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ET1 SEP EXAM 2018 > NAVEDTRA 14167F, NAVAL SAFETY SUPERVISOR > Flashcards

NAVEDTRA 14167F, NAVAL SAFETY SUPERVISOR Flashcards

1
Q

What is defined as any unplanned or unexpected event causing personnel injury, occupational illness, death, material loss or damage, or an explosion of any kind?

A

Mishap

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2
Q

What causes are all factors that made up the chain of events leading to the primary cause of the mishap?

A

Contributing

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3
Q

Between 50 and what percent of mishap investigations conclude that the primary cause of the mishap was human error?

A

75

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4
Q

What refers to the technology involved in helping people physically adjust to their workplace?

A

Ergonomics

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5
Q

What acts as a general anesthetic for those parts of the brain which suppress, control, and inhibit thoughts, feelings, and actions?

A

Alcohol

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6
Q

What term refers to the mixing of two or more drugs?

A

Polydrugs

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7
Q

Intense light reflected in random directions causes what?

A

Glare

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8
Q

What is the process of eliminating mishap-producing causes before a mishap occurs?

A

Mishap prevention

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9
Q

How many methods are used to control the impact of hazards?

A

Three

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10
Q

What is the physical separation of people from contact with a hazard?

A

Isolation

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11
Q

What is the control of potentially hazardous airborne substances through the movement of air?

A

Ventilation

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12
Q

What is the dilution of an airborne substance by mixing it with the surrounding uncontaminated air?

A

General ventilation

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13
Q

What employs special operating procedures to reduce the exposure of personnel to hazards?

A

Administrative control

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14
Q

The use of what is the least preferred method of hazard control?

A

Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)

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15
Q

Investigations of alleged imminent danger situations are made within how long?

A

24 hours

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16
Q

The shore OSH office or afloat safety officer will provide and interim or final response in writing to the originator of the reported condition within how many working days of receipt of the hazard report?

A

10

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17
Q

What tracks aviation hazard report corrective actions?

A

Naval Safety Center

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18
Q

What can be used to report near mishaps?

A

SAFETYGRAMs

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19
Q

What is an occurrence that, except for proximity or timely action, would have resulted in damage or injury to personnel?

A

Near-mishap

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20
Q

Each identified hazard that cannot be corrected immediately is assigned a what?

A

Risk Assessment Code (RAC)

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21
Q

What is an assessment of the worst potential consequence that is likely to occur as a result of a deficiency?

A

Hazard severity

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22
Q

What hazard severity category indicates the hazard may cause death or loss of a facility?

A

Category I- Catastrophic

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23
Q

What hazard severity category indicates the hazard may cause severe injury, severe occupational illness, or minor property damage?

A

Category II- Critical

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24
Q

What hazard severity category indicates the hazard may cause minor injury, minor occupational illness or minor property damage?

A

Category III- Marginal

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25
Q

What hazard severity category indicates the hazard probably would not affect personnel safety or health, but is nevertheless in violation of a NAVOSH standard?

A

Category IV- Negligible

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26
Q

What is the likelihood that a hazard will result in a mishap?

A

Mishap probability

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27
Q

Ashore, civilian and military hazard correction is documented on what form?

A

OPNAV 5100/12

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28
Q

Ashore, a formal installation hazard abatement plan records deficiencies assigned RACs 1, 2, and 3 that require more than how many days for correction?

A

30

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29
Q

What is the Hazard Abatement Plan for forces afloat?

A

CSMP

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30
Q

A ship, shipyard, or intermediate maintenance activity that has NAVOSH deficiencies it cannot correct should submit a request to the what for either an alternation equivalent to repair or a ship alteration?

A

Type commander

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31
Q

The activity safety office approves interim protective measures for found deficiencies in effect for more than how many days?

A

60

32
Q

Who has established the NAVOSH Program?

A

Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)

33
Q

In what year was the first NAVOSH Program Manual, OPNAVINST 5100.23C, written, defining the Navy’s occupational safety and health standards?

A

1983

34
Q

What program addresses the maintenance of safe and healthful conditions in the workplace or the occupational environment?

A

NAVOSH

35
Q

What deals with preserving the health of workers on the job?

A

Occupational health

36
Q

What concerns the prevention of mishaps and injuries that may occur on the job?

A

Occupational safety

37
Q

What defines safety standards for ships, submarines, and small craft?

A

OPNAVINST 5100.19D

38
Q

What involves inspecting every workplace at the facility or ship, from the overhead to the deck?

A

Industrial hygiene survey

39
Q

What is a unit used to express sound pressure levels?

A

Decibel

40
Q

What is the legally established time-weighted average (TWA) concentration or ceiling concentration of a contaminant or the exposure level of a harmful physical agent that must not be exceeded?

A

Permissible Exposure Limit

PEL

41
Q

TLVs are established by what?

A

American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH)

42
Q

What is defined as any combination of work, airflow, humidity, air temperature, thermal radiation, or internal body condition that strains the body?

A

Heat stress

43
Q

Taking noise measurements is part of the base-line or how many-month Industrial Hygiene Survey aboard ship?

A

18

44
Q

Ashore, noise measurements are taken according to the workplace monitoring plan, and records are maintained for how many years?

A

40

45
Q

The work areas where the sound level, continuous or intermittent, is routinely greater than 84 dB(A) or where the peak sound pressure level, caused by impulse or impact noise, routinely exceeds what dB are considered hazardous noise areas?

A

140

46
Q

Personnel working in designated hazardous noise areas or operating noise-hazardous equipment must wear combination of both the insert type and circumaural muff type of hearing-protective devices in all areas where noise levels exceed how many dB(A)?

A

104

47
Q

Each hearing-protective device is tested and assigned a what?

A

NRR

48
Q

What manages the overall program for hazardous material control and management for the Navy?

A

Naval Supply Systems Command

49
Q

Only a state authority or what else may designate material as hazardous waste?

A

Environmental Protection Agency

50
Q

What are technical bulletins containing information about hazardous material?

A

Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)

51
Q

What is a computerized database of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)?

A

Hazardous Materials Information System (HMIS)

52
Q

The HMIS data base provides useful information on more than how many hazardous materials used by DOD?

A

70,000

53
Q

What provides the handler, shipper, and user of a hazardous material with critical information?

A

Labeling

54
Q

The Navy considers any person found to have vision in one eye of what or worse to be visually impaired?

A

20/200

55
Q

A warning sign and how many-inch yellow and black striping or checkerboard markings on the deck identify eye-hazardous areas?

A

3

56
Q

In no instance should a person have to travel more than 100 feet or take more than how many seconds to get to the eyewash unit?

A

10

57
Q

Plumbed and self-contained emergency eyewash equipment flush the eyes using potable water. The minimum flow rate must be 0.4 gallons per minute for how many continuous minutes?

A

15

58
Q

Workers who smoke and are exposed to asbestos have chances how many times greater of developing cancer?

A

90

59
Q

What is energy transmitted through space in the form of electromagnetic waves (rays) or nuclear particles?

A

Radiation

60
Q

Alpha particles, beta particles, and neutrons are what types of particles?

A

Nuclear

61
Q

Radiation with enough energy to strip electrons from atoms in the media through which it passes is known as what type of radiation?

A

Ionizing

62
Q

How many types of air contamination may we be exposed to?

A

Six

63
Q

Fumes are very small particles (what size or less) formed by the condensation of volatilized solids, usually metals?

A

1 micrometer

64
Q

What is a material that under normal conditions of temperature and pressure tends to occupy the entire space uniformly?

A

Gas

65
Q

Smoke is carbon or soot particles less than what in size resulting from the incomplete combustion of carbonaceous materials such as coal or oil?

A

0.1 micrometer

66
Q

What is the gaseous state of a substance that is normally a liquid or solid at room temperature?

A

Vapor

67
Q

What type of respirator removes air contaminants by filtering, absorbing, adsorbing, or chemical reaction?

A

Air-purifying

68
Q

What type of respirator provides breathing air independent of the environment?

A

Supplied-air

69
Q

What provides protection in oxygen-deficient environments or other environments dangerous to life or health?

A

SCBA

70
Q

What protects the user in a hazardous environment?

A

Personal protective equipment (PPE)

71
Q

Personnel must wear parachute-type safety harnesses with what type of safety lanyards when climbing, working aloft, or working over the side?

A

Dyna-brake

72
Q

What officer supervises operation of the portable electrical tool issue room?

A

Electrical safety

73
Q

Ashore, tools must meet what approval or have a grounded metal case?

A

Underwriters Laboratories (UL)

74
Q

All personnel, when reporting aboard and how often thereafter, receive indoctrination on basic electrical safety?

A

Annually

75
Q

Aboard ship, a gas free certificate is good for a maximum of what time frame?

A

8 hours

76
Q

Ashore, the marine chemist performs gas free services as outlined in what instruction?

A

OPNAVINST 5100.23F

77
Q

What is not authorized to inspect military workers or ships for safety, but it is authorized to inspect civilian work sites aboard ship?

A

OSHA

ET1 SEP EXAM 2018 (28 decks)

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