7 Chapters Test Flashcards
(152 cards)
1
Q
Before being disinfected, patient care equipment should be:
a. Sprayed with water
b. Cleaned with detergent
c. Rinsed with an antiseptic
d. Wiped with a chlorine-soaked cloth
A
b. Cleaned with Detergent
2
Q
Patient care equipment must be processed:
a.
After each use
b.
When the nurse sends it to CS/SPD
c.
When it is visibly soiled
d.
Once a week
A
A. After each use
3
Q
The unit calls for a patient-cooling machine. Which of the following would be sent?
Select one:
a.
Intravenous pump
b.
Patient-controlled analgesia pump
c.
Hypo/hyperthermia machine
d.
Continuous passive motion device
A
C. Hypo/hyperthermia machine
4
Q
Which of the following is not part of the final preparation of patient care equipment for re-use?
Select one:
a.
Checking of the date of the last safety check
b.
Placement of disassembled parts into a plastic bag
c.
Lubrication of movable parts
d.
Checking of cords and plugs for signs of damage
A
B. Placement of disassembled parts into a plastic bag
5
Q
Which disinfectant is to be used for patient care equipment?
Select one:
a.
The general use disinfectant for cleaning work surfaces
b.
Alcohol based disinfectant
c.
The disinfectant used in the ultrasonic
d.
The disinfectant recommended by the device manufacturer
A
D. The disinfectant recommended by the device manufacturer
6
Q
Patient care equipment that is soiled needs to be:
Select one:
a.
Inspected before transport
b.
Cleaned before transport
c.
Contained during transport
d.
Disinfected before transport
A
C. Contained during transport
7
Q
There is a high patient census, and there are no IV pumps available in the CS/SPD department for distribution. Which of the following steps should be taken?
Select one:
a.
Tell the requesting units there are no pumps in the department
b.
Call nursing units to let them know
c.
Wait for the next shift to do rounds
d.
Have staff check the units more frequently
A
D. Have the staff check the units more frequently
8
Q
What is the best way to transport an IV pump to CS/SPD after patient use?
Select one:
a.
Hand carried to prevent damage
b.
Soaking in enzymatic cleaner
c.
On top of a case cart
d.
In a covered cart or closed plastic bag
A
D. In a covered cart or closed plastic bag.
9
Q
A small cut is noted in the cord of an IV pump that has been disinfected. Which of the following steps should the CS/SPD technician take?
Select one:
a.
Put into service as long as the cut does not reach the inside wires
b.
Tape with electrical tape
c.
Throw the IV pump away
d.
Send to the biomedical engineering department
A
D. send to the biomedical engineering department
10
Q
Which of the following BEST describes the process that kills MOST microorganisms but not necessarily spores?
Select one:
a.
High-Level Disinfection
b.
Sterilization
c.
Deionization
d.
Antisepsis
A
A. High Level Disinfection
11
Q
Which of the following high-level disinfectants requires activation prior to use?
Select one:
a.
Ortho-phthaldehyde
b.
Peracetic Acid
c.
Glutaraldehyde
d.
Hydrogen Peroxide
A
C. Glutaraldehyde
12
Q
Which of the following medical devices would require only low-level disinfection?
Select one:
a.
Blood Pressure Cuff
b.
Hemostat
c.
Flexible endescope
d.
Metal Basin
A
A. Blood Pressure Cuff
13
Q
Iodine is used primarily to reduce microorganisms on which of the following?
Select one:
a.
Worksations
b.
SKin
c.
Patient Care equipment
d.
Metals and rubber
A
B. Skin
14
Q
To obtain maximum effectiveness, disinfectants must be
Select one:
a.
Mixed with a detergent
b.
Kept at a room temperature
c.
used in the proper concentration
d.
Applied two times
A
c.
used in the proper concentration
15
Q
Chemical disinfectants are frequently misused because
Select one:
a.
There is insufficient time to process
b.
the current instructions for use were not followed
c.
the instructions for use are not printed on the label
d.
The department policy and procedure is outdated
A
B . The current instructions for use were not followed.
16
Q
When minimum effectiveness testing reveals that the concentration of high-level disinfectant is below the recommended level, you should
Select one:
a.
Continue to use the solution
b.
Add more disinfectant to the basin
c.
discard the solution
d.
Add water to the solution
A
C.
discard the solution
17
Q
According to Spaulding’s classifications of medical devices, a semi-critical items REQUIRES which form of disinfection?
Select one:
a.
High Level disinfection
b.
Low Level disinfection
c.
Sterilization
d.
Low level disinfection
A
a.
High Level disinfection
18
Q
Which level of disinfection is needed for the destruction of HIV (human immunodeficiency virus)?
Select one:
a.
Low level disinfection
b.
Intermediate Level disinfection
c.
Sterilization
d.
High Level disinfection
A
A. Low Level Disinfection
19
Q
The ability of a disinfectant to perform MOST EFFICIENTLY depends on
Select one:
a.
Whether or not it remains wet for the stated amount of time.
b.
Missing it with detergent
c.
A Strong concentration
d.
How quickly it dries
A
A. Whether or not it remains wet for the stated amount of time.
20
Q
Sodium hypochlorite belongs to which group of disinfectants
Select one:
a.
Alcohols
b.
Halogens
c.
Phenolics
d.
Quaternary ammonium compounds
A
B. Halogens
21
Q
Alcohol inactivates microorganisms by
Select one:
a.
Denaturing the protiens
b.
Oxidizing the portiens
c.
Alkylation
d.
Evaporation
A
A. Denaturing the proteins
22
Q
For which of the following chemicals is routine employee monitoring for exposure levels REQUIRED?
Select one:
a.
Tincture of Iodine
b.
Glutaraldehyde
c.
Sodium Hyprochlorite
d.
Ortho-phthaldehyde
A
B. Glutaraldehyde
23
Q
Which of the following would be obvious on an improperly cleaned instrument that has been disinfected in ortho-phthaldehyde?
Select one:
a.
foul order
b.
Slimy coating
c.
Blue stain
d.
Yellow stain
A
C. Blue Stain
24
Q
Which of the following is NOT required documentation in high-level disinfection records?
Select one:
a.
The time at which the item was immersed in the solution
b.
Confirmation that the item was cleaned
c.
Whether or not the item was completely dry
d.
Results of the MEC (minimum effective concentration test
A
C. Whether or not the item was completely dry
25
All instruments and devices received from another facility should be:
Select one:
a.
Resterilized as they are received
b.
Completely reprocessed
c.
Rewrapped and sterilized
d.
Used as delivered
B. Completely reprocessed
26
According to AAMI, “The removal of contamination from an item to the extent necessary for further processing or for the intended use” defines:
Select one:
a.
Decontamination
b.
Sterilization
c.
Cleaning
d.
Disinfection
C. Cleaning
27
Which of the following terms refers to disease-producing microorganisms?
Select one:
a.
Pathogen
b.
Biofilm
c.
Bioburden
d.
Pyrogen
A. Pathogen
28
Microorganisms on contaminated items are referred to as:
Select one:
a.
Bioburden
b.
Antagonists
c.
Infection
d.
Contaminants
A. Bioburden
29
The TOSI line of products is used to verify the effectiveness of:
Select one:
a.
Steam guns
b.
Mechanical washers
c.
Steam sterilizers
d.
ETO aerators
B. Mechanical Washers
30
OSHA recommends that contaminated scrub attire be:
Select one:
a.
Laundered by the facility
b.
Thrown away
c.
Laundered at the Laundromat
d.
Laundered at home by the employee
A. Laundered by the facility
31
When a new medical device is purchased and received into SPD, what information must the technician have before processing it?
Select one:
a.
Ask the rep for verbal instructions
b.
Clean the device in the ultrasonic cleaner
c.
Hand-wash the device in an enzymatic solution
d.
Request written instructions for processing from the manufacturer
d.
| Request written instructions for processing from the manufacturer
32
Generally, fiberoptic light cables should be cleaned:
Select one:
a.
Using a soft cloth soaked with saline
b.
Using a soft cloth and detergent
c.
In the automated endoscope reprocessor
d.
In an ultrasonic cleaner
b.
| Using a soft cloth and detergent
33
A proteolytic enzyme detergent breaks down:
Select one:
a.
Carbohydrates
b.
Fat
c.
Bone Marrow
d.
Blood
D.
| Blood
34
Prior to processing instruments in an ultrasonic cleaner:
Select one:
a.
The water should be changed
b.
The gross soil should be removed
c.
The instruments should be placed in a solid metal basket
d.
The temperature of the water should be 75 degrees F
b.
| The gross soil should be removed
35
What material can be used as a simple test to check the functioning of the ultrasonic cleaner?
Select one:
a.
Tyvek
b.
Aluminum foil
c.
Plastic
d.
Polyethylene film
b.
| Aluminum foil
36
Metal-bristled brushes may be used to clean:
Select one:
a.
Box locks on hinged instruments
b.
Teeth on vascular forceps
c.
Cutting edges of scissors
d.
Tungsten carbide jaws of needle holders
d.
| Tungsten carbide jaws of needle holders
37
Powered equipment should be:
Select one:
a.
Cleaned as specified by the manufacturer
b.
Cleaned with saline
c.
Immersed in an enzymatic solution
d.
Processing in an ultrasonic cleaner
a.
| Cleaned as specified by the manufacturer
38
A solution having a pH of 9 is:
Select one:
a.
Concentrated
b.
Alkaline
c.
Neutral
d.
Acidic
b. Alkaline
39
The final rinse in the cleaning process should be performed using:
Select one:
a.
Treated water
b.
Saline
c.
Alcohol
d.
Tap water
A.
| Treated water
40
Which of the following should never be used to remove gross soil on instruments?
Select one:
a.
Enzymatic foam
b.
Saline
c.
Water
d.
Moist rag
d.
| moist rag
41
Before it is manually cleaned, what must be done to a flexible endoscope?
Select one:
a.
It must be brushed with a soft brush
b.
It must be tested for leaks
c.
Alcohol must be suctioned through all channels
d.
It must be ultrasonically cleaned
b.
It must be tested for leaks
42
A solution is considered neutral when the pH is:
Select one:
a.
11
b.
7
c.
5
d.
9
b. 7
43
Enzyme-based detergents contain organic substances that assist in the breakdown of:
Select one:
a.
Hard Water
b.
Magnesium and copper
c.
Disinfectants
d.
Protein soils and blood
d.
| protein soils and blood
44
The ventilation system in the decontamination area must be maintained at:
Select one:
a.
Positive Pressure
b.
Negative Pressure
c.
Neutral Pressure
d.
Flexible Pressure
b.
| negative pressure
45
What is the first step in the decontamination process?
Select one:
a.
Application of a disinfectant
b.
Soaking in a disinfecting solution
c.
Placing into the sterilizer
d.
Manual and/or automated, mechanical cleaning
d.
| Manual and/or automated, mechanical cleaning
46
Before any item with multiple parts is cleaned, it must be:
Select one:
a.
Soaked in an enzymatic solution
b.
Sprayed with a lipolytic gel
c.
Processed in an ultrasonic cleaner
d.
Disassembled
d.
| disassembled
47
According to OSHA, the use of physical or chemical means to inactivate bloodborne pathogens from a surface is known as:
Select one:
a.
Decontamination
b.
Sterilizing
c.
Cleaning
d.
Disinfection
a.
| decontamination
48
The number of air exchanges in the decontamination area should be:
Select one:
a.
10
b.
20
c.
15
d.
25
a.
| 10
49
What is the temperature range for enzymatic cleaners?
Select one:
a.
100 to 140 degrees F
b.
155 to 165 degrees F
c.
140 to 150 degrees F
d.
109 to 140 degrees F
d.
| 109 to 140 degrees F
50
Water that has been contaminated by the feces of humans and other animals is most notably responsible for:
Select one:
a.
Ringworm
b.
Herpes
c.
Respiratory disease
d.
Gastrointestinal disease
d.
| Gastrointestinal disease
51
Which concentration is most effective in alcohol hand sanitizers?
Select one:
a.
10% to 35%
b.
75% to 100%
c.
60% to 95%
d.
50% to 75%
c.
| 60% to 95%
52
The principal living reservoir of human disease comes from:
Select one:
a.
The human body
b.
The bathroom doorknob
c.
The decontamination room
d.
Wild animals
a.
| the human body
53
Bloodborne pathogen exposure is regulated by:
Select one:
a.
VRE
b.
CSC
c.
OSHA
d.
FDA
c.
| OSHA
54
A confidential medical evaluation must be performed any time:
Select one:
a.
An employee changes jobs
b.
When an employee is first hired
c.
An employee is exposed to blood or body fluid
d.
An employee wants one
c.
| An employee is exposed to blood or body fluid
55
Which of the following is not a disease spread by droplets?
Select one:
a.
Measles
b.
Pneumonia
c.
Whooping cough
d.
Influenza
a.
| measles
56
Healthcare-acquired infections account for more than:
Select one:
a.
50,000 deaths annually
b.
70,000 deaths annually
c.
90,000 deaths annually
d.
110,000 deaths annually
c.
| 90,000 deaths
57
The general term for any inanimate object involved in the spread of infection is:
Select one:
a.
Cell
b.
Fomite
c.
Axon
d.
Vector
b.
| fomite
58
Living things responsible for causing disease are called:
Select one:
a.
Zygotes
b.
Fomites
c.
Cells
d.
Vectors
d.
| Vectors
59
A healthcare-acquired infection is generally termed a:
Select one:
a.
Contagious Infection
b.
Disease-causing infection
c.
Antibiotic-resistant infection
d.
Nosocomial infection
d.
| Nosocomial infection
60
Susceptible host?
Select one:
a.
Defense mechanisms
b.
Vehicles
c.
Contact
d.
Vectors
b.
| Vehicles
61
The principal route of nosocomial infections is:
Select one:
a.
Door handles
b.
Direct contact
c.
Faulty housekeeping
d.
Commodes
b.
| Direct Contact
62
One of the most common portals of exit in disease transmission is:
Select one:
a.
Intact skin
b.
The conjunctiva
c.
The spinal cord
d.
The respiratory tract
d.
| The respiratory Tract
63
The sterile processing technician does NOT have an impact on which of the following elements of the chain of infection?
Select one:
a.
Portal of entry
b.
Portal of exit
c.
Reservoir of infection
d.
Defense mechanism
D.
| Defense Mechanism
64
Under standard precautions, all blood and other potentially infectious materials are:
Select one:
a.
Discarded as regular trash
b.
Sterilized prior to disposal
c.
Handled as if they were infectious
d.
Handled wearing a respirator
C.
| Handled as if they were infectious
65
Waterless hand antiseptics are not appropriate when:
Select one:
a.
Changing gloves
b.
Hands are visually soiled
c.
Changing work locations
d.
Handling sterile products
b.
| Hands are visually soiled
66
Lyme disease is generally transmitted by:
Select one:
a.
Droplet
b.
Fomite
c.
Vehicle
d.
Vector
d.
| Vector
67
Which of the following are vectors for pathogenic organisms?
Select one:
a.
Surgical instruments
b.
Bandages and dressings
c.
Mosquitoes and flies
d.
Patient care equipment
c.
| Mosquitoes and flies
68
Unless the water turns off automatically, the water should be:
Select one:
a.
Turned off using a disposable towel
b.
Turned off using your elbow
c.
Left running
d.
Turned off using your right wrist
a.
| Turned off using a disposable towel
69
An infection caused by a needle stick enters through which portal of entry?
Select one:
a.
Mucous membranes
b.
Skin
c.
The conjunctiva
d.
Parenteral tissue
d.
| Parenteral tissue
70
CJD is caused by:
Select one:
a.
Viruses
b.
Prions
c.
Protozoa
d.
Bacteria
b.
| Prions
71
Microorganisms are measured in:
Select one:
a.
Inches
b.
Microns
c.
Molecules
d.
Millimeters
b.
| Microns
72
Which type of microorganism has the ability to slow down its metabolism and become dormant?
Select one:
a.
Gram-negative virus
b.
Gram-positive bacillus
c.
Gram-positive virus
d.
Gram-negative bacillus
b. Gram-Positive Bacillus
73
What is the shape of Cocci?
Select one:
a.
Rod
b.
Corkscrew
c.
Spiral
d.
Round
d.
| Round
74
Which of the following best describes a prion?
Select one:
a.
An abnormal protein
b.
An aerobic mycobacterium
c.
A single-celled microorganism
d.
A single-celled yeast
a.
| Abnormal Protein
75
Which of the following is not a requirement for bacteria to survive?
Select one:
a.
Warmth
b.
Elimination of waste
c.
Bright light
d.
Water
c.
| Bright light
76
What color do Gram-Positive microorganisms stain?
Select one:
a.
Red or Pink
b.
Black or Brown
c.
Blue or Purple
d.
Yellow or Green
C.
| Blue or purple
77
Prions are of concern in health care because they:
Select one:
a.
Are very prevalent
b.
Are difficult to kill by usual sterilization methods
c.
Can reproduce very quickly
d.
Can only be killed by ethylene oxide sterilization
b.
| Are difficult to kill by usual sterilization methods
78
Bacteria are unicellular and reproduce by:
Select one:
a.
Pasteurization
b.
Metabolism
c.
Binary Fission
d.
Photosynthesis
c.
| Binary Fission
79
In order to survive, aerobic bacteria require:
Select one:
a.
Light
b.
Oxygen
c.
Cold
d.
Liquids
b.
| Oxygen
80
Which of the following is used to test the effectiveness of sterilization cycles?
Select one:
a.
Vegetative bacteria
b.
Mycobacteria
c.
Prions
d.
Spores
D.
| Spores
81
A dehydrated cell with a thick, shell- like wall is known as a:
Select one:
a.
Capsule
b.
Spore
c.
Prion
d.
Fungi
b. spore
82
Which of the following requires a living host to multiply?
Select one:
a.
Viruses
b.
Fungi
c.
Prions
d.
Protozoa
a. viruses
83
The term pathogenic means:
Select one:
a.
Poisonous Vapor
b.
Disease-Producing
c.
Fermentation
d.
Contagious
b. Disease producing
84
Which of the following is true of fungi?
Select one:
a.
They absorb matter through the nucleus
b.
They include single celled yeasts
c.
They are all microscopic
d.
All types have flagella
b.
| They include single celled yeasts
85
The shape of a Spirochete is:
Select one:
a.
Spherical
b.
Oval
c.
Round
d.
Spiral
d.
| spiral
86
Protozoa are:
Select one:
a.
Double-celled microorganisms
b.
Multiple-celled microorganisms
c.
Non-celled microorganisms
d.
Single-celled microorganisms
d.
| Single-celled microorganisms
87
A microorganism that has a slime-like outer covering is called a:
Select one:
a.
Virus
b.
Prion
c.
Spore
d.
Capsule
d. capsule
88
Which of the following pathogens is the cause of tuberculosis?
Select one:
a.
Mycobacteria
b.
Prions
c.
Protozoa
d.
Viruses
a. mycobacteria
89
Staphylococcus aureus is a:
Select one:
a.
Fungi
b.
Prion
c.
Gram-negative coccus
d.
Gram-positive coccus
d. Gram positive coccus
90
Which of the following diseases is not caused by a virus?
Select one:
a.
Polio
b.
AIDS
c.
CJD
d.
Herpes
CJD
91
Rod-shaped bacteria are called:
Select one:
a.
Spiral
b.
Bacilli
c.
Cocci
d.
Flagella
b. Bacilli
92
What color do Gram-Negative microorganisms stain?
Select one:
a.
Red or Pink
b.
Blue or Purple
c.
Green or Yellow
d.
Black or Brown
A. red or pink
93
Which of the following is a function of the voluntary nervous system?
Select one:
a.
Saliva secretion
b.
Skeletal muscle contractions
c.
Heart rate
d.
Diameter of blood vessels
b. skeletal muscle contractions
94
The smallest and most numerous structural units possessing the basic characteristics of life are called:
Select one:
a.
Cells
b.
Tissues
c.
Organs
d.
Systems
a. cells
95
Nerves and blood supply are located in which layer of the skin?
Select one:
a.
Hyperdermis
b.
Epidermis
c.
Hypodermis
d.
Dermis
d.
| Dermis
96
Where is the tympanic membrane located?
Select one:
a.
The throat
b.
The nose
c.
The eye
d.
The ear
d.
| The ear
97
Which of the following is the largest organ of the body?
Select one:
a.
Heart
b.
Colon
c.
Skin
d.
Liver
C.
| Skin
98
Smooth muscle cells lack:
Select one:
a.
Peristalsis
b.
Motive power
c.
Involuntary control
d.
Striations
d.
| Striations
99
Which of the following is not an environmental factor required for the life of a cell?
Select one:
a.
Food
b.
Water
c.
Pressure
d.
Cold
d.
| Cold
100
The bladder, ureters, and kidneys are part of the:
Select one:
a.
Circulatory system
b.
Skeletal system
c.
Reproductive system
d.
Urinary system
d.
| Urinary system
101
The femur, tibia, and fibula are bones of the:
Select one:
a.
Pelvic girdle
b.
Pectoral girdle
c.
Upper limbs
d.
Lower limbs
d.
| Lower limbs
102
Which of the following transports food to the stomach?
Select one:
a.
Tongue
b.
Larnyx
c.
Esophagus
d.
Pharnyx
c.
| Esophagus
103
The seminal vesicles and bulbourethral glands are part of the:
Select one:
a.
Female reproductive system
b.
Endocrine system
c.
Male reproductive system
d.
Sensory system
c.
| male reproductive system
104
What connects muscle to bone?
Select one:
a.
Tendons
b.
Cartilage
c.
Fascia
d.
Ligaments
a.
| tendons
105
The smallest bones of the body are found in the:
Select one:
a.
Foot
b.
Middle Ear
c.
Hand
d.
Vertebrae
b.
| the middle ear
106
Complex structures with specialized functions within the body are known as:
Select one:
a.
Molecules
b.
Organs
c.
Atoms
d.
Cells
b. organs
107
Which of the following are responsible for providing immunity?
Select one:
a.
Hormones
b.
Platelets
c.
White blood cells
d.
Red blood cells
c.
| White blood cells
108
The humerus, radius, and ulna are bones of the:
Select one:
a.
Pectoral girdle
b.
Lower limbs
c.
Pelvic girdle
d.
Upper limbs
d.
| upper limbs
109
Which of the following supports the tongue and the functions in swallowing?
Select one:
a.
Hyoid Bone
b.
Thoracic Cage
c.
Vertebrae
d.
Skull
a. hyoid bone
110
Red blood cells develop in which part of the body?
Select one:
a.
Spleen
b.
Heart
c.
Bone Marrow
d.
Gall Bladder
c. bone marrow
111
Which of the following is a function of the autonomic nervous system?
Select one:
a.
Sensation
b.
Mental functions
c.
Heart rate
d.
Skeletal contractions
c. heart rate
112
The entire delicate central nervous system is protected by:
Select one:
a.
Fatty tissue
b.
Muscle
c.
Fluid
d.
Bony encasement
d. bony encasement
113
Which branch of science refers to the form and organization of body parts?
Select one:
a.
Physiology
b.
Microbiology
c.
Biology
d.
Anatomy
d.
| anatomy
114
The nucleus is the cell’s:
Select one:
a.
Brain
b.
Membrane
c.
Skeleton
d.
Protein
a.
| brain
115
The longest part of the GI tract is the:
Select one:
a.
Esophagus
b.
Small intestine
c.
Large intestine
d.
Stomach
b.
| small intestine
116
The breathing process removes which of the following gases from body cells?
Select one:
a.
Carbon monoxide
b.
Methane
c.
Carbon dioxide
d.
Hydrogen
c.
| carbon dioxide
117
The portion of the brain responsible for consciousness is the:
Select one:
a.
Cerebellum
b.
Brain stem
c.
Cerebrum
d.
Cranium
c.
| cerebrum
118
Which organ produces bile?
Select one:
a.
Gallbladder
b.
Liver
c.
Large intestine
d.
Small intestine
b.
| liver
119
The skull, hyoid, vertebral column, and thoracic cage are part of the:
Select one:
a.
Pectoral girdle
b.
Pelvic girdle
c.
Axial skeleton
d.
Appendicular skeleton
c.
| axial skeleton
120
Specialized cells responsible for contractions in the body are called:
Select one:
a.
Nerves
b.
Skin
c.
Muscles
d.
Bones
c.
| muscles
121
DNA is found in which part of the cell?
Select one:
a.
Nucleus
b.
Cytoplasm
c.
Cell Membrane
d.
Cell Wall
a.
| nucleus
122
Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?
Select one:
a.
Sternum
b.
Hyoid
c.
Humerus
d.
Cranium
c.
| humerus
123
It is important for the SPD technician to learn anatomy and physiology in order to:
Select one:
a.
Recognize where instruments are used
b.
Be aware of the effects of microorganisms
c.
Diagnose illnesses
d.
Know more than their co-workers
a.
| Recognize where instruments are used
124
Which branch of science refers to the function of specific body parts?
Select one:
a.
Microbiology
b.
Physiology
c.
Anatomy
d.
Biology
b. physiology
125
A rule designed to govern behavior is called a:
Select one:
a.
Procedure
b.
Regulation
c.
Recommended practice
d.
Standard
b.
| regulation
126
An established norm which is based on theory is called a:
Select one:
a.
Standard
b.
Regulation
c.
Recommended practice
d.
Policy
a. standard
127
Annual competency testing is required by:
Select one:
a.
AAMI
b.
JCAHO
c.
CDC
d.
OSHA
b.
| JCAHO
128
Any equipment with a cord that is cracked, frayed, or broken should be:
Select one:
a.
Sent out for repair
b.
Thrown away
c.
Cleaned and distributed
d.
Disinfected and sent out for repair
d.
| Disinfected and sent out for repair
129
Before a pesticide can be marketed and used in the United States, it must be evaluated and registered by which of the following?
Select one:
a.
EPA
b.
CDC
c.
FDA
d.
OSHA
a. EPA
130
Collection of data and identification of issues are part of what kind of program?
Select one:
a.
Quality Assurance
b.
Orientation
c.
SPD Training
d.
Safety
a.
| quality assurance
131
Compliance with OSHA is:
Select one:
a.
Doing what you want to do.
b.
Required by law.
c.
An opinion of an expert.
d.
Optional.
b.
| required by law.
132
EPA, FDA, OSHA and state departments of health (DOH) primarily issue:
Select one:
a.
Recommended Practices.
b.
Standards.
c.
Professional Practices.
d.
Regulations.
d.
| regulations
133
Ethics is the practice of:
Select one:
a.
Dealing with what is bad.
b.
Not recognizing cultural beliefs.
c.
Doing the right thing.
d.
Discussing patient issues with friends.
c.
| doing the right thing
134
How often should cleaning and sterilization instructions be requested from device manufacturers?
Select one:
a.
Each time the item is purchased
b.
Only the first time the item is purchased
c.
Once a year
d.
Only when the device has changed
a.
| Each time the item is purchased
135
If healthcare facilities reprocess single-use devices, the devices must be cleared by:
Select one:
a.
EPA
b.
CDC
c.
OSHA
d.
FDA
d.
| FDA
136
Instrument sets and patient care equipment must be processed and distributed in an accurate and timely manner so that:
Select one:
a.
The cases are on time and you won’t have to pay overtime.
b.
The supervisor has time to check them before they are used.
c.
Patient care is not adversely affected.
d.
The doctor does not get mad at you.
a.
| The cases are on time and you won’t have to pay overtime.
137
OSHA has a great effect on SPD by its regulation of occupational exposure to airborne contaminants, exposure from blood borne pathogens, and which of the following:
Select one:
a.
Communication of workplace hazards
b.
Approving the chemical products used in CS/SPD
c.
Reporting malfunctioning medical equipment
d.
Reprocessing of single-use devices
a.
| Communication of workplace hazards
138
Recommended practices are:
Select one:
a.
Principals, laws, or rules designed to govern behavior.
b.
Statements of sound principals of practice that are based on scientific data and the opinions of experts.
c.
Documents that reflect state and federal regulations.
d.
Established norms determined by opinion, authority research and/or theory.
b.
| Statements of sound principals of practice that are based on scientific data and the opinions of experts.
139
Standards for SPD practice is written by:
Select one:
a.
EPA
b.
AAMI
c.
Department of Health
d.
FDA
b.
| AAMI
140
Steps for performing a task are defined in a:
Select one:
a.
Procedure
b.
Recommended practice
c.
Policy
d.
Standard
a.
| procedure
141
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act provides for which ethical issue?
Select one:
a.
Confidentiality
b.
Theft of hospital property.
c.
Cultural Diversity
d.
Employee Rights
a.
| Confidentiality
142
The main role of sterile processing is to:
Select one:
a.
Monitor the processing of needles syringes and gloves.
b.
Provide dependable reliable services to enhance the quality of patient care.
c.
Standardize the sterilization process for nursery formula.
d.
Do what the O.R. Supervisor says.
b.
| Provide dependable reliable services to enhance the quality of patient care.
143
The Medical Device Reporting regulation requires:
Select one:
a.
Healthcare facilities to report deaths or serious injuries from medical devices.
b.
Healthcare facilities to register single-use devices to be reprocessed.
c.
Sterile Processing employees to report failure to wear personal protective attire.
d.
Sterile Processing employees to report all work-related injuries.
a.
| Healthcare facilities to report deaths or serious injuries from medical devices.
144
The OSHA Hazard Communication Standard requires that an SDS must be available for:
Select one:
a.
Each chemical in the department.
b.
Chemicals that can harm you.
c.
All packaging material.
d.
All instrument trays.
a.
| Each chemical in the department.
145
The Right-to-Know Standard requires employers to have which of the following available for employees?
Select one:
a.
Exposure limits for ethylene oxide
b.
Safety Data Sheets for chemicals
c.
Blood borne pathogen exposure plan
d.
Emergency eyewash stations
b.
| Safety Data Sheets for chemicals
146
To ensure that all employees are learning the same information, training should be :
Select one:
a.
Done by the same person.
b.
Computerized.
c.
Taught in different languages.
d.
Standardized.
d.
| standardized
147
When should a new employee in SPD become familiar with the SDS?
Select one:
a.
On their first day at work
b.
Before they come to work
c.
After one week on the job
d.
After one month on the job
b.
| before they come to work
148
Which agency regulates reprocessing of single-use devices?
Select one:
a.
CDC
b.
FDA
c.
OSHA
d.
AAMI
b.
| FDA
149
Which agency requires that eyewash stations be available for emergency use?
Select one:
a.
CDC
b.
AAMI
c.
OSHA
d.
FDA
c.
| OSHA
150
Which of the following defines what a department must do?
Select one:
a.
Policies
b.
Standards
c.
Recommended practices
d.
Procedures
a.
| policies
151
Which of the following establishes sterilization practice standards based on opinion, research, and/or theory?
Select one:
a.
AAMI
b.
OSHA
c.
EPA
d.
FDA
a.
| AAMI
152
Which of the following regulates and makes sure products are safe and effective before companies put them on the market?
Select one:
a.
CDC
b.
OSHA
c.
FDA
d.
AAMI
c. FDA
