Image Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

The term varus refers to

A

turned inward

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2
Q

Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by

A

trauma or other pathology

less than 90=degree flexion

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3
Q

Which statements regarding knee x-ray arthrography is (are) true?

A

Ligament tears can be demonstrated.
Sterile technique is observed.
MRI can follow x-ray.

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4
Q

The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions

A

Medial oblique view

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5
Q

The male bony pelvis differs from the female bony pelvis in which way

A

The female pubic arch is greater than 90 degrees.

The male ilium is more vertical.

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6
Q

Which techniques would provide a PA projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach

A

Angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees cephalad

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7
Q

Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25-degree RPO position with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?

A

Left sacroiliac joint

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8
Q

All of the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except

A

the inferior portion of the lung is apex

TRUE

  • the right lung has three lobes
  • each lung is enclosed in serous membrane
  • the main stem bronchi enter the lung hilum
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9
Q

All of the following statements regarding an exact PA Projection of the skull are true except

A

The MSP is parallel to IR

TRUE

  • the OML is perpendicular to IR
  • the petrous pyramids fill the orbits
  • the CR is perpendicular to the IR and exits at nasion
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10
Q

The relationship between the ends of fractured long bones is referred to as

A

apposition

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11
Q

Pacemaker electrodes can be introduced through the vein in the chest or upper extremity, from where they are advanced to the

A

right ventricle

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12
Q

Widening of the intercostal spaces is characteristics of which conditions

A

Emphysema

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13
Q

Which structures is (are) located in the RUQ?

A

Hepatic flexure and Gallbladder

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14
Q

A lateral projection of the larynx is occassionally required to rule out foreign body, polyps, or tumor. The CR should be directed

A

to the level of laryngeal prominence

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15
Q

During an upper gastrointestinal examination, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is most likely

A

LPO

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16
Q

Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise?

A

Talotibial and TAlofibular

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17
Q

Which projection of the foot will best demostrate the longitudinal arch?

A

Lateral weight-bearing

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18
Q

Graves disease is associated with

A

Thyroid overactivity

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19
Q

To best visualize the lower ribs, the exposure should be made

A

on expiration

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20
Q

In the AP Axial Projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the OML and passing midway between the external auditory meatus, which of the following is best demonstrated

A

Occipital bone

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21
Q

The right posterior oblique (Judet Method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the

A

anterior rim of the right acetabulum

right iliac wing

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22
Q

Below diaphragm ribs are better demontrated when

A

the patient is in the recumbent position

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23
Q

A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which positions?

A

RAO

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24
Q

What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?

A

Spondylolisthesis

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25
Q

During atrial systole, blood flows into the

A

left ventricle via the bicuspid valve

right ventricle via tricuspid valve

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26
Q

How should the chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient having traumatic injuries?

A

Include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position

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27
Q

All of the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydrochloride are true except

A

metformin should be held for 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies

TRUE

  • metformin is used to help lower blood sugar levels in type 2 diabetic patients
  • patients in metformin who have intravenous(IV) iodinated contrast agent administration are at risk for renal failure
  • metformin should be withheld for 48 hours after IV iodinated contrast studies
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28
Q

Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses

A

Erect

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29
Q

What projection of the os calsis is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?

A

Axial plantodorsal projection

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30
Q

Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique position of the hand?

A

Oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees

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31
Q

All of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?

A

weight-bearing

  • RAO
  • LAO
  • PA
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32
Q

Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to IR?

A

LPO

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33
Q

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP Projection be obtained?

A

With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular

With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular

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34
Q

Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?

A

Lateral decubitus, affected side up

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35
Q

Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?

A

Cardiac Apex

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36
Q

For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?

A

0 degrees (perpendicular)

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37
Q

During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may vary depending

A
  • the respiratory phase
  • body habitus
  • patient position
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38
Q

With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15 to 20-degree caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in a baby or small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to

A

10-15 degrees caudal

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39
Q

In the lateral projection of the foot, the

A

Plantar surface should be perpendicular to IR

Metatarsals are superimposed

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40
Q

Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional “open-mouth” projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?

A

AP or PA throug the foramen magnum

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41
Q

The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except

A

the occipital bone

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42
Q

A lateral projection of the hand extention is often recommended to evaluate

A

a foreign body

a soft tissue

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43
Q

Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of

A
  • uterine tubal patency
  • mass lesions in the uterine cavity
  • uterine position
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44
Q

Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP?

A

A fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt-table capabilities
A fiberoptic endoscope
Polyethylene catheters

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45
Q

With the patient recumbent on the xray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the

A

Trendelenburg position

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46
Q

Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax?

A

LAO, RPO

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47
Q

In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and the second cuneiforms best demonstrated?

A

Lateral Oblique Foot

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48
Q

The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the

A

T5

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49
Q

Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?

A

Gallbladder, Hepatic Flexure

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50
Q

To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in

A

the recumbent position

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51
Q

The tissue that occupies the central cavity within the shaft of a long bone in an adult is

A

yellow marow

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52
Q

All of the following structures are associated with the posterior femur except

A

intertrochanteric line

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53
Q

All the following statements regarding pediatric positioning are true except

A

radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position

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54
Q

Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as the symphysis pubis?

A

Prominence of the greater trochanter

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55
Q

A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient’s waist for a lateral projection of the lumbosacral spine to

A

make the vertebral column parallel with the IR

place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR

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56
Q

To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region, which of the following is (are) recommended?

A

Close collimation

Lead mat on table posterior to the patient

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57
Q

The act of expiration will cause the

A

sternum and ribs to move inferiorly

diaphragm to move superiorly

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58
Q

Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include

A

lesser tubercle in profile

superimposed epicondyles

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59
Q

Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?

A

internal rotation

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60
Q

With the patient in PA position, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle?

A

15-30 degrees caudad

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61
Q

Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?

A

Avulsion fracture

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62
Q

What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?

A

Trochlea

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63
Q

Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed

A

adduction

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64
Q

During the myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the

A

subarachnoid space

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65
Q

The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the

A

bregma

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66
Q

A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

A

Radial Head and Capitulum

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67
Q

Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the

A

atlantoaxial joint

radioulnar joint

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68
Q

The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the “Scotty dog” seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?

A

Nose

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69
Q

An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as

A

contrecoup

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70
Q

In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?

A

Tangential metatarsals/toes

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71
Q

Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?

A

Osgood-Schlatter disease

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72
Q

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed

A

following inversion or eversion injuries

to demonstrate a ligament tear

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73
Q

Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax?

A

Manubrium and 24 ribs

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74
Q

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the

A

right main stem bronchus

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75
Q

Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals?

A

cuboid and cuneiforms

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76
Q

With the patient seated at the end of the xray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

A

coronoid process

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77
Q

The structures forming the brainstem include

A

pons, medulla oblongata, midbrain

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78
Q

The CR will parallel the intervertebral foramina in which of the following projections?

A

lateral thoracic spine

lateral lumbar spine

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79
Q

What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?

A

dome of the acetabulum

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80
Q

Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses?

A
Modified Waters (mouth open)
Lateral
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81
Q

The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a (n)

A

30-degree oblique

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82
Q

The patient,s chin should be elevated during chest radiography to

A

avoid superimposition on the apices

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83
Q

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the

A

epiphysis

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84
Q

Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the

A

AP Projection

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85
Q

The lumbar lamina is represented by what part of the “Scotty Dog” seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view

A

Body

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86
Q

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibiofibular articulation?

A

45-degree internal rotation

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87
Q

At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?

A

C4

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88
Q

During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon

A

Right lateral decubitus

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89
Q

Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral obstruction or stricture?

A

Hydronephrosis

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90
Q

Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula?

A

Hysterosalpingogram

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91
Q

All of the following statements regarding large bowel are true except

A

single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions

 * the large bowel must be completely empty prior to examination
 * retained fecal material can obscure pathology
 * double-contrast studies help to demostrate mucosal lesions
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92
Q

In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the

A
  • fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia
  • patellofemoral joint should be visualized
  • femoral condyles should be superimposed
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93
Q

All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?

A

Lateral

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94
Q

The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is

A

hemoptysis

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95
Q

Double contrast examinations of stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the

A

gastric or bowel mucosa

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96
Q

Which of the following are mediastinal structure

  • Heart
  • Trachea
  • Esophagus
A

heart, trachea and esophagus

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97
Q

In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?

A

internal rotation

98
Q

Which of the following articulations may be describes as diarthrotic?

  • Knee
  • Intervertebral joints
  • TMJ
A

Knee, TMJ

99
Q

Ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)?

  • Medial carpals
  • Lateral carpals
  • Scaphoid
A

Lateral carpals

Scaphoid

100
Q

Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include

  • pedicles
  • laminae
  • body
A

pedicles and laminae

101
Q

In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?

A

Compound

102
Q

The thoracic apophyseal joints are demonstrated with the

A

MSP 20 degrees to the IR

103
Q

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?

  • Scapular Y projection
  • Inferiorsuperior axial
  • Transthoracic Lateral
A

All of them

104
Q

The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the

A

laminae

105
Q

The type of ileus characterized by cessation of peristalsis is termed

A

paralytic

106
Q

Radiography of which of the following structure(s) in the AP or PA position will inherently result in an image demonstrating shape distortion of the anatomic part?

  • Kidney
  • Scaphoid
  • Sigmoid
A

All of them

107
Q

Which of the following procedures will best demonstrate the cephalic, basilic, and subclavian veins?

A

Upper-limb venogram

108
Q

The body habitus charaterized by a long and narrow thoracic cavity and low midline stomach and gallbladder is the

A

asthenic

109
Q

Which should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?

A

Horizontal beam lateral

110
Q

Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?

A

Radial styloid process

111
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true?

A

The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft.
An oblique projection odf the shoulder is obtained.

112
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type?

A
  • Short, wide, transverse heart

* High and peripheral large bowel

113
Q

Glossitis refers to inflammation of the

A

tongue

114
Q

With the patient’s head in a PA position and the CR sirected 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?

A

Rami

115
Q

During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate

A
  • the filling of the ureters

* the renal pelvis

116
Q

The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the

A

midcoronal plane

117
Q

To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbentand oblique 45 degrees

A

toward the affected side

118
Q

During an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized with the body in the AP recumbent position?

A

Transverse colon

119
Q

Central ray angulation may be required for

A
  • foreshortening of self-superimposition

* superimposition of overlying structures

120
Q

Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplantar projection of the foot?

A

Angle the CR 10 egrees posteriorly

121
Q

Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that

A
  • the radius and ulna be superimposed distally

* the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly

122
Q

Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?

A

Patient AP with 30-35 angle cephalad

123
Q

Subject/object unsharpness can result from al of the following except when

A

anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR

124
Q

The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles

A

IPL perpendicular to IR

IOML parallel to the transverse axis of the IR

125
Q

A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?

A
  • Sacral Vertebrae

* Thoracic Vertebrae

126
Q

Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?

A

The IOML is parallel to IR

The MSP is parallel to IR

127
Q

The ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the

A

metaphysis

128
Q

Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?

A

LAO

129
Q

The illeocecal valve noramally is located in which of the following body regions?

A

Right Iliac

130
Q

Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints?

A
  • The procedure is performed in the erect position.

* Use of weights can improve demonstration of joints.

131
Q

A type of cancerous bone tumor occuring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is

A

Ewing Sarcoma

132
Q

Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the

A

hilus

133
Q

Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas and odontoid process?

A

SMV

134
Q

Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur?

A

Patellar surface

135
Q

An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examinations

A

Myelogram

136
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs?

A
  • Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders.
  • Ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm.
137
Q

In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

A

Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis

138
Q

In the lateral projection of the ankle, the

A
  • talotibial joint is visualized

* tibia and fibula are superimposed.

139
Q

All the following positions are likely to be employed for both single- anddouble-contrast examinations of the large bowel except

  • lateral rectum
  • AP axial rectosignoid
  • right and left lateral decubitus abdomen
  • RAO and LAO abdomen
A

right and left lateral decubitus of the abdomen

140
Q

Which of the ff can be used to demostrate the intercondyloid fossa?

A
  • Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa
  • Prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint
141
Q

Which of the ff statements regrding the Norgaard method, “Ball Cather’s position is (are) correct?

A
  • Bilateral AP Oblique hands are obtained.
  • It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis.
  • The hands are oblique about 45 degrees, palm up
142
Q

With the px in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids

A

completely within the orbits

143
Q

When evaluating a PA Axial projection of the skull with a 15-degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see

A
  • petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits
  • equal distance fro the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally
  • symmetrical petrous pyramids
144
Q

Which of the ff baium filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position?

A

Hepatic flexure

145
Q

The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the

A

fourth lumbar vertebra

146
Q

What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient?

A

High and horizontal

147
Q

In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures est seen are the

A

intervertebral foramina nearest to the IR

148
Q

During chest radiography, the act of inspiration

A

raises the ribs

depresses the abdominal viscera

149
Q

in the lateral projection of the scapula, the

A

vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed

150
Q

Which of the ff is (are) true in an AP Projection of the cervical spine?

  • Intervertebral disk spaces
  • C3-7 cervical bodies
  • Apophyseal joints
A
  • Intervertebral disk spaces

* C3-7 cervical bodies

151
Q

Which of the following does the trapezium articulate?

A

First metacarpal

152
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a PA Axial Projection of the paranasal sinuses?

A
  • The OML is elevated 15degrees from the horizontal

* The frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized.

153
Q

Tracheotomy is an effective technique used to restore breathing when there is

A

respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx

154
Q

To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP Projection, the patient is positioned so that

A

a line between maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical

155
Q

For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool?

  1. Patency of the billiary ducts
  2. Biliary tract calculi
  3. Galbladder calculi
A

1 & 2

156
Q

For the average patient, the CR for the lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter

A

midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface

157
Q

Which of the ff positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?

A

Dorsal decubitus position

158
Q

Which of the ff is (are) appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with traumatic spine injury?

A
  • Maneuver the xray tube instead of moving the patient

* Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient

159
Q

Which of the ff is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?

A

Tangential Patella

160
Q

Which of the ff examinations is used to demostrate vesicoureteral reflux?

A

Voiding cystourethrogram

161
Q

Which of the ff should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle?

  1. Clavicular Body
  2. AC joint
  3. Sternocostal joint
A

1 and 2

162
Q

Which of the following projections is the talofibular joint is best demonstrated?

A

Medial Oblique

163
Q

Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which position?

A

AP projection, left lateral decubitus position

164
Q

Which of the ff sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle?

A

Arteries, arterioles, Capillaries, venules, veins

165
Q

Which of the ff projections of the elbow should demonstrate the radial head free of superimposition?

A

Lateral Oblique

166
Q

Which of the ff projections will best demonstrate acromioclavicular separation?

A

AP Erect, both shoulder

167
Q

Which of the ff statements regarding myelography is (are) correct?

A
  • SPinal puncture may be performed int he prone or flexed lateral position
  • The patient’s neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions.
168
Q

The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is

A

distal

169
Q

With the patient PA, the MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37-degree angle with the IR, and the CR perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the ff is best demonstrated?

A

Facial bones

170
Q

The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as

A

aspiration

171
Q

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiography (ERCP) usually involves

A
  • cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla

* introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct

172
Q

Which of the ff is (are) associated with a Colles’ fracture?

A
  • chip fracture of the ulnar styloid

* posterior and backward displacement

173
Q

The axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed

A

parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck

*in contact with the lateral surface of the body

174
Q

Which of the ff guidelines should be followed when performing radiographic examinations on pediatric patients?

A

Use restraint only when necessary

175
Q

Which of the ff interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel?

A
  • Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)

* Stent Placement

176
Q

Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include

A
  • both joints must be included in long bone studies

* two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required

177
Q

Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for an upper GI series is most likely to be

A

NPO after midnight

178
Q

The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart are called

A

pulse

179
Q

The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during upper GI examination to demonstrate

A

hiatal hernia

180
Q

Which of the ff positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?

A

AP and Scapular Y

181
Q

Which of the ff projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular free of superimposition?

A

AP oblque, medial rotation

182
Q

Which of the ff bones participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen?

  1. Ilium
  2. Ischium
  3. Pubis
A

Ischium and Pubis

183
Q

Which of the ff radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?

A

Retrograde Urography

184
Q

The AP Projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed

A

2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis

185
Q

Which of the ff views would best demonstrate the arthritic changes in the knees?

A

AP Erect

186
Q

Which of the ff positions will demonstrate the lumbar apophyseal articulation?

A

30-degree RPO

187
Q

Which of the ff will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?

A

AP ABdomen

188
Q

Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for a lower GI series is most likely to be

A

cathartics and cleansing enema

189
Q

The AP axial projection, or “frog leg” position of the femoral neck places the patient in a supine position with the affected thigh

A

abducted 40 degrees from the vertical

190
Q

Which of the ff precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip?

A
  • When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician.
  • To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination
191
Q

Which of the ff projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles be perpendicular to the IR?

A
  • Lateral forearm

* Internal rotation shoulder

192
Q

Prior to the start of an IVU, which of the ff procedures should be carried out?

A
  • HAve px empty the bladder
  • Review the patient’s allergy history.
  • Check the patient’s creatinine level.
193
Q

To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the

A
  • Epicondyles perpendicular to the cassetehand
  • HAnd pronated and supinated as much as possible
  • Hand lateral and in internal rotation
194
Q

In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the

A

subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae

195
Q

To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers

A

must supported parallel to IR

196
Q

Which of the ff is (are) effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations?

A
  • Use of PA position
  • Use of breast shields
  • Use of compensating filtration
197
Q

Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?

A

Diarthrodial

198
Q

The laryngeal prominence is formed by the

A

throid cartilage

199
Q

In the AP projection of the ankle, the

A
  • plantar surface of the foot is vertical

* fibula projects more distally than the tibia

200
Q

Which of the ff examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm’s tumor?

A

IVU

201
Q

To visualize or “open” the right SI joint, the patient is positioned

A

25 to 30 degrees LPO

202
Q

Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the

A

superior vena cava

203
Q

Which of the ff women is likely to have the most homogenous glandular breast tissue?

A

a postpubertal adolescent

204
Q

Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the ff positions?

A

Emergency and trauma radiography

205
Q

Which of the ff is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of lungs?

A

Pulmonary embolism

206
Q

Ff the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbladder?

A

Cholecystokinin

207
Q

Which of the ff projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?

A

AP (medial) oblique

208
Q

Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate

A
  • posttraumatic swelling of the spinal cord

* posterior disk herniation

209
Q

Which of the ff blood chemistry levels must be the radiographer check prior to excretory urography?

A
  • Creatinine

* BUN

210
Q

Which of the ff are components of a trimalleolar fracture?

A
  • Fractured lateral malleolus
  • Fractured medial malleolus
  • Fractured posterior tibia
211
Q

The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?

A

Skeletal

212
Q

The four major arteries supplying the brain include the

A
  • Common carotid arteries

* Vertebral arteries

213
Q

Ingestion of the barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the ff situations?

A
  • Suspected perforation of a hollow viscus
  • Suspected large bowel obstruction
  • Preoperative patients
214
Q

Which of the ff is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children?

A

Intussusception

215
Q

Which of the ff statements is (are) correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest?

A
  • The MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR
  • The right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs
  • Arms must be raised high to preventupper-arm-soft-tissue superimposition on the lung field.
216
Q

Which of the ff bones participate(s) in the formation of knee joint?

A

Femur and Tibia

217
Q

All the ff are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except?

A

the femoral neck

218
Q

Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be demonstrated in the

A

pariethoacanthial (Waters method) projection

219
Q

Which of the ff structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone?

A

Posterior clinoid processes

Dorsum Sella

220
Q

In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed

A

15 degrees caudad to C4

221
Q

Which of the ff is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?

A

Flexion and extension laterals

222
Q

If a patient’s zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch maybe demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient’s head

A

15 degrees toward the side being examined

223
Q

Which of the ff factors can contribute to hypertension?

A

Obesity
Smoking
Stress

224
Q

Orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the ff accessories?

A
  • Bell-Thompson scale

* Bucky tray

225
Q

Which of the ff is (are) demonstrated in a lateral projection of the cervical spine?

A
  • Apophyseal joints

* Intervertebral joints

226
Q

In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the CR is directed

A

3/4 inch distal tot he nasion

227
Q

To make a patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should

A
  • instruct the px to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intra abdominal pressure
  • instruct the px to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce a colonic spasm
228
Q

Which of the ff positions will best demonstrate the right apophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?

A

RPO

229
Q

Structures involved in blowout fractures include the

A
  • orbital floor

* inferior rectus muscle

230
Q

Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest are performed to demonstrate

A
  • partial or complete collapse of lobe(s)
  • air in the pleural cavity
  • foreign body
231
Q

Shoulder arthrography is performed to

A
  • demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear

* evaluate the glenoid labrum

232
Q

Which of the ff positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?

A

Lateral oblique

233
Q

The most significant risk factor for breast cancer is

A

gender

234
Q

Which of the ff structures is located at the level of the interspace between the second and the third thoracic verterbrae?

A

Jugular notch

235
Q

For the AP projection of the scapula, the

A
  • patient’s arm is abducted at right angles to the body
  • patient’s elbow is flexed with the hand supinated
  • exposure is made during quiet breathing
236
Q

The innominate bone is located in the

A

pelvis

237
Q

The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and

A

in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR

238
Q

Which of the ff sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthial projection (Waters Method) with the CR directed through the patient’s open mouth?

A

Sphenoidal

239
Q

Below-diaphragm ribs are better demonstrated when

A

the patient is in the recumbent position

240
Q

Which of the ff positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?

A

Erect

241
Q

What projection of the os calsis is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?

A

Axial plantodorsal projection