Rheumatology Flashcards

(104 cards)

1
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Marfan’s syndrome?

A

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which autoantibodies would you expect to find in Limited Cutaneous Systemic Sclerosis?

A
ANA (90%) -> anti-centromere
Rheumatoid factor (30%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which autoantibodies would you expect to find in Diffuse Cutaneous Systemic Sclerosis?

A
ANA (90%) -> anti-scl-70
Rheumatoid factor (30%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate?

A

Inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme essential for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the indications for methotrexate?

A
  • Inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis
  • psoriasis
  • some chemotherapy acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
  • UC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the adverse affects associated with methotrexate?

A
Mucositis
Myelosuppression
Pneumonitis
Pulmonary fibrosis
Liver cirrhosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How often is methotrexate taken?

A

Weekly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What drugs should be avoided in patients taking methotrexate?

A

Trimethoprim

Cotrimoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What autoantibodies would you expect to find in SLE?

A
99% have ANA:
- anti-dsDNA (99%)
- anti-Smith (99%)
(also Ro and La)
20% have RF

Also -low C3 and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What monitoring is required in SLE?

A

ESR during active disease (CRP is often normal)
Complement levels are low during active disease
Anti-dsDNA can be used to disease monitoring (but not present in everyone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Normal bony tissue, but dec mineral content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the causes of osteomalacia?

A
Vitamin D deficiency
Renal failure
Drug-induced - anticonvulsants
Vitamin D resistant (inherited)
Liver disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the features of osteomalacia?

A

Bone pain
Fractures
Muscle tenderness
Proximal myopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What blood results would you expect in osteomalacia?

A

Low Ca
Low phos
Low Vit D
High ALP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the treatment for osteomalacia?

A

Calcium with vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What autoantibodies would you expect in drug-induced lupus?

A

ANA - 100%

  • anti-histone (85%)
  • anti-Ro and -Smith (5%)

dsDNA NEGATIVE (vs SLE where it’s +ve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Give two drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus

A

procainamide

hydralazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is important to check with patients on hydroxychloroquine?

A

Vision - can cause Bull’s eye retinopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a common side effect of Leflunomide?

A

HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the requirements before allopurinol treatment can be initiated?

A

> = 2 attacks in 12m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What autoantibodies would you expect in RA?

A

Anti-CCP
RF
(Around 20% are seronegative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What autoantibodies would you expect in Sjogren syndrome?

A

ANA - Ro and La (La is more specific)

RF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What blood results would you expect in anti-phospholipid syndrome?

A

Prolonged APTT

Dec platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What percentage of patients with psoriasis develop an associated arthropathy?

A

10-20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Give the 6 As that are associated with ankylosing spondylitis
``` Apical fibrosis Anterior uveitis Aortic regurgitation Achilles tendonitis AV node block Amyloidosis ```
26
What causes splenomegaly in RA patients?
Felty's syndrome
27
An allergy to which drug may be a contra-indication for the prescription of sulfasalazine?
Aspirin
28
What are the adverse effects of azathioprine?
- bone marrow depression - N+V - pancreatitis
29
What is the first-line treatment for fibromyalgia?
CBT
30
What is the first-line treatment for osteoarthritis?
Paracetamol + topical NSAID (if hands or knees)
31
What are the characteristic features of scleroderma?
``` CREST syndrome Calcinosis Raynaud's oEsophageal dysmotility Sclerodactyly Telangasia ```
32
What are Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions? Describe the skin changes you might expect
Mast cell degranulation (IgE bound) | Skin changes include urticaria
33
What are Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions?
Caused by the formation and deposition of antibody-antigen complexes. E.g. post-strep glomerulonephritis, SLE
34
What are Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions? What skin changes may occur?
Cell-mediated E.g. contact dermatitis, T1DM, Hashimotos, IBD, MS Skin changes include erythema multiforme (target lesions affecting palms, soles and face)
35
Give 3 side effects of methotrexate
Myelosuppression Liver cirrhosis Pneumonitis
36
Give 4 side effects of sulfasalazine
Rashes Oligospermia Heinz body anaemia Interstitial lung disease
37
For 3 side effects of leflunomide
Liver impairment Interstitial lung disease HTN
38
Give 2 side effects of hydroxychloroquine
Retinopathy | Corneal deposits
39
Give 5 side effects of prednisolone
``` Cushingoid features Osteoporosis Impaired glucose tolerance HTN Cataracts ```
40
Give two side effects of NSAIDs
Bronchospasm in asthmatics | Dyspepsia/peptic ulceration
41
Describe the XR features in ank spond
sacroilitis: subchondral erosions, sclerosis squaring of lumbar vertebrae 'bamboo spine' (late & uncommon) syndesmophytes: due to ossification of outer fibers of annulus fibrosus chest x-ray: apical fibrosis
42
Initial therapy for newly diagnosed RA
Combination of DMARDs (incl methotrexate and one other DMARD, plus short-term glucocorticoids)
43
Monitoring required when using methotrexate? Why? | Any other SEs?
FBC + LFTs Risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis Other SEs: pneumonitis
44
Name some DMARDs used in RA
Methotrexate Sulfasalazine Leflunomide Hydroxychloroquine
45
Name some TNF-inhibitors
Etanercept Infliximab Adalimumab
46
Indications for TNF-inhibitors in RA
An inadequate response to at least 2 DMARDs incl metho
47
55yo pt with 1m Hx of fever, arthralgia and lethargy. He recently developed haemoptysis and dyspnoea. Investigations show that he has an AKI. ANCA is negative. What is the diagnosis?
Goodpastures syndrome
48
What positive investigation results would you expect in Goodpasture syndrome?
Anti-glomerular BM antibodies
49
Outline the three stages of Churg-Strauss disease
1) Allergy - asthma or allergic rhinitis (may lead to nasal polyps) 2) Eosinophilia 3) Vasculitis - small and medium vessels leading to organ damage
50
What underlying condition must be ruled out before a diagnosis of dermatomyositis can be made?
Malignancy - may be paraneoplastic disease and not dermato
51
Which types of complement are low in SLE?
C3 and C4
52
Describe pseudogout crystals
Positively bifefringent rhomboid shaped crystals
53
Diagnostic marker in carcinoid
Urinary 5HIAA (24hr collection)
54
Investigation to diagnose amyloidosis
Rectal biopsy
55
Cause of reduced vision in temporal arteritis
Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy
56
Difference between limited and diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis
Limited - CREST | Diffuse - affects trunk and prox limbs. HTN, lung fibrosis, renal involvement
57
Name the main four CT diseases in rheumatology
Scleroderma Polymyalgia rheumatica SLE Polymyositis/dermatomyositis
58
Name the main three bone metabolic diseases in rheum
Osteoporosis Pagets disease Osteomalacia/Ricketts
59
Name the seronegative arthropathies
Reactive arthritis Ankolysing spondylitis Psoriatic arthritis Enteropathic arthritis
60
Name the crystal arthropathies
Pseudogout | Gout
61
Which rheumatological conditions are often monoarticular
Trauma Septic arthritis Crystal arthritis Monoarticular presentation of polyarticular disease
62
Which rheumatological conditions are often oligoarticular (<5)
OA Crystal arthritis Seronegative spondyloarthropathies
63
Which rheumatological conditions are often symmetrical and polyarticular
RA | OA
64
Which rheumatological conditions are often asymmetrical and polyarticular
OA | Seronegative spondyloarthopathies
65
Which rheumatological conditions are polyarticular, but can be either symmetrical or asymmetrical
AI CT diseases | Vasculities
66
Investigations for rheum disorders
Bedside - obs, ECG Bloods - FBC, UE, LFT, TFT, glucose, CRP/ESR, Autoantibodies, calcium/urate Micro - joint aspiration, blood cultures Imaging - XR joint, CT/MRI joint, CXR
67
General management of rheum conditions
Conservative - RICE, physio, braces Medical - NSAIDs, steroid injections, steroids, DMARDs, biologicals Surgical - replacement, release
68
What role do DMARDs play in rheum disorders
Control symptoms, delay progression of disease, and improve extra-articular manifestations
69
First and second line DMARDs used in rheum disorders
1st line: methotrexate, sulfasalazine, hydroxychloroquine | 2nd line: azathioprine, cyclosporin, leflunomide, mycophenolate mofetil
70
Monitoring required for a pt on DMARDs
FBCs, UE, LFT regularly | Baseline, weekly until stable, every 2-3m
71
When are biological agents indicated in rheum? Give examples
Used to treat mod-severe RA that's not responded well to 1st/2nd line DMARDs E.g. anti-TNF, rituximab, tocilizumab
72
What is giant cell arteritis?
Large vessel vasculitis Segmental granulomatous inflammation of ext carotid artery and branches Associated with polymyalgia rheumatica Causes irreversible visual loss if not treated
73
3 immediate things to do in GCA
ESR/CRP High-dose steroids (pred 40-80mg/d PO) Urgent same day ophthalmology r/v
74
Further management of GCA
Temporal artery biopsy within 1wk of starting steroids (skip lesions) Cont steroids for 1-2yrs Taper dose based on ESR and symptoms PPI + bisphosphonate cover
75
Investigations for gout
``` Bedside - obs Bloods - FBC, UE, ESR/CRP Micro - blood cultures Imaging - XR Special tests - joint aspiration (send for MC+S) ```
76
Describe the crystals seen in gout
-ve biferingent needle-shaped urate crystals
77
Acute management of gout
Conservative - remove cause, rest, inc fluids, avoid alcohol Medical - NSAIDs, colchicine (if NSAIDs C/I), steroids (if NSAIDs and colchicine C/I) Remain on allopurinol if pt is already on it
78
Secondary prevention of gout
Conservative - W/L (if obese), dec alcohol intake, avoid high-purine foods (red meat, liver, oily fish), avoid drug causes (diuretics, cytotoxic drugs) Medical - allopurinol
79
When should allopurinol be started after the first attack of gout?
Start >2wks after attack under NSAID/colchicine cover
80
Life-threatening drug reaction to watch out for in pts with gout?
Azathioprine + allopurinol! | Causes neuropenia
81
Features of SLE
``` SOAP BRAIN MD S erositis (pleuritis, pericarditis) O ral ulcers A rthritis P hotosensitivity ``` ``` B lood (anaemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, APS) R enal (protein, lupus nephritis) A NA I mmunologic (dsDNA) N euro (psych, seizures) ``` M alar rash D iscoid rash Others - Raynaud's, alopecia, livedo reticularis
82
Describe the rashes you might see in SLE
Malar - facial erythematous rash sparing nasal folds, photosensitive Discoid - well-demarcated scaly erythematous rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitive
83
Blood tests for SLE
1) Autoantibodys: - ANA (sens) - Anti-dsDNA (spec) - Anti-histone (drug-ind) - Anti-cardiolipin (APS) 2) ESR (inc = disease activity) 3) C3/4 (dec = disease activity) 4) FBC (dec Hb = AIHA, dec WCC, dec plats = APS) 5) UE (lupus nephritis) 6) Clotting (paradox inc APTT in APS)
84
Management of SLE
Conservative - stop drug causes, smoking cess, advice about sun exposure Medical: - acute relapse -> high-dose pred, IV cyclophosphamide - maintenance -> NSAIDs, hydroxychlorquinine ± low-dose pred - treat complications -> sun cream, ACEi for proteinuria
85
What is antiphospholipid syndrome?
Acquired AI disorder characterised by production of anti-cardiolipin/lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies, which interact with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade causing thrombophilia
86
What are the cardinal features of antiphospholipid syndrome?
``` CLOT C lotting disorder (thrombosis) L ivedo reticularis O bstetric complications (recurrent 1st T miscarriage) T hrombocytopenia ```
87
6 features of rheumatoid hands
1) Ulnar deviation 2) Boutonniere's deformity (PIP flex, DIP hyperex) 3) Swan neck (PIP ex, DIP hyperflex) 4) Z-thumb (MCP flex, IP hyperex) 5) Loss of knuckle guttering 6) Dorsal subluxation of ulnar styloid process
88
Extra-articular manifestations of RA
- Rheum/MSK - CTS, De Quervain's tenosynovitis, atlantoaxial sublux, Raynaud's, osteoporosis - Resp - fibrosis, nodules, effusion, bronchiolitis obliterans, drug-related - Cardiac - IHD, pericarditis - Ophthalamic - keratoconjunctivitis sicca (Sjogren's), episcleritis/scleritis, drug-related (cararacts) - Haem - Felty's syndrome, AIHA, amyloidosis
89
What is Felty's syndrome?
RA + splenomegaly + dec WCC
90
Investigations for RA
Bedside - obs, lung function test Bloods - autoantibodies (RF, Anti-CCP), ESR/CRP, FBC Imaging - XR, CXR
91
Management of RA
Conservative - OT/PT Medical: - early maintenance: combo DMARDs and ST steroids - further biologicals: TNF-a inhib (infliximab), Rituximab - symptomatic: NSAIDs, steroids - cover: PPI, bisphosphonates
92
Specific signs of OA
Herberden's nodes Bouchard's nodes Squaring of C-MC joint Absence of systemic features
93
Specific signs of septic arthritis
Signs of systemic upset Red hot swollen joint Tender to palpate, warm to touch, effusion Marked limitation of movement, inability to weight bear
94
Specific signs of gout
Red hot swollen tender joint | Joint asp + synovial fluid analysis shows -ve birefrigent needle-shaped crystals
95
Specific signs of psudogout
Acutely tender, red, hot, swollen joint | Joint asp + synovial fluid analysis shows inc WCC, +ve birefringent rhomboid shaped crystals
96
Specific signs of RA
Early - swollen MCP + PIP joints, with wrist/MTP joint involvement Late - Boutonniere, swan neck, Z thumb, ulnar dev
97
Specific signs of psoriatic arthritis
``` Dactylitis Enthesitis (pain, stiffness + tenderness of tendon insertions into bone) Extra-articular features (plaques, nail changes, uveitis) ```
98
Specific signs of ank spond
Schober's test | Chest circumference expansion <5cm
99
Specific signs of polymyalgia rheumatica
Normal muscle strength at initial presentation | Muscle tenderness proximally
100
Specific signs of polymyositis
Proximal muscle weakness and atrophy Difficulty arising from sitting position Muscles are tender on palpation
101
Specific signs of dermatomyositis
Gottron's papules and heliotrope rash | Photosensitivity
102
Specific signs of Sjogren's syndrome
``` Dry eyes Dry mouth Parotid swelling Vaginal dryness and dyspareunia Dry cough Dysphagia ```
103
Specific signs of limited scleroderma
``` CREST Calcinosis Raynaud's oEsophageal dysmotility Sclerodactyly Telangiectasia ```
104
Specific signs of diffuse scleroderma
CREST + internal organs - pulmonary HTN/ILD - RHF, renal impairment