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Engineering Operations, Admin, Records & Reports Flashcards

1
Q

what are the two subdivisons of the Engineering Operational Sequencing System (EOSS)?

A

Engineering operating procedures (EOP), and Engineering operational casualty control (EOCC)

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2
Q

what is used by watchstanders to correctly identify casualties and properly control casualties?

A

engineering operational casualty control (EOCC) guidelines

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3
Q

what is the purpose of the EOSS?

A

to detail the sequential operational functions for the complete cycle of plant operations

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4
Q

what documents describe the knowledge and skills a trainee must have to perform certain duties?

A

PQS

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5
Q

what are the 4 major ections of the PQS?

A

fundamentals, systems, watchstanding, qualification cards

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6
Q

what PQS section is termed the 100 series?

A

Fundamentals

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7
Q

what PQS section is termed the 200 series?

A

systems

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8
Q

what PQS section is termed the 300 series?

A

watchstanding

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9
Q

what PQS section is termed the 400 series?

A

qualification cards

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10
Q

the sources from which rating exam questions are taken are listed in what publication?

A

bibliography for advancement and study, NAVEDTRA 10052 SERIES

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11
Q

what manual provides information about minimum requirements for advancement to each pay grade within each rating?

A

NAVPERS 18068 SERIES, manual of navy enlisted manpower and personnerl classifications and occupational standards

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12
Q

what catalog lists all current training manuals and courses?

A

list of training manuals and correspondence courses, NAVEDTRA 12061 SERIES

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13
Q

the onboard ships drawing and blueprints are listed in an index termed what?

A

ship drawing index (SDI)

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14
Q

the onboard ships drawing are identifed in the ship drawing index by what special marking?

A

an asterisk

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15
Q

drawings in the ship drawing index are listed in what order?

A

numerical

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16
Q

what is the primary objective of the 3-M system?

A

to provide a means of managing maintenance and maintenance support in a way to ensure maximum operating readiness

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17
Q

what 3-M system establishes preventive maintenance, reduces the need for major corrective maintenance, increases economy, and saves the cost of repairs?

A

PMS

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18
Q

what document contains a numerical listing of outstanding deficiencies for all work centers aboard ship?

A

current ships maintenance project (CSMP)

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19
Q

if a problem arises with a piece of equipment that cannot be repaired within 30 days, you must preparea deferred action using what form?

A

OPNAV Form 4790/2K

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20
Q

if the problem with a piece of machinery is beyond ships force repair capability what form must be filled out?

A

OPNAV Form 4790/2K

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21
Q

because of rapid changes in the 3-M system, you should refer to a current copy of what publication?

A

COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2

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22
Q

what log is used to record importantdaily events and data pertaining to the engineering department and the operation of the engineering plant?

A

engineering log

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23
Q

personnel casualties (injuries) that occur, while underway in the engineering plant are documented in what log?

A

engineering log

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24
Q

the original engineering log, is prepared using what instruments?

A

pencil or pen

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25
Q

the engineering log is a legal record that must be retained onboard for how long?

A

3 years

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26
Q

who signs the engineering log underway every watch?

A

eoow

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27
Q

how are corrections made to the engineering log?

A

a single line is drawn through the original entry so that it remains legible, then the correct entry is logged and then the required person initials the margin of the page

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28
Q

who reviews the engineering log daily?

A

engineering officer

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29
Q

who signs the engineering log monthly?

A

commanding officer

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30
Q

what document is used to record all orders received by the station in control of the throttles regarding a change in the movement of the propellers?

A

the engineer’s bell book

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31
Q

who specifies which engineering operating records will be maintained and prescribes the form to be used when no standard record forms are provided?

A

type commander

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32
Q

who approves and sings the engineroom/fireroom operating logs on a daily basis?

A

engineering officer

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33
Q

how long must the the engineroom/fireroom operating log be reatained onboard?

A

2 years

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34
Q

who prepares the daily liquid load plan?

A

oil king

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35
Q

pms schedules are categorized in what manner?

A

cycle, quarterly, weekly

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36
Q

what schedule displays the planned maintenance requirements to be performed between major overhauls of the ship?

A

cycle schedules

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37
Q

who signs and dates the PMS Cycle schedule?

A

engineering officer

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38
Q

what PMS schedule is a visual display of the work center’s PMS requirements to be performed during a specific 3-month period?

A

quarterly schedule

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39
Q

who signs and dates the PMS Quarterly schedule?

A

engineering officer

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40
Q

who updates the PMS Quarterly schedule weekly?

A

Division officer

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41
Q

how long are PMS Quarterly schedules kept on file?

A

1 year

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42
Q

what PMS schedule is a visual display of planned maintenance scheduled for accomplishment in a given work center during a specific week?

A

weekly schedule

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43
Q

who updates the pms weekly schedule daily?

A

work center supervisor

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44
Q

who signs the pms weekly schedule?

A

division officer

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45
Q

what form provides maintenance personnerl with the means to report discrepancies and problems with the PMS system?

A

PMS feedback report form 4790/7B

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46
Q

who recieves the green copy of the PMS feedback report 4790/7B, and files it?

A

originating work center

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47
Q

who recieves the blue copy of the PMS feedback report 4790/7B?

A

3-M coordinator

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48
Q

when is the current ships maintenance project (CSMP) verified and updated?

A

monthly

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49
Q

what document contains orders for the night, and engineering department standing orders issued by the engineering officer?

A

engineering officer’s night order book

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50
Q

all equipment operating logs are prepared with high-and-low limit set points printed on each reading. all out of limits readings must be handled in what manner?

A

circle the out of limits reading in red, and annotate the action taken in the remarks section

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51
Q

who has the overall responsibilty of the ships tag-out program?

A

CO

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52
Q

who authorizes a system or piece of equipment to be tagged out?

A

authorizing officer

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53
Q

if the system or equipment tagged is placed out of commission, the authorizing officer must get permission from whom, before tagging out?

A

engineering officer and CO

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54
Q

who normally fills out and signs the tag-out record sheet and prepares the tags?

A

petty officer in charge of the work

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55
Q

after the petty officer in charge of the work completes filling out the tags and record sheet who makes an independent check of the tag coverage?

A

second person

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56
Q

when does the second person independently verify proper tag placement, signs the tags, and initials the record sheet?

A

after all tags are attached

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57
Q

what are the two types of tags?

A

caution and danger

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58
Q

what tag is used as a precautionary measure to provide temporary special amplifying instructions or to indicate that unusual caution must be exercised to operate equipment?

A

caution tag

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59
Q

what is the color of a caution tag?

A

yellow

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60
Q

what tag is used to prohibit the operation of equipment that could jeopardize the dafety of personnel or endanger equipment?

A

danger tag

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61
Q

what is the color of the danger tag?

A

red

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62
Q

what labels are used to identify instruments that are out of calibration and may not work properly?

A

out of calibration labels

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63
Q

what color distinguishes an out of calibration label?

A

orange

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64
Q

red labels that are used to identify instruments that do not work properly becuase they are fective or isolated from the system are termed what?

A

out of commission labels

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65
Q

who authorizes out of calibration and out of commission labels?

A

authorizing labels

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66
Q

how often is the tag-out log audited?

A

every 2 weeks

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67
Q

what does the acronym APL stand for?

A

allowance parts lists

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68
Q

what does the acronym AEL stand for?

A

Allowance equipage lists

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69
Q

the navsup form1250 is used onboard what type of ships?

A

nonautomated

70
Q

what navsup form 1250 is used on mechanized (automated) ships?

A

DD form 1348

71
Q

when a repair part is required and no NSN can be determined, the part must be ordered using what form?

A

navsup form 1348-6

72
Q

who approves all supply acquisitions for the engineering department?

A

engineering officer

73
Q

when a repair part is not listed in an APL, complete information on the equipment must be known, what are the three major sources of thsi information?

A

name plate data, technical manuals, blueprints and drawings

74
Q

when the supply material is received, the departmental representative receipts for it on the navsup 1250 and is given what color copy of the form?

A

yellow copy

75
Q

what is one of the primary publications for shipboard use in identifying material and also provides information as to how much of what material to stock aboard ship?

A

Coordinated shipboard allowance list (COSAL)

76
Q

what is the common language of supply material identification?

A

NSN (national stock number)

77
Q

which form is used as a ship submittal of configuration change?

A

4790/ck

78
Q

what publication provides general information on records, tests, inspections and reports?

A

NSTM 090

79
Q

while inport, urgent requirements that are available locally may be procured by use of what?

A

a “bearer” (walk through) requisition

80
Q

what does the job sequence number (JSN) identify?

A

a specific or non specific maintenance action

81
Q

what does it mean, if block 12 of navsup form 1250 is marked NIS?

A

material is not in stock

82
Q

what does it mean, if block 12 of navsup form 1250 is marked N/C?

A

material is not carried on board

83
Q

who designates the fund codes that may be used by each ship and under what circumstances they may be use?

A

type commander

84
Q

what form is designed to serve a dual purpose: as a custody record and an inventory control document?

A

navsup form 306

85
Q

when is it mandatory to use navsup form 306

A

when dealing with controlled equipage

86
Q

what is listed in block 15 of navsup form 1250?

A

JSN

87
Q

how is the requisition date recorded on navsup form 1250?

A

using block 1, record the requisition date as that days julian date

88
Q

proper procedures for tag-out are delineated in what reference?

A

opnavinst 3120.32B

89
Q

if a tag out is requested by a repair activity, the repair actvity representative must sign what, to indicate the repair activity is satisfied with the completeness of the tag out?

A

tag out record sheet

90
Q

why does the authorizing officer notify damage control central (DCC) that a tag out is in progress?

A

to ensure that damage control central is fully cognizant of the extent of the tag out and the status of the material condition of the unit

91
Q

how does the authorizing officer annotate that damage control central (DCC) was notified?

A

annotates upper right hand corner with the words “DCC Notified” followed by the authorizing officer initials

92
Q

who is authorized to attach danger/caution tags?

A

only qualified ships force personnel

93
Q

a completed PMS check is indicated by what on the pms weekly schedule?

A

the pms check is marked completed by a X

94
Q

a pms check that has not been completed during the week is indicated by what?

A

pms check is circled

95
Q

who approves the recopying of a quarterly pms schedule?

A

division officer

96
Q

a pms periodicity code of “M” indicates what?

A

monthly check

97
Q

a pms periodicity code of “W” indicates what?

A

weekly check

98
Q

a pms periodicity code of “S” indicates what?

A

semi annual check

99
Q

a pms periodicity code of “A” indicates what?

A

annual check

100
Q

a pms periodicity code of “R” indicates what?

A

situational requirement check

101
Q

a pms periodicity code of “Q” indicates what?

A

quarterly check

102
Q

a pms periodicity code of “D” indicates what?

A

daily check

103
Q

a pms periodicity code of “2W” indicates what?

A

accomplished every 2 weeks

104
Q

on the pms quarterly schedule what is listed in the “next four weeks” column?

A

all pms requirements due in the next four weeks

105
Q

what does the list of effective pages (LOEP), in the departmental pms manual contain?

A

provides the most current listing of the maintenance index pages (MIP) assigned to each department, divided by work center

106
Q

what is the purpose of the pms maintenance requirement card (MRC)?

A

to provide detailed procedures for performing maintenance requirements and tell who, what, how, and with what resources a specific requirement is to be accomplished

107
Q

what are the 4 inactive equipment maintenance (IEM) PMS periodicity codes?

A

LU-lay up, PM- periodic maintenance, SU- start up, OT- operational test

108
Q

what function does the PMS equipment guide list (EGL) serve?

A

Used with a maintenance requirement card (MRC) when the MRC applies to a number of identical items

109
Q

what action must be taken by maintenance personnel when tools, parts, materials, or test equipment prescribed by the maintenance requirement card (MRC) are not available?

A

notify work center supervisor immediately

110
Q

when maintenance personnel obtain PMS assignments from the weekly PMS schedule, to whom do they report completed and uncompleted actions?

A

work center supervisor

111
Q

when is a PMS feedback report considered urgent?

A

when safety of personnel and equipment are involved

112
Q

how do maintenance personnel verify that the maintenance requirement card (MRC) is up to date and current?

A

by cross checking the MRC to the maintenance index page (MIP)

113
Q

what would a Danger tag with the serial number 9-19 indicate?

A

19th tag of log serial number 9

114
Q

how is the amount of tags needed for a tag out determined?

A

by the use of schematics or diagrams

115
Q

what is done with the Danger/Caution tags after the tag out action is complete and tags are removed?

A

they are immediately removed and destroyed

116
Q

for routine maintenance import, who will normally be the authorizing officer for tag out in the fireroom?

A

EDO

117
Q

information on the operation of the EOSS can be located in what documents?

A

EOSS user’s guide

118
Q

what does the term “blueprint reading” refer to?

A

means the interpreting the idea expressed by other on drawings, whether the drawings are blueprints

119
Q

when preparing blueprints what is the original drawing normally referred to as?

A

master copy

120
Q

a patented paper blueprint identified as “BW” paper will produce what type of print?

A

black lines on a white background

121
Q

what is another term for an ammonia process paper print?

A

ozalid print

122
Q

a type of paper print process that produces a white line on a dark brown background is called what?

A

vandyke print

123
Q

in which corner of a blueprint is the title block located?

A

lower right hand corner

124
Q

what block contains the drawing number?

A

title block

125
Q

in which corner of a blueprint is the revision block located?

A

upper right hand corner

126
Q

how are all blueprints identified?

A

by drawing number

127
Q

what purpose does the revision block serve?

A

used to record all changes to the blueprint, changes are identified by a letter

128
Q

if a blueprint with a drawing number of 456321-A is revised the revised drawing number would be what?

A

456321-B

129
Q

the drawing number is located where in the title block?

A

lower right hand corner

130
Q

what do the reference numbers located in the title block refer to?

A

to number of other blueprints

131
Q

what function do zone numbers serve on blueprints?

A

the same purpose as the number and letters printed on maps to help you locate a particular point

132
Q

what block contains the scale of the blueprint?

A

title block

133
Q

if a blueprint indicates that the scale is 1”=2”, what does this mean?

A

each line on the print is shown one half its actual length

134
Q

if the actual length of an object is 10 inches, what is the length of its drawing on a blueprint with a scale of 2”=1”?

A

5 inches

135
Q

graphic scales are rated in what increments?

A

number of feet or miles represented by an inch

136
Q

how is the triangle architects’ scale read?

A

six scales read from left end, while five scales read from the right end

137
Q

what drawings use engineer’s scales?

A

plotting and map drawing and in graphic solution of problems

138
Q

what scale is divided into centimeters and milliliters?

A

metric scale

139
Q

what block on a blueprint contains a list of the parts and or material used on or required by the print concerned?

A

bill of material block

140
Q

what block on a blueprint identifies directly or by reference the larger units of which the detail part of assembly on the drawing forms a component?

A

application block

141
Q

what are finish marks on blueprint used to indicate?

A

to indicate surfaces that must be finished by machining

142
Q

what is the normal location of the blueprint legend?

A

upper right hand corner under the revision block

143
Q

visible lines on blueprint are indicated by what?

A

heavy unbroken line

144
Q

hidden lines on a blueprint are indicated by what?

A

medium lines with short evenly spaced dashes

145
Q

dimension lines on blueprint are indicated by what?

A

thin lines terminated with arrow heads at each end

146
Q

thin unbroken lines on a blueprint indicate what?

A

extension lines

147
Q

how is the leader line indicated on a blueprint?

A

thin line terminated with arrow head or dot at one end

148
Q

medium series of one long dash and two short sashes every spaced ending with a long dash is an indication of what type of line on a blueprint?

A

phantom or datum

149
Q

what type of plans illustrate the final ship and system arrangement?

A

corrected plans

150
Q

which plans are necessary for the contraction of a ship?

A

working plans

151
Q

what plans illustrate design features of a ship that are mandatory?

A

contract plans

152
Q

what type of plans are submitted prior to award of a contract?

A

preliminary plans

153
Q

what type of plans illustrate equipment or details of equipment?

A

standard plans

154
Q

what are the two health programs you must be concerned with in the engineering plant?

A

heat stress and hearing conservation

155
Q

what causes heat stress?

A

high heat and humidity

156
Q

how often are heat stress readings taken at each watch station or work station in an operating fire room?

A

hourly

157
Q

what is the maximum allowable temperature in any manned and operating engineering space, before you must take a heat stress survey?

A

when the temperature exceeds 100 degrees F

158
Q

how is the temperature monitored hourly in an operating fire room?

A

by dry bulb thermometer

159
Q

radiant heat in the environment is measured with what?

A

globe thermometer

160
Q

what does the acronym WBGT refer to?

A

Wet-Bulb-globe-thermometer

161
Q

what does the acronym PHEL indicate?

A

physiological heat exposure limit

162
Q

the physiological heat exposure limit (PHEL) reading is used to determine what?

A

the maximum time an average individual may work in hot environment and the threshold temperature that induce heat stress

163
Q

personal working in hot climates are subject to the three heat stress conditions which are subject to three heat stress conditions which are?

A

heat cramps, heat stroke and heat exhaustion

164
Q

when a heat stress dry bulb thermometer reading exceeds 100 degrees F in a n operating fire room, who must be notified immediately?

A

EOOW

165
Q

high bilge level, steam leaks, poor insulation will all increase what?

A

heat stress conditions

166
Q

hearing protection must be worn when the sound level reaches what?

A

84 db or greater

167
Q

how are areas exceeding 84 db sound level indicated?

A

by posting warning signs cautioning personnel about a noise hazard

168
Q

what color are the hearing conservation warning signs?

A

yellow

169
Q

double hearing protection must be worn in an area where the noise is at what level?

A

104 db

170
Q

what device(s) are used to conduct a heat stress survey?

A

wet-bulb-globe-thermometer and dry-bulb thermometer

...my Stuff (18 decks)

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