired by the?
| How often do they meet?
- XO
| - weekly
50
Which form is the Medical and Dental Equipment Maintenance Record?
NAVMED 6700/3
51
The NAVMED 6700/3 will be maintained for?
- equipment not supported by APL (authorized parts list)
- on all equipment for ships without a BMET
- documentation of all maintenance preformed on equipment
52
For fever criteria, the IDC shall seek consultation with a medical officer when?
- fever equal or greater than 103 F
| - persistent fever greater than 100.4 F and less than 103 F more than 48 hours
53
For respiration criteria, the IDC shall seek consultation with a medical officer when?
-respirations greater than 28 per minute without apparent reason
54
For pulse criteria, the IDC shall seek consultation with a medical officer when?
-pulse greater than 120/minute without apparent reason
55
For blood pressure criteria, the IDC shall seek consultation with a medical officer when?
-persistent diastolic blood pressure exceeding 105 mm/HG over 3 days
56
The IDC shall seek consultation with a medical officer when there is any suspected case of?
- hepatitis
- TB
- malaria
- syphilis
- disseminated gonorrhea
- gonorrhea failing 2nd time treatment
57
The IDC shall seek consultation with a medical officer when any patient with ______ believed to ____ in origin, or ______ unrelieved by antacids.
- chest pain
- cardiac
- dyspepsia
58
The IDC shall seek consultation with a medical officer with any ______ associated with fever or an elevated WBC?
abdominal pain
59
The IDC shall seek consultation with a medical officer with any patient with any persistent or worsening ______?
abdominal pain
60
```
With any patient with:
-hematemesis
-hemoptysis
-hematochezia
the IDC shall consult with?
```
Medical Officer
61
The IDC shall seek consultation with a medical officer with any patient with sudden _____ where _____ is a possible diagnosis?
- testicular pain
| - testicular torsion
62
The IDC shall seek consultation with a medical officer with any patient with a traumatic or unexplained?
loss of consciousness
63
The IDC shall seek consultation with a medical officer for any patient with a compromised?
airway
64
What are the return visit criteria in which the IDC shall seek consultation with a medical officer?
within a reasonable time frame, for the same complaint, that has not resolved and is compliant with treatment
65
Concerning the eyes, the IDC shall seek consultation with a medical officer when?
eye injury or significant visual changes
66
Which type of evaluations are:
designed to assess a ship's readiness across the full spectrum of manning, material, and training to provide periodic feedback to ISIC/TYCOM?
Readiness evaluations
| READ-Es
67
Which readiness evaluation is this?
- ships self assessment
- during sustainment phase
- typically while on deployment
- ship will self-asses using RE matrix
READ-E 1
68
Which readiness evaluation is this?
- TYCOM led assessment
- typically conducted underway
- must be completed before start of maintenance phase
- FSO-M is not normally apart of this
READ-E 2
69
Which readiness evaluation is this?
- TYCOM led validation event
- conducted during sustainment phase
- 3 primary events
- purpose is to validate READ-E 1
READ-E 3
70
What are the three primary events in READ-E 3?
- READ- E 1 validation
- safety survey
- command readiness assist visit (CRAV)
71
During READ-E 3, which repetitive exercises (RE) are demonstrated?
- RE-01 conduct first aid drills (3 depts, 3 wounds each)
- RE-02 conduct patient transport (1 BDS)
- RE-03 conduct BDS operations (1 BDS)
- RE-04 mass casualty drill
72
What's purpose is to:
| Provide unit level mobility and tactical training in order to support shipboard operations.
basic phase
72
What's purpose is to:
| Provide unit level mobility and tactical training in order to support shipboard operations.
basic phase
73
What begins when the ship meets exit criteria after successful completion of a yard period?
basic phase
74
What is a five day training event conducted in port/underway by ATG? The training will focus on preparing the ship for mission area certification.
Administrative review (A-1)
75
What are the mission objectives of administrative review?
- conduct training for training teams
- review all line items on CE-02 and CE-03 grade sheets
- review ORM program assessment checklist
76
Which assessment is conducted by each FCA's medical readiness division (MRD) and ensures all emergency AMALs will be maintained at 100%, onboard and functional?
Material assessment
77
Level of knowledge (LOK) exams will be administered to who?
| The average score of greater than or equal to?
- DC qualified personnel
| - 80%
78
During which event of the basic phase will the MTT demonstrate the ability to plan, brief, execute, and debrief (PBED) drill scenarios?
Who observes and validates this ability?
- Certification
| - ATG
79
The mission objectives of the assessment during basic phase is to?
- train and assess the MTT's ability to PBED
- train and assess the individual and watch team proficiency in first aid, patient transport, BDS operations, mass casualty response
80
What is known as "game day" in the basic phase?
Certification
81
What is the minimum % requirement for the certification of the basic phase?
80%
82
Assessing the following CEs are mission objectives for what?
- demonstrate training team ability to PBED
- conduct first aid drills (minimum 80%)
- conduct patient transport (minimum 80%)
- conduct BDS operations (minimum 80%)
- conduct mass casualty (minimum 80%)
certification
83
If a single CE does not receive a passing score the certification recommendation is?
withheld until remediation is conducted for that event
84
If two or more CEs do not receive a passing score, the certification event will be?
repeated in its entirety
85
Sustainment begins?
immediately upon certification
86
Who conducts the medical readiness inspection? When is it done?
-Conducted by ISIC
-within 90 days of major deployments
or
-every 18 months
87
Where do you find the inspection checklist for the medical readiness inspection?
COMNAVSURPACINST 6000.2/COMNAVSURFLANTINST 6000.2
88
The medical readiness inspection checklist contains what six sections?
- Section 1 = admin and training
- section 2= supplies and equipment
- section 3=emergency medical preparedness
- section 4=ancillary services
- section 5=environmental health services
- section 6=occupational health programs
89
Concerning MRIs, what is the grading criteria for C-1?
Full ready, greater than 90%
90
Concerning MRIs, what is the grading criteria for C-2?
Substantially ready, great than 80%
91
Concerning MRIs, what is the grading criteria for C-3?
Marginally ready, greater than 70%
92
Concerning MRIs, what is the grading criteria for C-4?
Not ready, less than 69%
93
Concerning MRIs, a follow up report must be submitted to ____ every ____ days after MRI.
- tycom
| - 30
94
Concerning MRIs, the final disposition report is due no later than how many months following the MRI?
6 months
95
The medical readiness assessment (MRA) is conducted when?
3-6 months prior to final assessment
96
Follow up assessments for MRAs are set up by who?
Expeditionary health services
97
How often are dental readiness inspections (DRI) conducted?
every 18 months or 120 days prior to a deployment
98
The DRI areas covered include:
- dental admin
- DENCAS utilization
- infection control
- dental training
- dental supply/record admin
99
What is the reference for the DRI, which also contains the inspection checklist?
COMUSFLTFORCOMINST 6600.1
100
What is the requirement for dental classification status to get a grade of C-1 on the DRI?
must be 95% or greater (class 1 and /or 2)
101
What is the baseline industrial hygiene survey conducted on pre-commissioning ship?
NAVOSH and Environmental protection assessment
102
The industrial hygiene and environmental health surveys are conducted every?
24 months
103
Primary cognizance for NAVOSH programs rests with?
safety officer
104
Which inspection is conducted every 18 months to assess the ship's overall supply department?
Supply management inspection (SMI)
105
How often is the SMI conducted?
18 months
106
How often will the board of inspection and survey (INSURV) be conducted?
- prior to commissioning
- at each ROH (5 years)
- prior to decommissioning
107
What is a ship-wide survey to determine the efficiency with which taxpayer money is being spent?
INSURV
108
INSURV is reported to?
Congress via chain of command
109
What are the administrative documents maintained by the SMDR?
- consult log
- heat stress log
- sick call log
- STI log
- training log
- temperature log
- pest control log
- potable water log
- medical waste/disposal log
- memo for the record
110
What 4 logs are documented in TMIP?
- heat stress
- pest
- sti
- waters
111
What instruction is the:
| Consolidated list of effective instructions
OPNAVNOTE 5215
112
What is a semi-annual listing of valid instructions issued by washington DC, hq organizations
Consolidated list of effective instructions
| OPNAVNOTE 5215
113
Which instruction provides proper mailing address and titles for naval correspondence for all DON activities?
Standard navy distribution list
| OPNAVNOTE 5400
114
What instruction is the standard navy distribution list
OPNAVNOTE 5400
115
Which instruction governs SSIC?
SECNAVINST 5210.11
116
What instruction provides guidelines for segregation, filing, and charging out of USN/USMC records?
Standard subject identification codes
| SECNAVINST 5210.11
117
How many major groups of SSIC are there?
14
118
What is the navy correspondence manual?
SECNAVINST 5216.5
119
Which instruction provides guidance and standardization to DON for writing quality, correspondence format, and personnel management?
navy correspondence manual
| SECNAVINST 5216.5
120
What is the navy telecommunications user's manual?
NTP-3 series
121
What provides concise procedures for the drafting and preparation of DON GENADMIN messages?
navy telecommunications user's manual
| NTP-3 series
122
What is the message address directory?
USN PLAD-1
123
What is used for providing the correct plain language address (PLAD) for messages of any type?
message address directory
| USN PLAD-1
124
What establishes defined, measurable medical events for all services?
Individual medical readiness (IMR) program
125
What is the purpose of IMR program?
- improve medical readiness through monitoring and reporting
| - provides operational commanders, dept leaders the ability to monitor medical readiness of personnel
126
What are the six pillars of IMR?
- individual medical equipment
- immunizations
- readiness laboratory studies
- dental readiness
- deployment limiting conditions
- periodic health assessments
127
Concerning IMR, what does fully medically ready mean?
current in all categories including dental class 1 or 2
128
Concerning IMR, what does partially medically mean?
lacking one or more immunizations, lab studies, or medical equipment
129
Concerning IMR, what does not medically ready mean?
- existence of a chronic or prolonged deployment limiting condition
- hospitalized or con leave
- dental class 3
130
Concerning IMR, what does medical readiness indeterminate mean?
Inability to determine current health status because of
- missing health information
- lost medical record
- overdue pha
- dental class 4
131
How often does the SMDR complete:
- potable waters underway
- sick call log
- situational/routine exams
- immunizations
- HREC maintenance
- inspect food service
- walkthrough berthing/messing
- 8 o'clock reports
daily
132
How often does the SMDR conduct:
- safety/sanitation inspection walkthrough
- crew's medical training
- IMR uploaded into NMO
- TMIP back up
weekly
133
How often does the SMDR conduct:
- report of potable water system inspection
- validate CBRN inventory
- drills/exercises
quarterly
134
How often does the SMDR conduct a controlled substance inventory and report?
quarterly
| unless there is a transaction, then monthly
135
How often will the SMDR conduct:
- an inventory of all emergency amal equipment
- conduct health/dental record audit
- conduct a mass casualty drill
semiannual
