Cattle 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Faecal egg count (larval culture) to diagnose nematodes how done, individual or bulk, interpretation and what need to consider, what is important to do - EXAM

A

○ Eggs float in saturated NaCl or ZnSO4 solutions
○ Generally NOT done as a bulk unlike sheep -> treat individually
○ FEC interpretation difficult
§ Large volume of faeces
§ Mixed populations
§ Mixed stages
§ Ostertagia low fecundity; Cooperia very high
□ Higher pathogenicity vs low
□ Cannot differentiate eggs
○ Need to do a larval culture -> hatch eggs and identify the percentage of each larvae present

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2
Q

Plasma pepsinogen in the diagnosis of nematodes what does it measure and therefore disease it detects, what does not detect, what is important factor to note about secretion and drench

A

○ A measure of Ostertagia damage to abomasum
○ In Type I Ostertagiasis only
○ Does not rise with hypobiotic larvae
○ Half-life (days), secretion does not stop immediately
§ Can’t drench and then test efficacy 10 days later with this
§ BUT can be used to determine if parasite an issue EVEN IF been drenched

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3
Q

Bulk milk ostertagia ELISA what is it, what does it detect, where common, how to interpret and what need to consider

A

○ An ELISA is available on vat milk
○ detects the level of parasitism regardless of whether cows are clinically affected or not
○ detects antibodies to Cooperia, Dictyocaulusand Ostertagia
○ Common in NZ; sporadic use in AUS
○ Difficult to interpret
○ Antibodies have a half-life measured in months!

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4
Q

Toxocariasis what is it, main one that is the issue, length, age an issue, what results in and treatment

A

(large roundworm infection)

  • Toxocara vitulorum
  • Up to 30cm long
  • Thick pitted eggs diagnostic
  • Calves 1 -6 months of age
  • Can cross the placenta
  • Normally self -cure
  • No specific treatments usually in Australia
  • Serious in buffalos!
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5
Q

Intestinal cestodes what are they, structures, length, what do they do to host, what drench cannot use

A
  • Tapeworms
  • Scolex and then lots of proglottids
  • Several metres long
  • Only one point of attachment
  • Absorb nutrients directly through skin
  • Don’t do much harm
  • Intermediate host (pasture mites)
  • Not susceptible to MLs unlike nematodes
    ○ Every 2-3 years rotate to drench that deal with tapeworms
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6
Q

What are the 4 main intestinal cestodes and the disease they cause

A

1) Moniezia bendeniand M. expansa
2) Cysticercosis
○ Taenia saginata(Cysticercusbovis)
3) Echinococcus granulosis
○ The most common cause of downgrades in QLD abattoirs
○ Notifiable
○ NZ is hydatidfree (? Tasmania too)
4) Coenurosis cerebralis(Taenia multiceps)

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7
Q

Tremadoes what is the main one, species involved in, general presentation and main time found

A
  • Fasciola hepatica
  • Parasite of all grazing ruminants
  • Also kangaroos, wombats and rabbits
  • Humans too (contaminated water -water cress (ingestion of plant))!
  • Any time but mostly Spring
    Presentation
  • Chronic wasting disease
  • Mostly calves and yearlings
  • Anaemia , weakness, death well described but uncommon
  • Loss of production, weight gain, fertility etc common
  • Condemnation of livers at slaughter
  • Black disease (Cl novyi) & bacilliary haemoglobinuria (Cl haemolyticum
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8
Q

Liver fluke transmission and the 7 steps in lifecycle, how long live for

A

Intermediate hosts
- Lymnea tomentosa (native)
- L columella (introduced)
- Both live in bodies of water
Pathogenesis
1. Ingestion of encysted metacercariaeon forage or while drinking
2. > immature flukes in small intestine (1mm)
3. Burrow through intestinal well
4. Migrate through peritoneum to liver
5. Penetrate liver (4 -5 days)
6. Feed and migrate in parenchyma for 5 -8w
7. Move to bile ducts where they lay eggs
○ 10,000 eggs per day
- Live 6mo -2 years

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9
Q

Acute fluke disease and chornic fluke disease clinical signs and what occurs

A

Acute Fluke Disease
- Large numbers of migrating juvenile fluke common in sheep
- Blood loss associated with feeding of adult fluke more a problem in cattle
- Anorexia, weakness, reluctance to move
- Hypochromic but normocytic anaemia with eosinophilia
Chronic disease
- Can be subclinical to clinical
- Adults in bile ducts
- 5-10% drop in milk yield with low burden
- 54 fluke caused 9% growth rate decrease
- 300 -400 fluke caused anaemia and hypoproteinemia - bottle jaw

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10
Q

Liver fluke diagnosis what are the 3 main ones

A

1) faecal egg count
2) antibody ELISA
3) post-mortem - find flukes, scarring

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11
Q

Faecal egg count for diagnosis of liver fluke how to perform, what is high, main issues

A

○ Do not float well in normal solutions
○ Many labs use sedimentation techniques
○ Very dense solutions can cause osmotic collapse of eggs
○ Most cattle <10 epg; >100 is very high
Main issues
○ False negatives due to pooling in gall bladder
○ Low sensitivity of bulk egg counts
Only detects adult fluke infection (12w after infection)

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12
Q

Antibody ELISA for diagnosis of liver fluke sensitivity, what detects, in what samples and what useful for

A

○ Sensitivity of 97.5% reported (cf~70% for FEC)
○ Detects non-patent infections (from 14d)
○ Blood, milk or bulk milk
○ Useful as a screening test for a group of animals
§ Ostertagia not good, fluke one is

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13
Q

Treatment/prognosis for liver fluke

A
  • Prognosis good if diagnosed and treated early
  • Liver damage can be permanent though
  • Various anthelmintics - depends what they are using locally that works
  • Effectiveness varies with life cycle stage
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14
Q

Control of liver fluke

A
  • Difficult to control intermediate host
  • Common program:
    ○ Fasinexin autumn
    § Control immature and mature fluke
    ○ Then again in late winter/early spring
    § Reduce contamination
  • Fasinex highly effective against many stages
    ○ But it has a milk withholding period
  • Drench lactating cows at drying off
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15
Q

Lungworm what is the parasite called, general presentation, results in, diagnosis, how common and how controlled

A
  • Dictyocaulis viviparus
  • Wide distribution
    ○ Mostly young stock (classically <10 mo)
    ○ “Coughing calves that are not sick”
  • Severe infections can result in death
    ○ Secondary infections are bad too
  • Severity related to infective larvae on grass
    ○ Larvae are excreted in the faeces
    § Can’t do a fecal float! -> L1 not egg
    § Baermann technique
  • Used to be a common diagnosis
    ○ Less so now because MLs are very effective treatment
    ○ BZ’s “aid in control” - every day for 3 days - NOT DONE
  • Nowadays, normally controlled by routine drenching as MLs commonly used and pre-patent period greater than ostertagiaet al.
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16
Q

What are the 3 main treatment of parasites in general

A
  1. Anthelmintic drugs
    - selective drenching to reduce resistance
  2. Grazing/Management strategies
  3. Management of resistance
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17
Q

In terms of anthelmintics for parasite treatment what are the 3 main groups and types within

A
1) “White Drenches”
○ Benzimidazolesand pro-benzimidazoles
2) “Clear Drenches”
○ Levamizole
○ (Morantel)
3) “MLs” or “ Mectins”
○ Macrocyclic Lactones
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18
Q

White drenches for parasite treatment, types, characteristics, how act, main issues and does it get larval and hypobiotic stages

A
  • First modern broad -spectrum drenches - all oral
  • Oxfendezole , fenbendezole, albenazole
  • Febantel
  • Low level of toxicity; possibly teratogenic
  • Poorly soluble –mostly oral administration
  • Absorption is slow –which is important
  • Act by starving the worms –takes time
  • Resistance
    Acts against hypobiotic and larval stages
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19
Q

Clear drenches and MLs main examples, mechansim of action, how given, what need to be cautious of

A
  • Acts against hypobiotic and larval stages
    2. Clear Drenches
  • Levamisole
  • Reversible cholinergic agonist -> paralysis
    ○ Paralysing hyopbiotic larvae transiently not very useful! - NOT FOR HYPOBIOTIC
  • Limited use where worms are a problem …
    3. Macrocyclic Lactones
  • Act on all stages of life cycle
  • Pour -on or injection
  • Prolonged action
  • Dangerous to fish and aquatic life - need to be careful about where they are used
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20
Q

When choosing a drench what things need to consider and what is the best drench for calves but considerations

A
  • Target nematodes and resistance
  • Price
  • Withholding periods
  • Duration of action
  • Application method
  • Resistance
    The best drench for dairy calves - dectomax injectable
  • But would you find a return on investment????
  • Cooperia -> advantage over the others for this but this isn’t that pathongenic
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21
Q

Withholding periods what present on anthelmintics and what important about them

A
  • Anthelmintics have
    ○ Meat withholding periods
    ○ Milk withholding periods
    ○ ESIs (Export Slaughter Intervals) - often different to withholding period
  • These vary between brands and formulations
  • They can be quite long (42 days!)
  • ALWAYS READ THE LABELS !
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22
Q

When to drench dairy cows and beef cattle

A
Dairy 
○ Calves
§ from 3 weeks after exposure to pasture
§ every 4 to 8 weeks until 1yo (can do fecal egg count and larval culture if eggs are present) 
§ at joining
○ Heifers
§ A couple of summer drenches
○ Cows
§ depends who you ask !!
□ standard recommendation “drench at calving”
□ drying off  - due to the meat withholding period 
□ Calving ?
Beef 
- first summer before calving
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23
Q

Drench resistance which parasites an issue, what is the main way to reduce, 3 sources arise and how to apply on dairy farms

A

○ Especially Cooperia
○ But increasingly in Ostertagia
- REFUGIA
○ If have a subpopulation of parasites that have not been exposed to anthelmintic then average level of resistance on the farm with reduce
○ Arise from 3 sources
§ Free living stages on pasture
§ Untreated animals -> don’t treat the entire mob
§ Inhibited/encysted larvae -> depending on the drench used
○ How to apply on dairy farms
i. Move to clean pasture let there be contamination then drench
□ Next set of warm eggs ingested will not be selected for resistance
□ OTHERWISE -> if drench then move, the paddock contaminated will have all resistant worms to the drench
ii. AND/OR Selective treatment of individuals - don’t treat the healthy looking animals
□ Saves money so more appetising

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24
Q

Pour-ons and combination anthelmintics what are the current issues/recommendations

A

A note on pour-ons
- High proportion (>60%) absorbed via licking
- High between animal variability (sub -therapeutic levels?)
- RESIDUES!!!!
Combination anthelmintics
- Useful from an anthelmintic resistance perspective:
○ Effective in the face of drench resistance
○ Slow the development of resistance
○ Eclipse (pour-on) -abamectin + levamisole
○ Trifecta (oral) –abamectin + levamisole + oxfendazole

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25
Q

Quarantine drenching how should be performed properly

A
  • Administer a combination (as many actives as possible) upon arrival
  • Quarantine animals for 3-4days (as eggs in the intestines not affected) on quarantine paddock where no other animals going to go on
  • By 10-14 days should be no more eggs coming out - do faecal egg reduction test - ensure drench working no resistance
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26
Q

Management of anthlemintic resistance how done

A
  • Ensure your farmers get the basics right
    ○ Accuracy of the drenching gun - needs to be calibrated
    ○ Weighing the animal to determine dose rate -> reasonable guess of weight and dose based on the HEAVIEST
  • Implement key concepts:
    ○ Refugia -to be done when HAVE resistance
    ○ Stay away from pour-ons
    ○ Combination drenches
    ○ Quarantine
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27
Q

What are the 4 main effects of diarrhoea

A
  • Dehydration
  • Electrolyte imbalance
    ○ loss of bicarbonate
    ○ acidosis -> hyperkalaemia (compensate for loss of bicarbonate) - heart will stop
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Hypoproteinaemia
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28
Q

Bovine virus diarrhoea what type of virus and the 2 main types and what worried about

A
  • Bovine pestivirus - bovine viral diarrhoeal virus
    ○ Noncytopathic (NCP)
    ○ Cytopathic (CP)
    § Note: The distinction between NCP and CP is laboratory based (what it does to cells in cell culture) and is not correlated with clinical pathogenicity
    Worried about naive infection in pregnant dam -> different effects <100, 100-150d, >150d
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29
Q

List 4 main causes of non-parasitic diarrhoea

A

1) bovine virus diarrhoea virus (PI)
2) salmonella
3) yersinosis
4) Johne’s disease

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30
Q

Bovine virus diarrhoea acute disease in naive animals, mortality, clinical disease type, what occurs afterwards and how transmitted

A
  • High morbidity. Low mortality.
  • Short clinical disease
    ○ Mild, subclinical or not observed
  • Seroconvert and are subsequently immune
  • More severe form exists
    ○ Genotypic difference… BVDV II - but rare
  • Transmitted
    ○ Horizontally (oronasal)
    ○ Vertically (intra-uterine)
    ○ Iatrogenic (vaccines and other biologicals - contaminated with Pestivirus)
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31
Q

Bovine virus diarrhoea virus in utero infection (naive dam) at < 100 days what occurs

A

(no foetal immune system)
○ Embryonic or foetal death in ~30%
§ Return to service and absorption, if later than possible signs of abortion
○ Surviving calves
§ immuno-tolerant (thinks that virus is self) and
§ persistently infected (PI) - IMPORTANT CARRIER

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32
Q

Bovine virus diarrhoea in utero infection (naive dam) at 100-150 days what occurs

A
○ Could be born normal 
○ Viral damage to developing organs
§ especially CNS
○ May be PI (persistently infected) or have high Ab levels
Congenital Defects
§ CNS defects:
□ Cerebellar hypoplasia
□ Hydranencephaly
□ Spinal hypomyelinogenesis
§ Ocular defects:
□ Microphthalmia
□ Cataracts - if have cloudy calf eye - THINK THIS
□ Optic neuritis
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33
Q

Bovine virus diarrhoea virus in utero infection (naive dam) at >150 days what occurs

A

○ Usually no clinical effect on foetus
○ Transitory, mild effect on dam
○ Virus free
○ Seroconverted to pestivirus

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34
Q

Persistently infected calves with pestivirus what is the disease called, what occurs

A

Mucosal disease
- ALWAYS FATAL -generally younger animals
generally low numbers affected
- progressive diarrhoea
- Disease occurs with simultaneous CP and NCP infection
○ Persistency infected with one strain and then infected with the other OR mutation of that strain - why they become clinical - not 100% sure
- acute or chronic forms

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35
Q

Persistently infected calves with pestivirus what is the main presentation and results

A
  • skinny, poor coat, oil scours
  • ill-thrifty calves
  • erosions in the mouth, gums, teeth and hard palate,
  • sharp pointy feet - infected coronary band
  • Thrombocytopaenia with bleeding in immuno-competent animals - petechiae bleeding
  • Increased susceptibility to other pathogens - immunocompromised - issue for feedlots
  • Reduced conception rates
  • Embryonic loss
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36
Q

What are the 4 main laboratory diagnostic techniques for pestivirus and what 2 main ones use and how

A
1. Virus isolation 
○ Buffy coat of whole blood 
○ Lymphoid organs
2. Antigen detection
○ Capture ELISA
○ Ear notch test
○ Positive -> PI or infected 
3. Serology
○ Antibody detection using ELISA or SN
○ Antibody negative -> PI OR in early stages of BVB (need two pair samples)
4. PCR
○ Scope for use as screening of herds dt -> sensitivity
DO antigen and serological testing -> distinguish between PI and infected
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37
Q

Control/prevention of pestivirus on a farm what are the 3 main ways

A

1) Elimination of PI animals
○ Do serology antibody test (cheaper than antigen) first -> if positive then NOT PI if negative then could not be exposed or PI so then do antigen testing on these (more expensive so lower population) if positive then PI -> cull
2) Controlled exposure
○ Ensure exposure prior to pregnancy - how to control?
§ Vaccination OR use PI as natural vaccinator -> just expose to a herd -> not that effective
3) Vaccination
§ “Pestigard” inactivated vaccine (poorer protection but immunosuppressed), 2 strains, 2 shots prior to joining then annual boosters.
□ NEED TO KEEP DOING OTHERWISE VULNERABLE POPULATION (as ubiquitous in environment cannot eradicate from the environment)
§ Label claim to ↓ repro losses

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38
Q

Salmonellosis what are the main species involved and transmisssion

A
  • S. enterica subsp enterica
    ○ Lots of serotypes
  • S. Typhimurium and S. Dublin (abortion) most common
    ○ Also S. Bovismorbificans, S. Newport, S. Zanzibar, S. Montevideo…
  • Transmission primarily via faecally contaminated water
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39
Q

What is the transmission and carries for S. dublin and S. typhimurium

A
Epidemiology of S. Dublin
- Host-adapted to cattle
- Many cattle are subclinical carriers
○ Excretion increases during times of stress - calving, drought 
- Endemic in herds
○ outbreak then sporadic cases
- More common in irrigation areas
Epidemiology of S. Typhimurium
- Shed by many species
○ (eg rodents and birds - if they get into silos and faecal contamination of feed) 
- Infections do not persist in cattle
- Not endemic, but outbreaks may be prolonged
○ Spikes of infection
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40
Q

What are the 3 main clinical presentations of salmonella infection and the clinical signs within

A
1) Acute/Peracute Septicaemia
○ Often found dead
○ More common in calves
○ Peripheral gangrene
§ ears, tail and hooves
2) Acute enteritis
○ Anorexia, reduced milk production, pyrexia, depression
○ Profuse, putrid diarrhoea ± dysentery
○ Abdominal pain
○ Dehydration, recumbency, death
3) Abortion may occur subsequently
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41
Q

Zoonotic potential of salmonella and how else important

A
- Acute gastroenteritis
○ abdominal pain
○ vomiting and diarrhoea
○ Dehydration
- BEWARE PPE - client and your own 
- NOTIFIABLE IN VICTORIA WITHIN 7 DAYS
42
Q

Diagnosis of salmonella

A
  • Absence of diarrhoea at the beginning doesn’t rule it out
  • Faecal culture
    ○ May be negative in early stages of disease
    ○ Typing provides epidemiological information
  • Autopsy
    ○ Culture
    ○ Histopathology
43
Q

Salmonella treatment

A
  • Need to be EARLY and AGGRESSIVE
    ○ Parenteral antibiotics
    ○ Farmer instituted (early) Tx under guidance
  • Choice of antibiotic based on C&S - on the area (Gippsland oxytetracycline)
    ○ Trimethoprim/Sulphonamide
    ○ Tetracyclines
    Supportive Therapy
  • Fluids
    ○ Oral supplemented with electrolytes
    ○ Intravenous for acidosis (NaCl/H2CO3)
    ○ NEED LOTS - 50L -> water, electrolytes/salts
44
Q

Salmonella control short and long term

A
  • Short term
    ○ Treat clinical cases
    ○ Improve hygiene to reduce challenge
    ○ Do not send suspect animals to slaughter - contamination risk
    ○ Inactivated vaccine available - not really used
    § “Bovilis S” some value in face of outbreak but not for sporadic cases?)
  • Long Term
    ○ Closed herd - strict biosecurity
    ○ Vaccination ?
45
Q

Yersiniosis season, age, importance and pathogenesis

A
  • Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
  • Seasonal - usually Winter/Spring
  • Usually in younger stock (6 - 24 months)
  • Can be isolated from normal animals
  • Zoonotic potential
    Pathogenesis
  • Transmitted by faecal-oral route
  • Affected calves shed large numbers of bacteria
  • Disease occurs with
    ○ high challenge
    ○ immuno-compromisation
46
Q

Yersiniosis clinical signs and diagnosis with other possible differentials

A

Clinical Signs
- Morbidity varies, but mortality usually low
- Mild fever, inappetance and lethargy
- Diarrhoea is grey/green ± blood
- Found dead; Die over a few days; or Recover
Diagnosis
- Faecal culture (can be hard to interpret)
- Histopathology
○ differentiates pathogenic infection
- DDx:
○ Salmonellosis, Coccidiosis, Ostertagiasis, Paramphistomiasis

47
Q

Johne;s disease how important, cause, transmission and prevalence

A
  • A major disease of dairy cattle in Victoria
  • Mycobacteria paratuberculosis (“M paraTB”, “BJD”)
    § There is evidence that beef cattle can be infected when co-grazing with OJD infected sheep
  • also occurs in goats, alpacas ….
    Prevalence
  • Worldwide
  • In Australia
    ○ Low prevalence in Qld, NT
    ○ WA claims to be free
    ○ Victoria has ~20% dairy herds confirmed affected
    § Much lower prevalence in beef herds
48
Q

Johne’s disease importance on the farm level

A
  • Incidence of clinical disease is low
  • More serious for stud herds - decrease value of animals - potential biosecurity risk
  • May devalue property on sale - if someone asks about Johne’s disease you have to say YES I HAVE HAD IT, don’t need to advertise though
  • Subclinical disease may reduce production
    Crohn’s disease in humans - NO ZOONOTIC POTENTIAL WE THINK
49
Q

Johne;s disease transmission, infection, incubation and when get clinical disease

A
  • Transmission
    ○ Ingestion of faeces
    § Likely to be infected via faecal contents at birth
    ○ In utero (in clinical cases)
  • Infection occurs in young animals CALVES
  • Long incubation period -> do not show clinical signs until older
  • Preclinical/Carriers
    ○ shed bacteria for long periods of time
    ○ hard to detect using laboratory tests
  • Clinical disease is often initiated by periods of stress (ie early lactation)
50
Q

Clinical signs of Johne’s disease in cattle

A
  • Clinical disease occurs in older animals
  • Chronic wasting -> unable to absorb food
  • Bright and alert, with good appetite
  • Profuse, green, oily/bubbly diarrhoea
  • Hypoproteinaemia with dependent oedema
    ○ Ventral and bottle jaw
  • Gradual debility and collapse -> wasting away
51
Q

Diagnostics for Johne’s disease identification

A
Lab Tests
- Faeces
○ Demonstration of acid-fast organisms
○ Culture of bacteria (prolonged incubation) - takes weeks to months to grow - NOT GOOD WAY TO DO IT 
○ Herd Environment Culture (herd pooled)
○ PCR
- Serology
○ ELISA
○ Agar Gel Diffusion
○ CFT
More Tests
- Cell mediated immunity
○ Skin testing, Gamma-interferon
- Tissue sampling
○ Ileocaecal valve and associated lymph nodes
52
Q

How to use combination testing for Johne’s disease identification

A
  • Use of multiple tests in series or parallel can provide better test performance in populations.
  • In series (Dx ‘+ve’ only if both tests are +ve)
    ○ gives high specificity
    § used for early stages of voluntary control programs (where you don’t want to incorrectly call a ‘clean’ herd ‘infected’)
  • In parallel (Dx ‘+ve’ if either test is +ve)
    ○ gives high sensitivity
    § used for import control by JD free areas (where you don’t want to inadvertently introduce an infected animal)
  • Still detection of pre-clinical STILL HARD
53
Q

Treatment of Johne’s disease

A
  • Don’t treat cows with Johne’s Disease
  • Positive reactors to slaughter
  • Clinical cases to knackery - no meat on them
54
Q

Control of Johne;s disease if you don’t have it in your herd

A
○ Minimise the risk of introduction
§ Don’t introduce animals into the herd
§ Source introduced animals from low risk herds
○ Prevent spread if it is introduced
§ Detect infected adults and remove them
§ Manage calves to reduce exposure
□ Reduce exposure to adult faeces
□ Vaccinate ?
• Silirum is a killed vaccine for cattle
• Registered in Australia in 2014
• Reduces faecal shedding, and also clinical cases
• Vet only product, under some limitations
• OH&amp;S !!
55
Q

Control of Johne’s disease if you have got JD in your herd

A
○ Prevent spread
§ Detect infected adults and remove them
§ Manage calves to reduce exposure
§ Reduce exposure to adult faeces
□ Vaccinate ?
○ Minimise the risk of further introduction
§ Don’t introduce animals into the herd
§ Source introduced animals from low risk herds
56
Q

What is the main program for controlling Johne’s disease, aim and programs within

A
National JD Control Program 
- Aim 
○ Limit the spread between areas and properties 
○ Reducing the impact in affected animal groups 
- BJD Zoning
○ CTAS (Cattle Trade Assurance Scheme)
- JDMAP (JD Market Assurance Program)
- JDCAP (JD Calf Accreditation Program)
- TCP3 (Test and Cull Program v3)
57
Q

What disease is faecal culture good for

A

Salmonella, E.coli possibly

58
Q

A cow is down with ruminal acidosis what fluid give and why

A

2 L of hypertonic fluids and 20 L of water orally - could also do this
OR - 2 L of hypertonic fluids and 20 L of water with 200g NaHCO3
Isotonic fluids - providing increase in fluid without movement from any spaces
Hypertonic fluids - placing molecules into vein, interstitial space volume then moves into veins - works quicker than isotonic solutions
○ Making dehydration worse - DON’T USE IN A DEHYDRATED ANIMAL
○ USE IN SHOCK

59
Q

A cow has Toxic mastitis, down, also needs fluid resuscitation what give in certain situations

A

NOT DEHYDRATED - 2 L of hypertonic fluid IV and 20 litres of electrolyte solution orally (or just 20L water orally if not electrolyte solution)
DEHYDRATED - 5 L hartmans (isotonic) IV over 20mins
Assess hydration status clinically

60
Q

CASE - 7 year old cow who has a severe diarrhoea chronic, eating well, production good
List 6 likely differentials and why or why not works

A
  1. Salmonella - except to be sick
  2. Liver fluke - bottle jaw, hypoproteinaemia
  3. Johne’s disease - CLASSIC - chronic wasting disease
  4. Simple indigestion - time period a bit long, signs of bloat and changes in abdomen
  5. E.coli scours - CALF THING
  6. BVD (bovine virus diarrhoea) - generally die before 7 years, adults are immune, calves that aren’t will die quickly
61
Q

Once suspected Johne’s disease case what are the 3 next steps

A
  1. Take a blood sample for Johne’s ELISA
  2. Notify the department
  3. Advise the farmer to destroy her humanely on farm and send to knackery if possible condemned
62
Q

Non-regenerative anaemia what percentage cow blood, red blood cell lifespan and therefore what need to be careful of

A
  • Cows are about 8% Blood
  • A red blood cell lasts on average 150- 160 days so non-regenerative anemias develop slowly
  • It can take 3 -4 days after a bleed for PCV drop and for reticulocytes to appear so test twice before calling it non-regenerative
63
Q

Regenerative and non-regenerative anaemia types within and potential causes

A

Regenerative
- Low protein = bleeding
○ Parasites, ulcers, caudal vena caval syndrome, bracken fern poisoning
- High protein = haemolysis
○ Lepto, clostridia, tick borne diseases, post-parturient hemoglobinuria, brassica/plant poisonings, sporidesmin, zinc toxicity
Non-regenerative
- Macrocytic, normochromic
○ Cannot produce DNA quickly enough to divide at the right time. B12 deficiency
- Normocytic normochromic
○ Just running out of cells –bone marrow problems-primary or secondary –chronic disease
- Microcytic, hypochromic
○ possibly chronic blood loss (eg parasites)

64
Q

Bracken fern and parasites how lead to anaemia and what occurs with chronic regenerative anaemia

A
  • Bracken fern poisoning –bone marrow stops working, but the main clinical sign is blood loss
  • Parasites–cause blood loss but can become non-regenerative due to iron deficiency
  • Actually, any chronic regenerative anaemia will eventually become non-regenerative due to iron deficiency
65
Q

What are the 4 main causes of anaemia and causes within

A
  1. Haemorrhagic disease
    ○ milk vein laceration, uterine artery laceration, abomasal ulceration, bracken fern poisoning, enzootic haematuria(chronic bracken), parasites
  2. Haemolytic disease
    ○ Post-parturient Hb, plant poisonings, tick diseases, lepto, Cu/Zn toxicities, clostridia
  3. Deficiency disease
    ○ Iron, Copper, Cobalt, Selenium/VitE, Magnesium
  4. Non-regenerative disease
    ○ Bracken, liver disease, lead poisoning
66
Q

Haemorrhage what causes acute ad chronic blood loss

A
- Acute blood loss
○ milk vein laceration
○ uterine artery laceration
○ Abomasal ulceration
○ acute bracken fern poisoning
- Chronic blood loss
○ enzootic haematuria(chronic bracken)
○ Parasites
67
Q

Milk vein and uterine artery laceration what lead to and treatment

A

Regenerative anaemia - haemorrhage
Milk vein laceration
- Compression needed before you get there
- Cut either side of the milk vein laceration
Uterine artery laceration
- Ligation of the artery if possible and removal or uterus
- Pale, Dying of blood loss

68
Q

Bracken fern poisoning what are the 2 forms, when occurs generally

A
  • Acute and chronic disease forms seen
    ○ Acute = non-regenerative
    ○ Chronic = regenerative
  • Feed source not favoured by stock
  • Forced to eat when good pasture is limited
  • Young and juicy fern shoots most appealing and toxic
  • 2-8 weeks grazing minimum for toxin to take effect
69
Q

Acute bracken fern toxicity age, what does it do and clinical signs

A
  • Youngstock e.g. recently weaned calves →2 y/o
  • Bone marrow toxin
    ○ Suppresses all cell lines
  • Results in pancytopenia
    ○ Thrombocytopaenia - shortest lifespan so will have an issue with these first
    ○ Anaemia
    ○ Leukopaenia
  • Pancytopenia leads to
    ○ Haemorrhage
    ○ Increased susceptibility to infection
  • Clinical Signs
    ○ Weak, ↑ Temperature (41-43°C)
    ○ Mucus membranes
    § Pale, Petechiation
    ○ Haemorrhage from body orifices e.g. mouth, nose, eyes or vagina, bloody diarrhoea
    ○ Harsh breathing (lung haemorrhage)
    ○ ↑HR (anaemia)
    ○ Often die in a few days
70
Q

Acute bracken fern toxicity treatment and pathognomonic feature

A

○ Remove stock from bracken fern area immediately
○ Medicate with
§ Antibiotics (prevent secondary infections)
§ Haematinics (e.g. Vitamin B12, iron)
○ ** petechial haemorrhages in calves is nearly pathognomonic for bracken fern poisoning **
○ **NB Many cattle will still become ill up to 6 weeks later

71
Q

Chronic bracken fern toxicity what also called, age, what results in, clinical signs and treatment

A
enzootic haematuria 
- Chronic toxicity
- Older cattle
- Urinary bladder tumour 
- Less common presentation
- Clinical signs
○ Haematuria (Ddx-Haemoglobinuria)
○ Urine containing blood that clots - PATHOGNOMONIC NEARLY 
- No treatment
72
Q

What are the 4 important diseases that lead to regenerative anaemia via haemolysis

A
  1. Post parturient haemoblobinuria
  2. Brassica and other plant (onion) poisoning
  3. Tick associated diseases
  4. Leptospirosis
73
Q

Post-parturient hemaglobinuria main finding, when occur, associated with, results from and treatment

A
  • “red water” - CLASSIC RED URINE DISEASE OF CATTLE
  • 10 days to 6 weeks after calving
  • Can become very anaemic
  • Associated with various things - Phosphorus deficiency (high producing dairy cow), green oats, sub-clover
  • Increased blood cell fragility
  • Treat –phosphorus (iv or orally (powder), blood transfusions (5L IV)
74
Q

Brassica toxicity what lead to, types of forage within, what regions grow in, why used and results from toxicity

A
Haemolytic anaemia
- Forage brassicaee.g.
○ Forage rape/canola
○ Leafy turnip, Kale
○ Turnips, Swedes
- Grown in cool temperate regions and sown in Spring / late Summer
○ High quality feed for summer/autumn when pasture quality is low
- Quick and abundant feed
○ High digestibility
○ High energy
○ High protein
- Results 
○ Haemolytic anaemia
○ Photosensitisation
○ Carbohydrate overload
○ Choke/Bloat
○ GIT upset
○ Polioencephalomalacia
75
Q

Brassica toxicity anaemia which worse with, why and when

A
○ Most common with kale
○ Caused by excess levels of amino acid compound S-methyl L-cysteine sulphoxide(SMCO)
○ Worse when soil minerals are
§ Low phosphorous
§ High nitrogen
§ High sulphur
76
Q

Brassica toxicity at what point are the more toxic, clinical signs and treatment

A
  • Plants become more toxic as they mature with flowers/seeds most toxic (when go purple, much variation between years, species)
  • Problems more likely if crops make up a large part of the diet for a long period
  • Clinical Signs
    ○ Lethargy & weakness
    ○ Depression
    ○ Anorexia
    ○ Red urine (haemoglobinuria)
    ○ Pale mucus membranes
    ○ Dyspnoea
    ○ ↑HR
  • Treatment
    ○ No specific treatment
    ○ Remove cows from brassica crop pastures
    ○ Medicate with
    § Haematinics (e.g. Vitamin B12, iron)
    § Blood transfusion (if anaemia severe)
77
Q

Prevention of brassica toxicity - EXAM

A

Good Grazing Management
○ Restrict grazing to 1-2 hours per day (strip grazing)
○ Slowly increase to unrestricted access over 7-10 days
○ Never give hungry animals the chance to gorge themselves
§ Giving hay/silage and grain within dairy FIRST then place onto summer pasture so not hungry
○ Increased care when grazing more mature plants (i.e. purple/reddish/ bronzed leaf colouration) or urea-treated crops
○ Provide hay/pasture to limit brassica intake
○ Brassica less than 1/3 of total diet - THIS

78
Q

What are the 3 main tick-borne haemoparasitic infections, where located, what cause and what is the 4th emerging disease

A
- 3 tick-borne haemoparasitic infections
○ Babesia bovis(protozoa)
○ Babesia bigemina(protozoa)
○ Anaplasma marginale(rickettsia)
- Tropical diseases
- Cause ‘tick fever’
- 4th emerging, non-tropical disease
○ Theileria sp. (protozoa)
79
Q

haemoparasitic infections location in queensland and how important and effects

A
  • part of Queensland is declared as a tick free zone and the remainder as a tick infested zone
    ○ Ticks are notifiable in QLD
    ○ “GBO –General Biosecurity Obligation”
    ○ Restrictions/requirements when moving cattle through the tick free zone
    ○ Even to an abattoir!
  • Effects
    ○ during outbreak 5% death, abortions, lose condition, high fever may result in toxic sperm event, decrease milk production
    ○ Live cattle export markets might be lost for 6 to 12 months after a tick fever outbreak. This can be far more costly than the outbreak.
80
Q

Babesia what are the 2 species in aus, how to differentiate, which is most common with pathogenicity and vector

A
  • Babesia bovis and B. bigemina cause babesios is in Australia
    ○ Differentiate via blood smear
  • B. bovis causes 90% of disease and is much less pathogenic
  • Boophilus microplus is the tick vector in Australia
81
Q

Babesia age, clinical signs and diagnosis

A
- younger cattle
○ High fever
○ Anorexia &amp; depression
○ Weakness
○ Cessation of rumination
○ Drop in milk yield
○ ↑ HR &amp; RR
○ Pale mucus membranes
○ +/-jaundice (late stages)
○ Haemoglobinuria(dark red/brown) = B. bigemina
○ Abortion
○ Cerebral signs (circling, head pressing, mania, incoordination followed by posterior paralysis, convulsions and coma –B. bovis)
- Diagnosis 
○ History 
○ Regional knowledge 
○ Clinical signs 
○ Demonstration of protozoa in peripheral blood smears
82
Q

Tick fever treatment

A
  • Treat sick cattle with a suitable drug e.g. Imidocarb and identify treated cattle
    ○ A single s/c injection
    ○ Treatment for 4w protection
    ○ Allows the cow to develop resistance by keeping
    ○ Babesia levels low
    ○ APVMA ‘minor use’ permit allows use in dairy cattle in Qld/NSW with a 14-day milk withholding period
    § OTHERWISE CANNOT USE IT
  • Apply acaricide to remove ticks
  • Blood transfusions often lifesaving!
83
Q

Prevention of tick fever, types, when give, immunity and when important

A
  • Trivalent vaccinations are available (B. bigemina, B. bovis, A. marginale)
    ○ chilled or frozen (frozen = -196 degrees in liquid Nitrogen!)
    ○ Frozen is useful where refrigeration is difficult - harder to chill
    ○ >$5 per dose
    ○ need a permit in some states
    ○ Immunity takes time (3-4w for Babesia; 8 weeks for Anaplasma) BUT is lifelong
    ○ Less reactions when given at 3-9 months of age
    Main issue if moving cattle from free to endemic areas
    -> NEED TO VACCINATE
    ○ Minimise the risk of tick fever in introduced cattle by vaccinating at least 60 days before cattle enter tick-infested areas
84
Q

Anaplasma marginale what spread by, age, general presentation with clinical signs and treatment/prevention

A
  • Spread by tick vectors Boophilus microplus & Rhipicephalus sangeuineus
  • Young animals
    ○ susceptible to infection (subacute)
    ○ remain permanently infected but immune
  • > 3 years
    ○ peracute fatal form (rare)
    ○ high producing dairy cows
  • Clinical Signs (Subacute form)
    ○ Temp <40.5C
    ○ Anaemia & jaundice
    ○ Haemoglobinuria is absent
    ○ Urine is often dark brown
    ○ Emaciation
  • Treatment/ Prevention
    ○ Tetracycline/Imidocarb
    ○ Vaccination
85
Q

Benign theileriosis species, which genotype in VIC, vector, how common and clinical signs

A
  • Theileria orientalis
  • Buffeli genotype causes benign theileriosis in Victoria
  • Tick vector = Haemaphysalis longicornis, “the bush tick”
  • Clinical disease rare in endemically affected areas but common and severe in non-endemic areas due to immunity levels
  • Clinical signs
    ○ Fever, Anaemia
    ○ Tachypnoea
    ○ Exercise intolerance
    ○ Depression, Lethargy
    ○ Jaundice, Death
    ○ Abortion and still birth
86
Q

Benign theileriosis diagnosis and treatment

A
- Diagnosis
○ PCV below 15%
○ Regenerative anaemia
○ Often jaundice
○ Demonstration of parasite within RBCs
○ PCR to distinguish between variants (at UOM!)
- Treatment
○ Oxytetracyclineand/or imidocarb?
○ Blood transfusion
○ Minimise stress and movement
87
Q

What are the 3 main indications for blood transfusions and indications iwthin

A
- Acute blood loss e.g.
○ Post-surgery –calf castration, dehorning
○ Lacerations of major vein e.g. mammary vein
○ Abomasal ulceration
- Intravascular haemolysis e.g.
○ Postparturient haemoglobinuria
○ Haemoparasites
- Clinical Signs
○ HR>100bpm
○ Rapid RR
○ White mucous membranes
○ +/-PCV <10%
88
Q

General principles for cow blood transufsion including how much to give

A
  • If PCV <10% a transfusion is probably necessary for survival
  • One litre of blood raises PCV by about 0.75% in a 550kg cow
  • Therefore 4 -6 litres needed to raise form life threatening 8% to 12%
  • In general don’t need to cross match donors for the first transfusion in a cows life
89
Q

What are the 8 steps in blood transfusion

A
  1. Safely restrain donor
  2. Surgically prep donor neck + lignocaine
  3. Raise donor vein with rope
  4. Cut down on jugular vein - alternatively, insert wide bore catheter
  5. Stir blood and anticoagulant constantly
  6. Transfer blood to 5L bag
  7. Place wide bore (12G) catheter in recipient
    ○ Superglue can be used to hold catheter and giving set in place
  8. Allow blood to flow full bore
90
Q

In terms of management of calves what are 4 important parts

A

1) Calf health begins with cow management:
○ Cows with a poor breeding history removed from herd
○ Cow Body Condition Score
§ Heifer weight at mating and calving impacts risk of dystocia
§ Bull choice is important to reduce the risk of dystocia in heifers
○ Vaccinated against common neonatal disease
2) Calving environment
○ Protection from adverse weather
○ Limit environmental contamination with potential pathogens - hygiene is IMPORTANT
3) Close observation during calving
○ Allows timely intervention if a problem should occur
○ Hours (rather than minutes for foals)
4) Calf weight

91
Q

What are the 4 main causes of redish colouring and what need to consider

A
  • Lice - if this is the issue why immunosuppressed? - fluke, bracken fern, blood born parasites
  • Dermatitis/scurvy skin
  • Poor nutrition
  • Cooper deficient
92
Q

What are the 5 main reasons calves get sick and the 3 main things need to remember

A
  1. Birth weight 30-35kg
  2. Traumatic transition of birth
    ○ Anoxia, trauma, misadventure, poor suckling relfex
    ○ 4-5 times higher risk of death if traumatic birth
  3. Immature immune systems
    ○ Passive immunity, poor immune response
  4. Low energy reserves
    ○ Starvation, dehydration, temperature
  5. Developing anatomy and physiology
    ○ Monogastric to ruminant, cardiovascular
    NUTIRITON, HYGIENE, HOUSING
93
Q

Reducing the risk of calf disease precalving how done

A
  • Management of dam
    1. Dam nutrition
    § Dry of BCD 4.5-5.5 (dairy), 3 (beef)
    § Colostrum production (5 weeks pre-calving)
    § Transition nutrition, if wrong increase metabolic disease = increase calving complications
    □ 6 weeks coming up to calving increase nutrition to support calf growth and colostrum production
    § Affects calf size and viability
    2. Pre-calving vaccination s
    § Presence of Abs during dry period = Ab in colostrum
    3. Sire selection and mating
    § Calving ease
    Heifer size at first mating (260kg Jersey; 340Kg Holstein
94
Q

Reducing the risk of calf disease at calving

A
  • Calving environment
    ○ Clean, well-drained, observable, sheltered
    ○ Stocking rate
  • calving itself
95
Q

Reducing the risk of calf disease post-calving 4 main things - EXAM

A

1) Colostrum - IMPORTANT
○ 3 Q’s
§ Quickly - within first 6-8hours of birth
§ Quality - SG >1.060 or Brix reading of > 22% (50mg/mL IgG)
§ Quantity - aim for 4L
MOST IMPORTANT COMPONENT AFFECTING RISK OF NEONATAL CALF DISEASES
○ How to assess colostrum management on the farm
§ Serum IgG - 10-12 healthy calves
§ Test the frozen colostrum stored
2) Calf rearing facilities
○ Design - space, orientation, ventilation, hospital pens
○ Hygiene - drainage, bedding, cleaning
○ Nutrition - feeding space
3) Calf nutrition - GIVE ACCESS TO ALL AT THE BEGINNING to ensure can wean as early as possible
○ milk + grain - allows to become functional ruminant
○ Water
4) Other factors
○ Transport, mixing groups, inconsistent feeding

96
Q

define foetal, parturient, neonate and yearling

A
  • Foetal - during gestation
  • Parturient - during birth
  • Neonate - immediate following birth (<2 weeks)
    ○ Early (<48 hours)
    ○ Delayed (2-7 days)
    ○ Late (>7 days)
  • Yearling - > 6 months
    ○ Typically an animal in its second year
97
Q

What ar ehte 4 main diseases of neonates and the most common with causes within

A
1. Diarrhoea - common 
○ Viruses: rotavirus, coronavirus 
○ Bacteria: salmonella, E.coli
○ Parasites: Cryptosporidium, coccidia 
2. Respiratory disease 
○ Enzootic pneumonia
○ Mycoplasma
3. Navel/joint ill 
4. Congenital disorders
98
Q

Diseases of neonatas what are common during parturition, 1-7 days and 7-14 days

A
  • Parturition
    ○ Congenital defects
    ○ Hypoxia, poor suckle, reflex, misadventure
  • 1-7 days
    ○ Enterotoxigenic E. coli (diarrhoea)
  • 7-14 days
    ○ Navel/joint ill (local infection, septicaemia)
    ○ Rotavirus (diarrhoea)
    ○ Coronavirus (diarrhoea/respiratory disease)
    ○ Cryptosporidosis (diarrhoea)
    ○ Salmonellosis (diarrhoea)
    ○ Enzootic pneumonia (respiratory disease)
    Mycoplasma pneumonia (respiratory disease/septicaemia)
99
Q

What are the 7 main congenital diseases detected at birth

A
  1. Umbilical hernia
  2. Schistosomus calf
  3. Fawn calf - congenial contractual arachnodactyly - angus
  4. 2- headed calf - developmental disease or Pestivirus
  5. Hydrocephalus - large dome heads
  6. Arthrogryposis - Akabane virus, hereditary
  7. Astresia ani and hypoplastic tail
100
Q

Neonatal diarrhoea calves <30 days old what is important, general presentation and causes

A

outbreaks, not individuals
○ Triage is important
- Acute, watery diarrhoea -> dehydration -> acidosis
○ High morbidity, high mortality, poor growth
- Multifactorial disease complex
○ Nutrition, infectious agents, immunity
○ Agents often shed by healthy calves