Haematology - Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Proerythroblasts, lymphoblasts, myeloblasts, monoblasts, and megakaryoblasts share what precursor cell type?

A

Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells

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2
Q

Reticulocytes are precursors for what type of blood cell?

A

Erythrocytes

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3
Q

Lymphoblasts are the precursors for what two blood cell types?

A

B cells and T cells

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4
Q

When B cells and T cells mature, what do they become, respectively?

A

B cells mature into plasma cells whereas T cells become activated T cells

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5
Q

Monocytes develop from what immediate precursor blood cell type?

A

Monoblasts

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6
Q

What precursors indicate that a stem cell has differentiated into the platelet lineage?

A

Megakaryoblasts, which become megakaryocytes that form platelets

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7
Q

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils differentiate from what common precursor blood cell type?

A

Myeloblasts

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8
Q

Promyelocytes, myelocytes, metamyelocytes, and stab cells are precursors for what three granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils

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9
Q

In a normal blood sample, name the differential of white blood cells from most to least numerous.

A

Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Monocytes, Eosinophils, Basophils (remember: Neutrophils Like Making Everything Better)

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10
Q

What feature of the erythrocyte structure permits easy gas exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide?

A

The biconcave disc shape permits a high surface area to volume ratio and facilitates gas exchange

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11
Q

What molecule do erythrocytes depend upon exclusively for energy?

A

Glucose; remember, they cannot use ketones for energy

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12
Q

What is the average lifespan of an erythrocyte in a normal human host?

A

120 days

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13
Q

Where does an erythrocyte obtain the adenosine triphosphate that it needs for energy?

A

Glucose: 90% is anaerobically degraded to lactate, whereas 10% goes to the hexose monophosphate shunt

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14
Q

What role does the erythrocyte play in acid/base physiology?

A

Erythrocytes carry carbon dioxide from the periphery to the lungs for elimination

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15
Q

How do erythrocytes facilitate transport of carbon dioxide away from the peripheral tissues?

A

The chloride-bicarbonate antiport produces a physiologic chloride shift, resulting in cellular loss of chloride and gain of bicarbonate (and thus carbon dioxide)

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16
Q

How would you describe a peripheral blood smear that shows an increased number of red blood cells and numerous immature red blood cells?

A

There is an erythrocytosis or polycythemia (increased number of cells) and a reticulocytosis (increased immature cells)

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17
Q

How would you describe a peripheral blood smear showing red blood cells of varying sizes and of varying shapes?

A

This smear exhibits anisocytosis (varying sizes) and poikilocytosis (varying shapes)

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18
Q

How do mature platelets form from large megakaryocyte precursors?

A

Small portions of cytoplasm fragment off of megakaryocytes

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19
Q

What is the role of platelets immediately following an injury such as a laceration?

A

Primary hemostasis; for example, they help prevent leakage of red blood cells from damaged vessels

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20
Q

What happens to platelets when they are in the presence of damaged endothelium?

A

Platelet activation; sticky platelets aggregate and interact with fibrinogen to form a hemostatic plug

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21
Q

What two types of granules do platelets contain?

A

Dense granules and alpha granules

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22
Q

What are the contents of the dense granules of platelets?

A

Adenosine diphosphate, calcium

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23
Q

What are the contents of the granules of platelets?

A

von Willebrand;s factor, fibrinogen

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24
Q

Where in the body would you typically find the most platelets at any one time?

A

Approximately one third of the platelet pool is stored in the spleen

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25
Q

What is the life span of a platelet?

A

8-10 days

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26
Q

You note multiple small red lesions on the skin of a patient that do not blanche with pressure; what are two possible etiologies of these lesions?

A

These are petechiae, which can be caused by a low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) or dysfunctional platelets

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27
Q

Granulocytes and mononuclear cells are what kind of blood cells?

A

Leukocytes (leuk= white; cyte = cell)

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28
Q

Name three types of granulocytes.

A

Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils

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29
Q

Name two types of mononuclear cells.

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes

30
Q

What is the main function of leukocytes?

A

To defend against infection

31
Q

How many leukocytes are normally found per microliter or blood?

A

4000 to 10,000

32
Q

What distinguishes the appearance of a basophil from other granulated cells?

A

The densely basophilic granules, which stain blue with basic stains

33
Q

What molecules, normally seen as part of the inflammatory cascade, are contained in basophilic granules?

A

Histamine (which causes vasodilation) and other vasoactive amines, as well as leukotrienes (LTD-4)

34
Q

Compare and contrast the function and location of basophils and mast cells.

A

Both types of cells mediate allergic reactions and secrete histamine; however, mast cells bind immunoglobulin E and are found in tissue, whereas basophils are found in the blood

35
Q

What substances are released when mast cells degranulate?

A

Histamine, heparin, eosinophilic chemotactic factors

36
Q

What stimulus causes mast cell degranulation?

A

Immunoglobulin E binding to receptors on the surface of the mast cell

37
Q

You note many basophils on a peripheral smear of a patient undergoing an allergic reaction; do you also expect to see mast cells?

A

No; although both cells are involved in allergic reactions, basophils are found in the blood whereas mast cells are typically only found in tissues

38
Q

What medication can prevent the release of inflammatory compounds from mast cells in a patient with asthma?

A

Cromolyn sodium, which stabilizes mast cell membranes and prevents degranulation

39
Q

What distinguishes an eosinophil from other granulated cells?

A

They are full of large, uniform eosinophilic (pink) granules (eosin = a dye that stains pink; philic = loving)

40
Q

What is the role of major basic protein, found in eosinophils?

A

Major basic protein is released to fight helminth and protozoan infections

41
Q

Eosinophils are phagocytic cells, particularly in the presence of what?

A

Antigen-antibody complexes

42
Q

How do eosinophils and mast cells interact during an allergic reaction?

A

Eosinophils produce histaminase and arylsulfatase to limit the inflammatory reaction from mast cell degranulation

43
Q

Name five diagnoses to consider in a patient discovered to have eosinophilia.

A

Neoplasm, Asthma, Allergic reaction, Collagen vascular disease, Parasites (remember: NAACP)

44
Q

What is the appearance of granules found in neutrophils?

A

Large, spherical, azurophilic granules

45
Q

Under the microscope you note a neutrophil with several granules; what organelle are you looking at?

A

Lysosome

46
Q

What are the contents of the granules in neutrophils?

A

Hydrolytic enzymes, lysozyme, myeloperoxidase, and lactoferrin

47
Q

A peripheral blood smear shows multiple neutrophils with nuclei that display 6, 7, and even 8 lobes; what lab tests are indicated?

A

B12 and folate tests; hypersegmented polys (neutrophils) are present in deficiencies of either vitamin

48
Q

Would you expect to find monocytes in a tissue biopsy?

A

No. Monocytes are found in the blood, not the tissue; when they enter tissue they differentiate into macrophages

49
Q

Describe the appearance of monocytes.

A

Large, kidney-shaped nucleus; frosted glass cytoplasm

50
Q

What role do macrophages play in the immunologic response to extracellular pathogens?

A

They are antigen-presenting cells using major histocompatibility complex class II molecules (present phagocytosed extracellular pathogens)

51
Q

Which cytokine causes activation of macrophages?

A

γ-Interferon

52
Q

What molecules do dendritic cells express on their surfaces that are integral to their role as antigen-presenting cells?

A

Major histocompatibility complex II and Fc receptor

53
Q

What are dendritic cells in the skin called?

A

Langerhans cells

54
Q

What is the major function of B lymphocytes?

A

To produce antibodies

55
Q

What is the function of T lymphocytes?

A

They control the cellular immune response and regulate the activity of B lymphocytes and macrophages

56
Q

B lymphocytes are part of the _____ (cell-mediated/humoral) immune response.

A

Humoral

57
Q

Where do B lymphocytes originate? Where do they mature?

A

They originate and mature in the bone marrow (remember: B = Bone marrow)

58
Q

After maturation, where do B lymphocytes migrate to from the bone marrow?

A

Peripheral lymphoid tissue (lymph node follicles, white pulp of spleen, other uncapsulated lymphoid tissue)

59
Q

What kind of antibody response occurs when the body encounters an antigen it has previously seen?

A

Rapidly secreted, previously formed antibodies because B cells have antigenic memory

60
Q

What is the response of a B cell after encountering a recognized antigen?

A

B cells differentiate into plasma cells and secrete antibodies

61
Q

What major histocompatibility complex do B cells possess on the cell surface?

A

Major histocompatibility complex II, which allows B cells to act as antigen-presenting cells

62
Q

What organelles create the appearance of the off-center nucleus and abundant cytoplasm in a plasma cell?

A

The rough endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi apparatus are plentiful (remember: the plasma cell is a protein (antibody) factory!)

63
Q

How are plasma cells formed?

A

When B cells encounter a recognized antigen, they differentiate into plasma cells (which have antigenic memory)

64
Q

You note that a patient;s bone marrow shows a monoclonal proliferation of plasma cells; what is the diagnosis?

A

Multiple myeloma

65
Q

What is the site of origin for T lymphocytes? Where do they mature?

A

They originate in the bone marrow but mature in the thymus (remember: T cells mature in the Thymus)

66
Q

Name the three types of mature cells into which T cells differentiate.

A

Cytotoxic T cells, helper T cells, and suppressor T cells

67
Q

Which major histocompatibility complex and CD molecules are expressed by cytotoxic T cells?

A

Major histocompatibility complex I and CD8 (MHC CD = 8; MHC I CD8 = 8)

68
Q

Which major histocompatibility complex and CD molecules are expressed by helper T cells?

A

Major histocompatibility complex II and CD4 (MHC CD = 8; MHC II CD4 = 8)

69
Q

T lymphocytes mediate the _____ (cellular/humoral) immune response.

A

Cellular

70
Q

What is the predominate type of lymphocyte found in the circulation?

A

T cells, which make up approximately 80% of circulating lymphocytes