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Random Stuffs Flashcards

1
Q

what medication is used for treatment of acute panic attack?

A

benzodiazepine e.g. lorazepam

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2
Q

what are the clinical features for acute panic attack?

A 
Shortness of breath
Trembling
Unsteady
Depersonalization/ derealization
Excessive heart rate
Numbness
Tingling
Palpitation
Abdominal pain
Nausea
Intense fear
Chest pain
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3
Q

what can be done for long term relief of panic disorder

A

SSRIs and/or CBT

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4
Q

what are some of the instances that adolescents may be treated without parental consent and are entitled to strict patient confidentiality?

A

contraception
prenatal care
STDs
substance abuse

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5
Q

What are the first line treatments for hypertensive encephalopathy?

A

Nitroprusside and labetalol

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6
Q

What medication is effective in reducing risk of early recurrence of ischemic stroke? And how soon should it be given?

A

Aspirin

Given within 24hrs

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7
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis and treatment when a patient has S3 sound + shortness of breath + tachypnea + hypoxia

A

Left ventricular failure

IV diuretics

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8
Q

What is the difference between mobitz type 1 and type 2 in their level of block

A

Type 1: usually AV node

Type 2: below level of AV node

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9
Q

On ECG findings what is the difference between Mobitz type 1 and Mobitz type 2

A

Type 1: progressive prolongation in PR interval until drop of QRS complex
Type 2: constant PR interval with sudden drop of QRS complex

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10
Q

What is the difference in effect of exercise or atropine in Mobitz type 1 and Mobitz type 2

A

Type 1: improves

Type 2: worsens

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11
Q

What is the difference of vagal maneuvers (carotid sinus massage) on Mobitz type 1 and Mobitz type 2?

A

Type 1: worsens type 1 AV block

Type 2: paradoxically improves type 2 AV block

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12
Q

What is the difference in management of Mobitz type 1 and 2

A

Type 1: observation in asymptotic and correction of reversible causes
Type 2: pacemaker is indicated

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13
Q

What is used as guide for conversion from IV insulin to subcutaneous insulin and how should it be done

A

Anion gap
Overlap subcutaneous insulin with IV insulin for 2 hours after anion gap has closed and then taper off IV insulin gradually

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14
Q

A child with a first-degree relative who suffer from bipolar disorder has a …..-……..% risk of developing the condition in his/her lifetime

A

5-10%

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15
Q

A child whose parents both suffer from bipolar disorder has a ….% risk of developing the condition

A

60%

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16
Q

A monozygotic twin of an individual who suffers from bipolar disorder has a …..% risk of developing the condition

A

70%

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17
Q

Lithium exposure in the first trimester of pregnancy is associated with an increased risk for ……………….

A

Cardiac malformations

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18
Q

Lithium exposure during the second and third trimesters may cause …….. and ……….

A

Goiter and transient neonatal neuromuscular dysfunction

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19
Q

Alarm symptoms indicating endoscopy include:

A
  • anemia
  • blood in stool
  • weight loss
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20
Q

In the esophagus, only ………….. and …………… are diagnosed by biopsy

A

Cancer and Barrett esophagus

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21
Q

The single word “progressive” is the most important clue to diagnosis of ……………….

A

Esophageal cancer

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22
Q

Dysphagia, halitosis and regurgitation of food particles is highly suggestive of ……………

A

Zenker diverticulum

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23
Q

What muscles are involved in zenker’s diverticulum?

A

Posterior pharyngeal constrictor muscles

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24
Q

Mention 3 paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell carcinoma

A
  • SIADH
  • Cushing syndrome
  • Lambert-Eaton syndrome
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25
Q

Typical signs and symptoms of acute diverticulitis : ………,……………, ……….,

A

Fever, leukocytosis, LLQ location of pain

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26
Q

Stevens Johnson Syndrome up to _____of the body surface is involved whereas in Toxic epidermal necrolysis greater than ____ body surface area is involved.

A
  • 10%

- 30 %

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27
Q

_________ is the preferred study for diagnosis of melanoma

A

Excisional biopsy with narrow margins

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28
Q

What is the best treatment for frostbite injuries?

A

Rapid reheating with warm water

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29
Q

What is the mode of transmission of herpes whitlow?

A

Direct inoculation of the virus through broken skin

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30
Q

________ are at increased risk of developing whitlow

A

Health care workers especially those who come in direct contact with orotracheal secretions

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31
Q

_________ is characterized by single or multiple rounded, dome-shaped papules with central umbilication

A

Molluscum contagiosum

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32
Q

What is the best form of treatment of molluscum contagiosum ?

A

Curettage or application of liquid nitrogen

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33
Q

_________ is characterized by painless blisters, increased skin fragility on the dorsal surfaces of the hands, facial hypertrichosis and hyperpigmentation

A

Porphyria cutanea Garda

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34
Q

Porphyria cutanea Tarda is associated with Hepatitis C infection. True / False

A

True

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35
Q

Suspect ____________ in 30-60 year old patients with telangiectasia over the cheeks, nose and chin.

A

Rosacea

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36
Q

What is the initial therapy for rosacea

A

Metronidazole

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37
Q

Warfarin-induced skin necrosis presents with ______ followed by ______ and _______

A

Pain

Bullae formation and skin necrosis

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38
Q

What is the treatment of choice for cellulitis with systemic signs?

A

Intravenous nafcillin or cefazolin

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39
Q

Basal cell carcinoma presents as ________ with __________ and __________

A

Slow growing papule with
Pearly rolled border and
Overlying telangiectasia

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40
Q

______ is characterized by a pale, velvety pink or whitish, hypopigmented macules that do not tan and do not appear scaly but scale on scraping

A

Tinea versicolor

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41
Q

What is the topical treatment sir tinea versicolor?

A

Selenium sulfide lotion and ketoconazole shampoo

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42
Q

Maculae caerulea (hemosiderin-stained purpuric spots) is diagnostic of ____________

A

Body lice infestation

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43
Q

The characteristic lessons of scabies are pruritic vesicles and pustules in “runs” over the _________, ___________ and ___________

A

Finger webs, heels of palms, and wrist creases.

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44
Q

What is the treatment for scabies?

A

5% permethrin cream

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45
Q

What areas are usually spared in scabies?

A

Head, neck, palms and soles

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46
Q

Vitiligo is sometimes associated with other autoimmune conditions such as ___________, ____________, ____________, ______________, _________

A 
Pernicious anemia
Autoimmune thyroid disease 
Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Primary adrenal insufficiency 
Hypopituitarism
Alopecia areata
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47
Q

In addition to a gluten-free diet, _________ is the treatment of choice for dermatitis herpetiformis.

A

Dapsone

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48
Q

The organs that are typically affected in GVHD include ______, _______ and _____

A

Skin
Intestines
Liver

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49
Q

__________ can help reduce the acute worsening of ophthalmopathy after radioactive iodine treatment?

A

Glucocorticoids

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50
Q

Transient vision loss, family history of stroke, and carotid bruit is highly suggestive of ______________

A

Fibromuscular dysplasia

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51
Q

Fibromuscular dysplasia most commonly affects ____________age__-____

A

Women age 15-50

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52
Q

Hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia and increased PTH are characteristic biochemical abnormalities of _________________

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism in chronic renal failure

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53
Q

_____________ is the most common complication of peptic ulcer disease

A

Hemorrhage

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54
Q

All patients with cirrhosis regardless of etiology should undergo ____________________

A

Surveillance for hepatocellular carcinoma with ultrasound every 6 months

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55
Q

Characteristic findings in acute liver failure include: _________, ________ and __________

A

Acute onset of markedly elevated transaminases
Reduced hepatic synthetic function
Encephalopathy

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56
Q

What is the most common cause of hypomagnesemia?

A

Alcoholism

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57
Q

What is given for acute management of symptoms of hyperthyroidism (Graves)?

A

Propranolol

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58
Q

What are the most common initial symptoms of myasthenia gravis?

A

ptosis, diplopia, blurred vision

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59
Q

symptoms of myasthenia gravis worsens during the day. T/F

A

True

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60
Q

what is the test of choice for diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?

A

acetylcholine receptor antibody test

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61
Q

______ is generally characterized by a ratio of AST to ALT >2, elevated GGT and elevated ferritin

A

Alcoholic hepatitis

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62
Q

____________ is a major cause of chronic diarrhea in HIV-infected patients with CD4 counts less than 180 cells/mm3

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

63
Q

What are the two watershed areas of the colon?

A

Splenic flexure

Recto-sigmoid junction

64
Q

The most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in an elderly patient is _________

A

GI blood loss

65
Q

What is the drug of choice for primary biliary cirrhosis?

A

Ursodeoxycholic acid

66
Q

Suspect ___________ in patients with malabsorption, along with a history of living in endemic areas for more than one month.

A

Tropical sprue

67
Q

______________ is characterized by very frequent watery, nocturnal diarrhea.

A

Laxative abuse

68
Q

The diagnosis of __________ can be confirmed with the characteristic biopsy finding of dark brown discoloration of the colon with lymph follicles shining through as pale patches

A

Laxative abuse

69
Q

____________ can worsen or even precipitate tics in patients.

A

Stimulants or dopamine agonists

70
Q

Current guidelines recommend treating all confirmed or suspected influenza within ______ of symptom onset.

A

48 hours

71
Q

splenic abscess often presents with the classic triad of ________

A

fever, leukocytosis and left upper quadrant abdominal pain

72
Q

For patients with profound metformin-induced lactic acidosis use of __________ or _____ is recommended

A

Hemodialysis or sodium bicarbonate

73
Q

The treatment of choice for trichomoniasis vaginitis is __________

A

One 2-mg dose of metronidazole

74
Q

Medication for us heroin intoxication is _________

A

Naloxone

75
Q

Classic triad of spinal epidural abscess:

A
  • fever
  • severe focal back pain
  • neurologic deficits
76
Q

causes of abnormal uterine bleeding

A 
Polyps
Adenomyosis
Leiomyoma
Malignancy/hyperplasia
Coagulopathy
Ovarian dysfunction
Endometrium
Iatrogenic/Infection/Inflammation
Not yet specified
77
Q

What does transient tachypnea of the new born show on CXray

A

Bilateral perihilar linear streaking

78
Q

________ should be susceptibility when a premature infant presents with grunting, flaring and retractions immediately after birth.

A

Respiratory distress syndrome

79
Q

What is the characteristic findings on CXR in respiratory distress syndrome

A

Fine reticular granularity of the lungs

80
Q

What is the treatment for respiratory distress syndrome of premature origin?

A

Early continuous positive air pressure ventilation

81
Q

______ due to ________ and _______ due to _______ are common presentations of fibromuscular dysplasia.

A

Headaches due to internal carotid artery stenosis and secondary hypertension due to renal artery stenosis

82
Q

Adenosine is primarily used for the __________________

A

Acute termination of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

83
Q

___________ is the first-line therapy for stable patients with recurrent episodes of Torsades de pointes

A

Intravenous magnesium

84
Q

The majority of infants with congenital toxoplasmosis are asymptomatic at birth but experience __________ in adulthood due to reactivation of their infection

A

Chorioretinitis

85
Q

How is congenital toxoplasmosis diagnosed?

A

Serology: the presence of infant IgM or IgA

86
Q

Treatment for congenital toxoplasmosis

A

Pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine and folate

87
Q

Nonresponders to bladder training and pelvic floor muscle exercises in urgency incontinence can use _____

A

An antimuscarinic agent to decrease detrusor activity likeoxybutynin

88
Q

___________ is a common cause of chronic anterior knee pain in women

A

Patellofemoral pain syndrome

89
Q

Treatment of patellofemoral pain syndrome includes _______ and _____

A

Strengthening the quadriceps and hip abductors

90
Q

Contraindications to breastfeeding that include _________, _____________, ______________, ___________ and ____________

A

Untreated tuberculosis, varicella infection, herpetic breast lesions, current chemotherapy and active substance use (eg, cocaine, phencyclidine)

91
Q

An arteriovenous fistula allows blood to bypass the high-resistance systemic capillaries, resulting in ________ SVR (afterload), ________ VR (preload) and ______ CO

A

Decreased
Increased
Increased

92
Q

_____________ is a serious postoperative complication that can present with fever, abdominal pain, tachypnea, and tachycardia, usually within the first week after bariatric surgery.

A

Anastomotic leak

93
Q

The diagnosis of anastomotic leak is best confirmed by

A

The diagnosis is best confirmed by oral contrast–enhanced imaging (either abdominal CT scan or upper gastrointestinal series)

94
Q

Unfavorable metabolic side effects of thiazide diuretics include ___________, _________________, and ____________.

A

hyperglycemia, increased LDL cholesterol and plasma triglycerides, and hyperuricemia.

95
Q

Associated hypokalemia suggests severe hypercortisolism and is most often seen with _____________

A

ectopic ACTH-producing tumors

96
Q

Those with CD4 counts >200/mm3 are immunocompetent enough to clear attenuated infections and should receive varicella and MMR vaccinations if titers are low. True/ False

A

True

97
Q

_______ are virtually pathognomonic for gout

A

Uric acid tophi

98
Q

in the absence of microscopic confirmation of crystals, the diagnosis of gout can be made provisionally in patients with _________ and ________

A

Visible tophi and history of episodic monoarthritis

99
Q

________ is the procedure of choice in a patient with massive hemoptysis and what is the purpose

A

Bronchoscopy

Identify the site and attempt early therapeutic intervention

100
Q

Sudden- onset severe abdominal pain with peritonitis and subdiaphragmatic free air on upright CXR is a classic presentation of ________________

A

Perforated viscus (eg. perforated peptic ulcer)

101
Q

_________ is characterized by increased hemoglobin A2 and hgF on electrophoresis

A

Beta-thalassemia major

102
Q

Patients with beta-thalassemia are transfusion- independent. T/F

A

False

103
Q

_________ in children presents with fever, dysphagia, muffled voice and pain with neck extension

A

Retropharyngeal abscess

104
Q

PCOS patients may have infertility due to ______

A

Anovulation from failed follicular maturation

105
Q

_________ antipsychotic medication has a high frequency of prolactin elevation

A

Risperidone

106
Q

__________ is both an antagonist as well as a partial agonist of dopamine D2 receptors

A

Aripiprazole

107
Q

The most common adverse effect of inhaled corticosteroids is __________

A

Oropharyngeal thrush (oral candidiasis)

108
Q

Older patients with a history of chronic antacid use are at risk for __________

A

Vit B12 deficiency

109
Q

___________ have analgesic properties that can be helpful in treating patients with comorbid depression and chronic pain including painful diabetic neuropathy.

A

Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor eh. Duloxetine

110
Q

The diagnosis of _______________ should be suspected in patients with unexplained chronic abdominal pain, weight loss and food aversion

A

Chronic mesenteric ischemia

111
Q

_____ is the most common nutritional deficiency in children

A

iron deficiency

112
Q

children should not be started on cow’s milk until what age?

A

1 year

113
Q

The development of clubbing and sudden-onset joint arthropathy in a chronic smoker is suggestive of _______________

A

Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy

114
Q

A large mediastinal with associated elevations of AFP and beta-hCG is virtually diagnostic of _____________

A

A nonseminomatous germ cell tumor

115
Q

___________ has been found in up to two-thirds of patients with MS and is the most common psychiatric complication.

A

Depression

116
Q

Rapid compression of the duodenum against the vertebral column during blunt abdominal trauma may result in a _____________

A

duodenal hematoma.

117
Q

Splenic sequestration Laboratory testing demonstrates _____________, ______________, and ______________.

A

Normocytic anemia, reticulocytosis and thrombocytopenia

118
Q

__________ is a self-limited disorder of the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII) that sometimes follows a viral upper respiratory infection

A

Vestibular neuritis

119
Q

Vestibular neuritis with unilateral hearing loss is termed __________

A

Labyrinthitis

120
Q

The characteristic ultrasound finding of a ___________________ is an endometrium with a “Swiss cheese” or “snowstorm” appearance.

A

Complete hydatidiform mole

121
Q

The first-line agents for management of essential hypertension during pregnancy are _____________ and ___________

A

Labetalol and methyldopa

122
Q

Atypical glandular cells (AGC) on a Pap test may be due to either ________ or _________

A

cervical or endometrial adenocarcinoma.

123
Q

Evaluation of Atypical Glandular Cells requires ______, _______, _______

A

colposcopy, endocervical curettage, and endometrial biopsy.

124
Q

Once GBS is suspected in a hemodynamically stable patient, the next step in management is to ____________

A

Assess pulmonary function with spirometry

125
Q

_______ should be administered in emergency setting for opioids intoxication

A

Naloxone

126
Q

The primary anti-ischemic and antianginal effects of nitrates are due to _____________

A

Systemic vasodilation

127
Q

Systemic venodilation _______ preload and left ventricular end-diastolic volume, ________ wall stress and myocardial oxygen demand

A

Lowers

Reducing

128
Q

Typical features of ________ include a happy disposition, jerky gait and hand flapping

A

Angelman syndrome

129
Q

Features of ______ include self-mutilating behavior, gout and nephrolithiasis

A

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

130
Q

___________ is characterized by the regression of language skills due to severe epileptic attacks.

A

Landau-Kleffner syndrome

131
Q

Language skill deterioration in Landau-Kleffner syndrome is at age - years

A

3-6 years

132
Q

Management of Pityriasis rosea includes________

A

Reassurance alone and symptomatic management of pruritus

133
Q

___________ is a self-limited exanthem that classically begins with a solitary, large herald path followed by clusters of smaller oval lesions oriented in a “Christmas tree” pattern.

A

Pityriasis rosea

134
Q

Stridor, dysphagia, voice changes and “tripod positioning “ are all signs of _____

A

Increasing upper airway obstruction

135
Q

Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis is characterized by the classic triad of ________, __________, _____________

A

Fever, pleuritic chest pain and hemoptysis

136
Q

CT scan of the chest of a patient with invasive pulmonary aspergillosis usually reveals

A

Nodules with surrounding ground-glass opacities

137
Q

Management of invasive pulmonary aspergillosis

A

1-2 weeks of IV voriconazole + an echinocandin (eg. Caspofungin) and prolonged therapy with oral voriconazole alone

138
Q

______ is a common opportunistic infection that may cause pneumonitis marked by dyspnea, nonproductive cough lo grade fever and (usually) patchy or diffuse ground-glass opacities on CT scan.

A

CMV

139
Q

Muddy brown granular cast is seen in

A

Acute tubular necrosis

140
Q

Broad casts and waxy casts are seen in ___

A

Patients with chronic renal failure

141
Q

RBC casts are indicative of

A

Glomerular disease or vasculitis

142
Q

WBC casts are seen in

A

Cases of interstitial nephritis, pyelonephritis

143
Q

Fatty cast are seen in

A

Conditions causing nephrotic syndrome

144
Q

___________ is the most common malignancy diagnosed in patients exposed to asbestos

A

Bronchogenic carcinoma

145
Q

___________ is a genetic disorder leading to poor platelet-endothelial binding and reduced factor VII levels

A

Von Willebrand disease

146
Q

_______ is an antidepressant with mild stimulant properties that can be particularly helpful for depressed patients with low energy, impaired concentration, hypersomnia and weight gain

A

Bupropion

147
Q

Pt presents with sweating, generalized itching, headaches for 6 wks with weight loss. Hct = 58%; plt 568,00/mm3. Most likely diagnosis and cause

A

Polycythemia Vera

Increased production of erythrocytes

148
Q

Treatment for PCP infection in HIV patient

A

TMP-SMX

149
Q

Best initial test for mastoiditis

A

CT or MRI

150
Q

What confirms the diagnosis of chronic mesenteric ischemia?

A

Mesenteric arteriography

151
Q

What is the definitive treatment of chronic mesenteric ischemia

A

Surgical revascularization

152
Q

___________ typically presents with postmenopausal bleeding and a uterine mass that causes bulk symptoms (eg, pelvic pressure, constipation)

A

Uterine sarcoma

153
Q

Side effect of thiazide diuretics

A 
Hyperglycemia 
Hyperuricemia 
Hyperlipidemia
Hypercalcemia
Hyponatremia

step 2 stuffs (3 decks)

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