Chapter 14 Common Health Problems of Laboratoy Animals Flashcards

1
Q

Wild-caught animals are likely to carry what kind of ectoparasites?

A

Mites, Ticks, Fleas

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2
Q

Fleas do not infect reptiles.

A

False

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3
Q

The use of antibiotics that are mainly effective against gram positive organisms should be avoided in guinea pigs.

A

True

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4
Q

What are signs of an animal with malocclusion?

A
  • Wetness of the chin and forepaws
  • Weight loss
  • Excess salivation
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5
Q

An early sign of infestation with mites, ticks, and fleas is:

A

Excess scratching

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6
Q

What is the common name for a gastic trichobezoar?

A

Hairball

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7
Q

How is rabies most often transmitted?

A

Bite from an infected animal

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8
Q

Once clinical signs are observed, rabies is almost always fatal>

A

True

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9
Q

Among all animals used in research, which are at the greatest risk for contracting rabies?

A

Wild-caught animals

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10
Q

Treatment for diarrhea often includes anticholinergic and antisecretory drugs.

A

True

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11
Q

What clinical signs would suggest that young mice may have epizootic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM)?

A

Yellow stains around the base of the tail

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12
Q

Which system is primarily affected by Mycoplasma pulmonis?

A

Respiratory

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13
Q

Idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis is caused by protozoan infestation.

A

False, the exact cause has not been determined

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14
Q

Heliobacter spp. are most commonly diagnosed with which technique?

A

Polymerase chain reaction.

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15
Q

All pinworm infections in rodents can be detected by the anal tape test.

A

False

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16
Q

What are the characteristics of epizootic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM) that could affect research results?

A

Reduced weight gain
Greater susceptibility to other infections
Increased mortality

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17
Q

Which agent has been identified as the cause of scaly skin disease in athymic nude mice?

A

Corynebacterium bovis

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18
Q

An immunodeficient mouse that has contracted mouse noroviurs may have pneumonia, hepatits, and meningitis.

A

True

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19
Q

Infection with Mycoplasma pulmonis can result in a severe head tilt.

A

True

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20
Q

Mouse parvovirus causes severe diarrhea.

A

False, it is always subclinical

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21
Q

B57BL/6 and B57BL/10 mice are the strains most likely to be affected by idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis.

A

True

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22
Q

Although rarely seen anymore, Mycoplasma pulmonis can be exacerbated by stress due to overcrowding.

A

True

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23
Q

The most common method used to detect the presence of mouse hepatitis virus (MHV) in a colony is serology testing of sentinels and colony animals.

A

True

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24
Q

Adult mice infected with epizootic diarrhea of infant mice (EDIM) have watery, yellow stools.

A

False

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25
Q

Mice infected by the mouse hepatitis virus:

A

Can cause diarrhea and death in infant mice
The infection can contaminate cell lines and transplantable tumors
Most outbreaks are hard to recognize because the animals show no clear clinical signs

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26
Q

Sialodarcyoadenitis is which type of virus

A

Coronavirus

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27
Q

Characteristics of Mouse parvovirus:

A

It can remain present in the animal’s tissues as a latent infection
It is not easily eliminated from a colony by cessation of breeding
Embryo rederivation is the preferred method of eliminating the virus from a colony.

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28
Q

The female Syphacia pinworm lays its eggs on the perineum: the Aspiculuris tetraptera lays its eggs in the animal’s colon.

A

True

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29
Q

Mycoplasma pulmonis is rarely seen among laboratory rats.

A

True

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30
Q

Pinworm eggs are easy to destroy by chemicals or dessication.

A

False

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31
Q

Helicobacter hepaticus causes inflammatory bowel disease in SCID mice.

A

False, Helicobacter bilus causes inflammatory bowel disease in SCID mice.

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32
Q

Syphacia spp. can be detected by finding eggs on the perineum of the affected animal

A

True

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33
Q

Bacterial pneumonia in guinea pigs is often associated with Bordetella bronchiseptica and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

A

True

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34
Q

Sore nose in gerbils is caused by which kind of pathogen?

A

Bacteria

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35
Q

Which is the best method of preventing bumblefoot?

A

Use a clean, dry substrate.

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36
Q

What causes coccidiosis?

A

Protozoa

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37
Q

Pododermatitis is also known by what name?

A

Bumblefoot

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38
Q

What is the best method of controlling pasturellosis in rabbits?

A

Purchase Pasturella-free rabbits

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39
Q

Pasteurellosis is spread by which routes of transmission?

A
  • Aerosol

- Direct contact

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40
Q

Increased porphyrin secretions from the Harderian glands or high humidity causes what problem in gerbils?

A

Nasal dermatitis

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41
Q

Tyzzer’s disease is effectively treated with sulfa drugs.

A

False

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42
Q

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus (LCMV) is a zoonotic organism found in mice and hamsters.

A

True

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43
Q

What is the best way to prevent canine distemper in ferrets?

A

Vaccination

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44
Q

What are clinical signs associated with Aleutian disease in ferrest?

A
  • Weight loss
  • Tremors
  • Lethargy
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45
Q

How does aplastic anemia develop in female ferrets?

A

If intact females are not allowed to breed, estrogen levels remain high and the imbalance affects the bone marrow.

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46
Q

In which organ of the body are insulinomas found in ferrets?

A

Pancreas

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47
Q

Where are Dirofilaria immitis (heartworms) found in a dog’s body?

A

Right atrium and pulmonary artery

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48
Q

Canine parvovirus is an acute infection affecting which part of the gastrointestinal system?

A

Small intestine

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49
Q

How is heartworm infection spread?

A

Mosquitoes

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50
Q

What can contribute to the development of infectious tracheobronchitits in dogs?

A
  • High density indoor housing
  • High humidity
  • Cold temperatures
51
Q

What type of drugs are used in heartworm treatment?

A
  • Antibiotic
  • Anthelminthic
  • Glucocorticoid
52
Q

An ELISA test can be used to diagnose heartworm infection in dogs.

A

True

53
Q

Canine parvovirus is found only in very young animals

A

False

54
Q

Otitis externa in dogs is always caused by a bacterial infection.

A

False

55
Q

Canine distemper virus often causes fatal respiratory infections in ferrets as well as dogs.

A

True

56
Q

Cleaning and drying the ear canal should always be done for dogs with externa otitis.

A

True

57
Q

Dogs suffering with parvovirus typically have a temperature of at least 40 degrees Celsius.

A

False, puppies usually have a high body temperature, but older dogs do not.

58
Q

What is the condition in cats characterized by frequent, painful, or difficult urination; hematuris; and straining?

A

Feline lower urinary tract disease

59
Q

Excessive grooming in cats can lead to which of the following?

A

Gastic trichobezoars

60
Q

Otitis externa in cats may be associated with infestation by what arthropod?

A

Notoedres cati

61
Q

Medication that raises the pH of the urine is used to treat feline lower urinary tract disease

A

False

62
Q

All personal having contact with nonhuman primates should be vaccinated against which zoonotic contagious disease?

A

Measles

63
Q

Which human virus is a retrovirus that is said to have its origins in nonhuman primates?

A

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

64
Q

An employee who works with nonhuman primates and has been exposed to measles outside of the facility should notify the animal facility supervisor as soon as possible.

A

True

65
Q

To test nonhuman primates for tuberculosis, the tuberculin is injected intradermally in which part of the body?

A

Upper eyelid

66
Q

A bite kit in a facility housing primates should contain which of the following components?

A
  • Wound cleaning instructions
  • Disinfectant
  • Viral culture swabs
  • Sample collection tubes
67
Q

Nonhuman primates are high susceptible to which zoonotic respiratory disease?

A

Tuberculosis

68
Q

In most cases, nonhuman primates contract tuberculosis through contact with?

A

Infected humans

69
Q

Intradermal tuberculin testing is used to test nonhuman primates for tuberculosis

A

True

70
Q

Which zoonotic viral disease often remains asymptomatic in infected macaques and can be fatal in humans?

A

B virus

71
Q

Radiographs are generally not useful in diagnosing tuberculosis in nonhuman primates.

A

True

72
Q

How is rumen stasis generally treated?

A

Administration of warmed saline and electrolytes

73
Q

Which ruminants present the greatest risk of transmitting Q-fever to humans?

A

pregnant or postpartum females

74
Q

Q-fever is only found in sheep.

A

False

75
Q

Coxiella burnetii is the causative agent for which disease?

A

Q-fever

76
Q

Q-fever spreads mainly by inhalation of aerosol.

A

True

77
Q

In rumen stasis, a change in the pH of the rumen results in putrefaction of the feed.

A

True

78
Q

Humans with Q-fever usually have conjunctivitis and blisters around their nose and mouth.

A

False, Q fever humans may be asymptomatic or there may be mild symptoms resembling influenza

79
Q

Contagious ecthyma is a zoonotic disease that can be life threatening to humans.

A

False

80
Q

To reduce the chance of contracting orf, which precaution should always be taken by personnel handling sheep?

A

Wear gloves

81
Q

Orf usually affects humans on their:

A

hands

82
Q

Pasteurellosis may cause septicemia, an infection of the bloodstream.

A

True

83
Q

Laminitis is a condition affecting the:

A

Hooves

84
Q

Coxiella burnetii can easily be eliminated from an animal facility by regular disinfection of the area where ruminants are kept.

A

False

85
Q

What is a common cause of rumen stasis?

A

Sudden change in the diet

86
Q

What are the symptoms that are associated with an infection with Pasteurella multocida?

A
  • Septicemia
  • Mastits
  • Respiratory disease
87
Q

Orf is also known as contagious erythermia.

A

False, Orf is also known as contagious ecthyma

88
Q

Which health problem would cause a pig to appear oblivious to its surroundings and to have seizures?

A

Salt toxicity

89
Q

Porcine circovirus may be transmitted by the aerosol, fecal-oral, and contact routes.

A

True

90
Q

What is the cause of malignant hypothermia in swine?

A

Gene mutation

91
Q

Ich is caused by which pathogen?

A

Ichthypothirius multifilis

92
Q

What disease causes lethargy and excessive mucus and white spots on the skin of the fish?

A

Ich

93
Q

Cutaneous capillariasis can be treated successfully with bactericidal antibiotics

A

False, it can be treated with anthelmintics

94
Q

Chytridiomycosis can lead to a loss of the righting reflex in affected amphibians.

A

True

95
Q

Atabrine and sea salt baths are used in the treatment of velvet disease in fish.

A

True

96
Q

A bacterial septiceimia that occurs frequently in frogs and that can cause erosion of the toes, feet, and jaws is called:

A

Red leg

97
Q

An infection with Pseudocapillaroides xenopi is called:

A

cutaneous capillariasis

98
Q

What pathogen causes velvet disease?

A

Piscinoodinium pillulare

99
Q

What aquatic species disease is caused by a fungus?

A

Chytridiomycosis

100
Q

What fish disease is also known as fin rot?

A

Bacterial gill disease

101
Q

What agent is associated with red leg in amphibians?

A

Aeromonoas hydrophila

102
Q

The difference between hard and soft bloat in amphibians is where the excess fluid is held in the body.

A

True, hard bloat, the fluid is in the body cavity; soft bloat, the fluid is within the body tissues

103
Q

Xenopus with hard bloat can be successfully treated with Epsom salt baths.

A

False

104
Q

Many wild frogs and salamanders have died due to chytridiomycosis.

A

True

105
Q

Which fish disease can be successfully treated using atabrine and sea salts?

A

Velvet disease

106
Q

What is the most common disease of freshwater fish maintained in aquaria in institutional settings?

A

Microporidiosis

107
Q

Which mouse viral infection is considered the most widespread in facilities in the United States and Canada?

A

Mouse norovirus

108
Q

The causative agent for idiopathic ulcerative dermatitis is:

A

unknown

109
Q

Which zoonotic agent can be harbored by hamsters for an extended period of time, often without clinical signs?

A

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus

110
Q

A goat that is staggering and kicking their belly most likely has which condition?

A

Grain overload

111
Q

What type of medication may help eliminate signs of coccidiosis?

A

Sulfa drugs

112
Q

In the rabbit, clinical signs that include nasal discharge and ocular discharge which may stain the forelegs, abscesses, and genital infections may indicate which disease?

A

Pasteurellosis

113
Q

What is a clinical sign of coccidiosis?

A

Altered liver function

114
Q

Guinea pigs housed on wire floors may have inflamed, swollen, and painful feet due to infection with which organism?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

115
Q

Which symptoms are characteristic of microsporidiosis in fish?

A

Emaciation and spinal curvature

116
Q

Which disease in fish is caused by a protozoan species?

A

Ich

117
Q

Which tissue type is used to test for mouse parvovirus?

A

Lymph node

118
Q

What is a major agent involved in feline respiratory disease?

A

Viral rhinotracheitis

119
Q

What is the most common disease of freshwater fish maintained in aquaria in institutional settings?

A

Microsporidiosis

120
Q

Aplastic anemia can be caused by which of the following in female ferrets?

A

Bone marrow suppression from high estrogen levels

121
Q

What treatment may successfully treat aplastic anemia in ferrets?

A

Ovariohysterectomy

122
Q

What disease found in fish can cause nonhealing granuloma ulcers on the skin in humans?

A

Mycobacteriosis

123
Q

What disease is characterized by fish rubbing their sides and flipping around in the corners of the tank?

A

Velvet disease