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MS2 Unit3 Neurology > Behavioral, Anesthetic, MS, Headache, CNS, Pain pharm - Unit 3 > Flashcards

Behavioral, Anesthetic, MS, Headache, CNS, Pain pharm - Unit 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which DA pathway controls movement (mesolimbic/ mesocortical/ nigrostantial/ tuboinfundibular)

A

nigrastriatal

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2
Q

Which DA pathway controls reward and perception (mesolimbic/ mesocortical/ nigrostantial/ tuboinfundibular)

A

mesolimbic

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3
Q

which DA pathway controls executive function (mesolimbic/ mesocortical/ nigrostantial/ tuboinfundibular)

A

mesocortical

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4
Q

which DA pathway controls pituitary prolactin function (mesolimbic/ mesocortical/ nigrostantial/ tuboinfundibular)

A

tuboinfundibular

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5
Q

hyperfunction of this DA pathway causes addiction + hallucination (mesolimbic/ mesocortical/ nigrostantial/ tuboinfundibular)

A

mesolimbic

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6
Q

hypofuction of this DA pathway causes dyskinesia as in parkinsons (mesolimbic/ mesocortical/ nigrostantial/ tuboinfundibular)

A

nigrostriatal

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7
Q

hypofunction of this DA pathway causes innatention as in ADD (mesolimbic/ mesocortical/ nigrostantial/ tuboinfundibular)

A

mesocortical

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8
Q

hypofunction of this DA pathway causes amotivation, apathy (mesolimbic/ mesocortical/ nigrostantial/ tuboinfundibular)

A

mesolimbic

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9
Q

treating schizophrenia with a DA agonist can cause lactation via this pathway (mesolimbic/ mesocortical/ nigrostantial/ tuboinfundibular)

A

tuboinfundibular

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10
Q

What enzyme breaks down dopamine, norepinephrine and epinephrine in the brain?

A

COMT: catechol-O-methyl transferase

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11
Q

Used to treat parkinsons is the precursor to dopamine (levodopa/ carbidopa/ bupropoin)

A

levodopa

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12
Q

used to prevent peripheral dopamine activity, lowers fatigue, dizziness and nausea (levodopa/ carbidopa/ bupropoin)

A

carbidopa

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13
Q

A NEDA reuptake inhibitor, NDRI antidepressant (levodopa/ carbidopa/ bupropoin)

A

bupropion

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14
Q

What are the 3 stimulant true amphetamines that can block DAT and even drive it backwards:

A
  1. dextroamphetamine 2. lisdexamfetamine 3. mixed amphetamine salts
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15
Q

what are the two mild stimulants that increase histamine, used for narcolepsy, apnea and shift-work, not ADHD

A
  1. Modafinil 2. Armodafinil
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16
Q

MAOi A and B-inhibitor for parkinsons OR depression (rasagiline/ selegiline/ isocarboxazid/ phenezine/ tranycypromine)

A

selegiline

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17
Q

MAOi B-inhibitor for parkinsons (rasagiline/ selegiline/ isocarboxazid/ phenezine/ tranycypromine)

A

rasagiline, selegiline does B and A at high doses

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18
Q

MAOi a-inhibitor for depression (rasagiline/ selegiline/ isocarboxazid/ phenezine/ tranycypromine)

A

selegiline, isocarboxazid, phenezine, tranycypromine

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19
Q

If someone is on an MAOi they can have low BP or elevated BP due to increased NE, especially if they eat food with _________

A

tyramine

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20
Q

What are the two COMTi drugs?

A
  1. Entacapone 2. Tolcapone
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21
Q

which COMTi can cause liver failure? (Entacapone/ Tolcapone)

A

Tolcapone

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22
Q

which COMTi can cause nausea and fatigue? (Entacapone/ Tolcapone)

A

Entacapone

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23
Q

What are the 4 D2 receptor agonists for parkinson’s and restless leg syndrome?

A
  1. Bromocriptine 2. Pramipexole 3. Ropinerole 4. Apomorphine
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24
Q

A D3 agonist that is for Schizophrenia but also for depression is (Aripiprazole/ Amantadine)

A

Aripiprazole

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25
Q

Used to treat parkinson’s and Influenza (Aripiprazole/ Amantadine)

A

Amantadine

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26
Q

Which DA synapse depleting drug is used for hypertension (reserpine/ tetrabenazine)

A

reserpine

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27
Q

Which DA synapse depleting drug is used for Huntington’s chorea (reserpine/ tetrabenazine)

A

tetrabenazine

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28
Q

schizophrenia w/ (+) symptoms, treat w/ D2 blocker, blocking the (mesolimbic/ mesocortical/ nigrostantial/ tuboinfundibular) pathway leads to extrapyramidal symptoms =EPS

A

nigrostantial

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29
Q

What are the 3 high potency first gen antipsychotics, FGA

A
  1. haloperidol 2. fluphenazine 3. thiothixine
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30
Q

What are the 2 low potency first gen antipsychotics, FGA

A
  1. chloropromazine 2. thioridazine
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31
Q

this drug is used for refractory schizophrenia, antagonizes D2 and 5HT2a, requires WBC monitoring, it is ________

A

clozapine

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32
Q

In the parasympathetics of the eye, muscarinic receptors are blocked by (atropine/ d-tubocurarine)

A

atropine

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33
Q

In the parasympathetics of the eye, nicotinic receptors are blocked by (atropine/ d-tubocurarine)

A

d-tubocurarine

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34
Q

Name 4 muscarinic agonists that cause pupillary constriction, increase aqueous outflow

A
  1. Acetylcholine 2. Carbachol 3. Methacholine 4. Pilocarpine
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35
Q
  1. Acetylcholine 2. Carbachol 3. Methacholine 4. Pilocarpine cause pupillary (dilation/ constriction)
A

constriction, muscarinic agonists, parasympathetic

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36
Q

Name 5 muscarinic antagonists that cause pupillary dilation and paralysis of the ciliary body, cycloplegia

A
  1. Atropine, longest lasting 2. Scopolamine 3. Homatropine 4. Cyclopentolate 5. Tropicamide, shortest lasting
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37
Q
  1. Atropine 2. Scopolamine 3. Homatropine 4. Cyclopentolate 5. Tropicamide cause pupillary (dilation/ constriction)
A

dilation

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38
Q

(parasymp/ symp) stimulation will suppress aqueous humor production(parasymp/ symp) stimulation will increase aqueous outflow

A

symps suppress productionparasymps -> contract ciliary -> spread trabecular mesh -> increase outflow

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39
Q

Parasympathetic stimulation causes (contraction/ relaxation) of the ciliary muscles

A

contract ciliary -> spread trabecular mesh -> increase aqueous outflow

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40
Q

Horner’s syndrome, ptosis, myosis, anhydrosis, is a lesion in (symps/ parasymps)

A

sympathetics

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41
Q

Parasympathetic disfunction leading to large pupil, but no loss of occular movements (Adie’s/ aneurysm compressing ciliary gang)

A

Adie’s, just some lesion of ciliary gang

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42
Q

Parasympathetic disfunction leading to large pupil, with some loss of occular movements (Adie’s/ aneurysm compressing ciliary gang)

A

aneurysm compressing ciliary gang

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43
Q

Tension headaches are usually (unilateral/ bilateral) while migraines are usually (unilateral/ bilateral)

A

tension: bilateral; migraine: unilateral

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44
Q

Which are more aggravated by physical activity (tension/ migraine) headaches

A

migraine tension headaches don’t prohibit activity

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45
Q

Which is more common in women? (migraine/ tension/ cluster) headache

A

migraine and tension

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46
Q

Which is more common in men? (migraine/ tension/ cluster) headache

A

cluster

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47
Q

which is associated with smoking and lionine facies? (migraine/ tension/ cluster) headache

A

cluster

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48
Q

Which is best treated with O2 therapy? (migraine/ tension/ cluster) headache

A

cluster

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49
Q

which is the most common type of headache? (migraine/ tension/ cluster) headache

A

tension, episodic

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50
Q

focal neurological symptoms that precede a headache is called _______

A

Aura

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51
Q

which type of headache may be preceded by aura? (migraine/ tension/ cluster) headache

A

migraine with auravs. migraine without aura

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52
Q

migraine med: side effects include nausea, so may be administered IV (Triptans/ ergotamines + DHE)

A

ergotamines + DHE

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53
Q

migraine med: selective 5HT 1B+D agonist (Triptans/ ergotamines + DHE)

A

triptans

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54
Q

migraine med: Work well only if administered early (Triptans/ ergotamines + DHE)

A

triptans

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55
Q

migraine med: side effect of chest pain (Triptans/ ergotamines + DHE)

A

Triptans and ergotamine + DHE

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56
Q

this headache has a clockwork daily and annual rhythm (migraine/ tension/ cluster) headache

A

cluster

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57
Q

which is an MAOi for depression?(tranylcypromine/ imipramine/ amitripyline/lithium/ fluoxetine/ citalopram/ bupropion/ duloxetine/ mirtazapine/ venlafaxine/ phenelzine)

A

tranylcypromine, phenelzine

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58
Q

which is used for bi-polar disorder? (tranylcypromine/ imipramine/ amitripyline/lithium/ fluoxetine/ citalopram/ bupropion/ duloxetine/ mirtazapine/ venlafaxine/ phenelzine)

A

lithium salts

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59
Q

find the SSRIs(tranylcypromine/ imipramine/ amitripyline/lithium/ fluoxetine/ citalopram/ bupropion/ duloxetine/ mirtazapine/ venlafaxine/ phenelzine)

A

fluxenetine, citalopram

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60
Q

which are serotinin-norepi reuptake inhibitors, SNRI? (tranylcypromine/ imipramine/ amitripyline/lithium/ fluoxetine/ citalopram/ bupropion/ duloxetine/ mirtazapine/ venlafaxine/ phenelzine)

A

duloxetine, venlafaxine

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61
Q

Which are the “atypicals” that inhibit 5-HT uptake? (tranylcypromine/ imipramine/ amitripyline/lithium/ fluoxetine/ citalopram/ bupropion/ duloxetine/ mirtazapine/ venlafaxine/ phenelzine)

A

mirtazapine, bupropion

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62
Q

Oxidizes more NE, 5-HT and tyramine (MAOa/ MAOb)

A

MAOa

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63
Q

If you want to prevent parkinson’s, inhibit more (MAOa/ MAOb)

A

MAOb, oxidized DA and phenyethamine

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64
Q

Ketamine is a ______ receptor antagonist

A

NMDA-glutamate

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65
Q

Bupropion has most of it’s effectivity on (NE/ DA/ 5-HT)

A

DA

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66
Q

glutamate NMDA receptor blocker (Felbamate/ Topiramte)

A

Felbamate

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67
Q

glutamate AMPA and Kainate receptor blocker (Felbamate/ Topiramte)

A

topiramate

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68
Q

Which is the “gold standard” for maintenance of general anesthesia? (Isoflurane/ Desflurane/ Sevoflurane)

A

Isoflurane

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69
Q

Which is the agent of choice for a mask induction b/c it is least smelly? (Isoflurane/ Desflurane/ Sevoflurane)

A

Sevoflurane sweet-smelling

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70
Q

Which requires a gas blender due to it’s low B.P.? (Isoflurane/ Desflurane/ Sevoflurane)

A

Desflurane

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71
Q

Which can be nephrotoxic when combined with CO2? (Isoflurane/ Desflurane/ Sevoflurane)

A

Sevoflurane

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72
Q

Which anesthetic has the unique property of being anti-emetic at low concentrations (Sevoflurane/ methohexital/ Propofol/ Etomidate/ Ketamine)

A

Propofol

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73
Q

Which anesthetic is a GABAa receptor agonist? (Sevoflurane/ Methohexital/ Propofol/ Etomidate/ Ketamine/ Dexmedetomide)

A

Methohexital, Propofol and Etomidate

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74
Q

Which anesthetic causes “dissociative anesthesia”? (Sevoflurane/ Methohexital/ Propofol/ Etomidate/ Ketamine/ Dexmedetomide)

A

Ketamine

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75
Q

Which anesthetic stimulates the sympathetic nervous system? (Sevoflurane/ Methohexital/ Propofol/ Etomidate/ Ketamine/ Dexmedetomide)

A

Ketamine

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76
Q

Which binds ‘±2a and ‘±2b receptors in the locus ceruleus and brain stem to produce sedation?(Sevoflurane/ Methohexital/ Propofol/ Etomidate/ Ketamine/ Dexmedetomide)

A

Dexmedetomide

77
Q

What is the only depolarizing neuromuscular blocker we use? (Rocuronium/ Pancuronium/ Vecuronium/ Succinylcholine)

A

Succinylcholine

78
Q

Which Amino Steroid NMB has the side effect of increased heart rate, should be avoided in renal insufficiency (Rocuronium/ Pancuronium/ Vecuronium)

A

Pancuronium

79
Q

What drug can be used to immediately reverse the effects of Rocuronium?

A

Sugammadex

80
Q

A drug that induces sleep is called a _______

A

hypnotic

81
Q

A drug that is calming is a ________

A

sedative

82
Q

GABA activation of a GABAa receptor opens ___ ion channels

A

chloride ion

83
Q

When chloride ions enter the neuron, the inhibit signal transduction by (hyperpolarizing/ hypopolarizing) the cell

A

hyperpolarizing

84
Q

diazepam causes more (sedation/ hypnosis)

A

sedation

85
Q

The pharma generic name for valium is _______

A

diazepam

86
Q

These have a ‘ceiling effect’ and do not produce resp. depression, coma and death (benzos/ barbiturates)

A

benzos

87
Q

Can cause full CNS depression and death (benzos/ barbiturates)

A

barbiturates

88
Q

The pharm generic name for Ambien, the BDZ1 psuedo benzo sleep agent is ______

A

Zolpidem

89
Q

The pharm generic name for Xanax, the antixiolytic is _______

A

Alprazolam

90
Q

To reverse an overdose of a benzo use ________

A

flumazenil

91
Q

What are 7 antixiolytics or ‘benzos’

A
  1. midazolam 2. trizolam 3. alprazolam 4. lorazepam 5. chlordiazepoxide 6. diazepam 7. fluruzepam
92
Q

Barbiturate used as an anticonvulsant, esp in children (thiopental/ phenobarbital/ midazolam)

A

phenobarbital

93
Q

Barbiturate used as a short acting anesthetic (thiopental/ phenobarbital/ midazolam)

A

thiopental

94
Q

Benzo used as a short acting anesthetic (thiopental/ phenobarbital/ midazolam)

A

midozolam

95
Q

Pt has sudden onset of depression, treat with a SSRI, but in the 6 weeks waiting for the kick in use ______

A

benzos, alprazolam or lorazepam

96
Q

benzos that are anti anxiety (alprazolam/ lorazepam/ triazolam/ zolpidem/ diazepam)

A

alprazolam + lorazepam

97
Q

benzos that induce sleep (alprazolam/ lorazepam/ triazolam/ zolpidem/ diazepam)

A

triazolam + zolpidemzolpidem is a BDZ1

98
Q

benzos that are anti-convulsant (alprazolam/ lorazepam/ triazolam/ zolpidem/ diazepam)

A

lorazepam + diazepam

99
Q

benzos that are muscle relaxant (alprazolam/ lorazepam/ triazolam/ zolpidem/ diazepam)

A

diazepam

100
Q

An antixiolytic without sedation, No GABAa interaction; may be partial agonist at 5HT1A is ________

A

Buspirone

101
Q

Most CNS depressants work at the ______ receptor

A

GABAa

102
Q

Most alcohol from beverages is absorbed in the (mouth/ stomach/ small intestines)

A

small intestines

103
Q

local anesthetics are most active at the (resting/ active/ inactive) channel

A

active

104
Q

for local anesthetics, the greater the lipid solubility, the (greater/ lesser) the potency

A

greater

105
Q

Local anesthetics with a ester linkage are metabolized by (carboxylesterases and CYP-450’s/ pseudocholinesterases)

A

pseudocholinesterases

106
Q

hypofunction of this DA pathway causes hyperprolactinemia (mesolimbic/ mesocortical/ nigrostantial/ tuboinfundibular)

A

tuboinfundibular

107
Q

hyperfunction of this DA pathway causes hypervigalence and insomnia (mesolimbic/ mesocortical/ nigrostantial/ tuboinfundibular)

A

mesocortical

108
Q

hyperfunction of this DA pathway causes dyskinetic movements (mesolimbic/ mesocortical/ nigrostantial/ tuboinfundibular)

A

nigrostriatal

109
Q

The generic drug name for novocaine is _______

A

procaine

110
Q

local anesthetics work by blocking nerve cell _______

A

depolarization

111
Q

A more lipid soluble anesthetic will have (higher/ lower) potency

A

higher

112
Q

At what site do local anesthetics work to prevent nerve signal transduction?

A

Na+ channels

113
Q

What are the two major chemical classes of local anesthetics?

A
  1. Ester anesthetics 2. Amide anesthetics
114
Q

Which is rapidly metabolized to water soluble products (Ester anesthetics/ Amide anesthetics)

A

Ester anesthetics

115
Q

Which requires hepatic carboxyl esterases and CYP450 enzymes to be metabolized? (Ester anesthetics/ Amide anesthetics)

A

Amide anesthetics

116
Q

Which form of the local anesthetic is the active form? (neutral/ ionic)

A

ionic

117
Q

Which form of the local anesthetic can cross the cell membrane? (neutral/ ionic)

A

neutral

118
Q

what is the HendersonäóñHasselbalch eq?

A

pH = pKa + log (A-/HA)

119
Q

Duration of action of an anesthetic depends on (pKa/ lipid solubility/ protein binding)

A

protein binding

120
Q

Speed of onset of an anesthetic depends on (pKa/ lipid solubility/ protein binding)

A

pKa and lipid solubility

121
Q

which get blocked sooner (myelinated/ un-myelinated) nerves

A

myelinated

122
Q

Which conduct the fastest? slowest? (Aα/ Aβ/ Aδ/ C)

A

in that order -> fastest, Aα, Aβ, Aδ, C, slowest

123
Q

Which transmit pain? Temperature? (Aα/ Aβ/ Aδ/ C)

A

C: capsasin, painAδ: temperature

124
Q

Which are non-myelinated? (Aα/ Aβ/ Aδ/ C)

A

C is un-myelinated; Aα, Aβ, Aδ are myelinated

125
Q

Which amide anesthetic has the highest cardiac toxicity? (lidocaine/ mepivacaine/ bupivacaine/ ropivacaine)

A

Bupivacaine

126
Q

Which is least potent and has the largest therapeutic index? (lidocaine/ mepivacaine/ bupivacaine/ ropivacaine)

A

Ropivacaine

127
Q

Which has more allergic reaction? (Ester anesthetics/ Amide anesthetics)

A

Ester anesthetics

128
Q

What are the three families of endogenous opioids?

A
  1. enkephalins2. endorphines3. dynorphins
129
Q

What are the four major opioid receptor types?

A
  1. MOR, mu opioid receptor 2. DOR, delta 3. KOR, kappa 4. NOR, N/OFQ opioid receptor
130
Q

Agonists of opioid receptors inhibit release of _______

A

substance P

131
Q

most opioid analgesics work on the (MOR/ DOR/ KOR/ NOR) opioid receptor

A

Mu, MOR

132
Q

Opioids cause (mydriasis/ miosis)

A

miosis, mimics parasympathetics

133
Q

Opioids cause (urination/ urinary retention)

A

urinary retention

134
Q

Opioids cause (vasoconstriction/ vasodilation)

A

vasodilation

135
Q

most opioids are excreted by conjugation with ________

A

glucuronide

136
Q

10% of inactive codeine is converted to active morphine by CYP___

A

2D6

137
Q

Can be prescribed as a transdermal patch, strong opioid (Morphine/ Codeine/ Tramadol/ Fentanyl/ Methadone/ Oxycodone)

A

Fentanyl

138
Q

Extended duration opioid, 90% bound to plasma protiens and accumulates in tissues (Morphine/ Codeine/ Tramadol/ Fentanyl/ Methadone/ Oxycodone)

A

Methadone

139
Q

Great oral analgesic, commonly abused (Morphine/ Codeine/ Tramadol/ Fentanyl/ Methadone/ Oxycodone)

A

Oxycodone

140
Q

What are the two opioid antagonists

A
  1. Naloxone 2. Naltrexone
141
Q

Used to treat alcoholism (Naloxone/ Naltrexone)

A

Naltrexone

142
Q

Opioids are great for breakthrough pain since they only take ___ minutes to work

A

10-15 minutes, IV admin

143
Q

Oral doses of opioids are typically 2-3x (higher/lower) than parentaral doses

A

2-3x higher, first pass effect with oral

144
Q

When switching from one opioid to another, doses are usually (increased/ decreased) by 50%

A

decreased, assume the patient has tolerance to the old opioid

145
Q

opioid (lower/raise) seizure threshold

A

lowers, makes them more common

146
Q

Part of this drug’s pain relief comes from preventing 5HT and NE re-uptake (Morphine/ Codeine/ Tramadol/ Fentanyl/ Methadone/ Oxycodone)

A

Tramadol

147
Q

Best for chronic pain in heroin users (Morphine/ Codeine/ Tramadol/ Fentanyl/ Methadone/ Oxycodone)

A

methadone

148
Q

Percocet is acetaminophen plus ______ (Morphine/ Codeine/ Tramadol/ Fentanyl/ Methadone/ Oxycodone)

A

oxycodone

149
Q

To treat diarhhea, use imodium, _______ or lomotin, _______

A

Imodium is Loperamide; Lomotin is Diphenoxylate

150
Q

In the case of opioid overdose, treat with (Morphine/ Codeine/ Methadone/ Oxycodone/Naloxone/ Naltrexone)

A

Naloxone, opioid antagonist

151
Q

Which opioids cause urticaria by directly causeing mast cell degranulation (Morphine/ Codeine/ Methadone/ hydromorphone/ Oxycodone/Naloxone/ Naltrexone)

A

morphine and hydromorphone

152
Q

whenever you prescribe an opioid for long term pain mnagement, you should also prescribe a ________

A

laxative

153
Q

MS occurs more frequently (near/ away from) the equator

A

more frequent distant from the equator

154
Q

The most commomly used drugs for MS are ________

A

corticosteriods

155
Q

_______ is treatment for for MS and other autoimmune DZ, removes the circulating antibodies that are thought to be active in these diseases.

A

plasmapheresis

156
Q

The 3 second line oral agents for MS are:

A
  1. Fingolimod 2. Teriflunomide 3. Dimethyl fumarate
157
Q

What are the potential actions of the INF therapies for MS

A
  1. inhibit t-cell activation 2. cytokine shift from Th1 to Th23. inhibit lymphocte migration to CNS4. apoptosis auto-reactive T-cells 5. antiviral effect
158
Q

MS treatment: Mixture of Amino Acids, causes T-cell apoptosis, induces anti-inflammatory cytokine shift from Th1 to Th2 (IFN/ Fingolimod/ Teriflunomide/ Dimethyl fumarate/ Glatiramer acetate/ Natalizumab)

A

Glatiramer acetate

159
Q

The best MS IFN therapy is (Avonex/ Rebif/ Betaseron/ Extavia)

A

Rebif = IFN-beta-1a

160
Q

For MS, binds VLA-4 on the surface of leukocytes and inhibits their migration (IFN/ Fingolimod/ Teriflunomide/ Dimethyl fumarate/ Glatiramer acetate/ Natalizumab)

A

Natalizumab

161
Q

Which MS treatment carries an increased risk for infection with JC virus? (IFN/ Fingolimod/ Teriflunomide/ Dimethyl fumarate/ Glatiramer acetate/ Natalizumab)

A

Natalizumab

162
Q

MS treatment, Prodrug; sequesters circulating lymphocytes in secondary lymphoid organs by inducing internalization of receptors on lymphocytes (IFN/ Fingolimod/ Teriflunomide/ Dimethyl fumarate/ Glatiramer acetate/ Natalizumab)

A

Fingolimod

163
Q

MS treatment, can cause heart block, bradycardia and macular edema (IFN/ Fingolimod/ Teriflunomide/ Dimethyl fumarate/ Glatiramer acetate/ Natalizumab)

A

Fingolimod

164
Q

MS treatment, selective DHODH inhibitor (IFN/ Fingolimod/ Teriflunomide/ Dimethyl fumarate/ Glatiramer acetate/ Natalizumab)

A

Teriflunomide

165
Q

MS treatment, can cause liver damage and teratogenicity, avoid in young women (IFN/ Fingolimod/ Teriflunomide/ Dimethyl fumarate/ Glatiramer acetate/ Natalizumab)

A

Teriflunomide

166
Q

MS treatment, induces Nrf2 pathway for antioxdant production, protects oligodendrocytes, some Th1 -> Th2 shift (IFN/ Fingolimod/ Teriflunomide/ Dimethyl fumarate/ Glatiramer acetate/ Natalizumab)

A

Dimethyl fumarate

167
Q

Which AD drug is an AChE inhibitor (Tacrine/ Donepezil/ Rivastigmine/ Galantamine/ Memantine)

A

Tacrine, Donepezil, Rivastigmine, Galantamine

168
Q

Which AD drug is a NDMA antagonist for severe alzheimers? (Tacrine/ Donepezil/ Rivastigmine/ Galantamine/ Memantine)

A

Memantine

169
Q

Which AD drug can be given as a patch and has the least side effects? (Tacrine/ Donepezil/ Rivastigmine/ Galantamine/ Memantine)

A

Rivastigmine

170
Q

which second gen antipsychotic causes aganulocytosis? (Clonzapine/ Olanzapine/ Risperidone/ Aripirazol)

A

Clonzapine

171
Q

Used to treat migraine, stimulates presynaptic 5-HT1d receptors, inhibiting vasodilation and inflammation of the dura

A

Sumatriptan

172
Q

Inhibits re-uptake of NE and DA, nicotinic antagonist, used for smoking cessation

A

Bupropion

173
Q

An anxiolytic without sedation, 5-HT1a partial receptor agonsit, good for GAD

A

Buspirone

174
Q

Which get blocked last with a local anesthetic?

A

First: Aδ, Aβ , Aα, C, last

175
Q

What is the premier drug for prevention of chronic tension type headache?

A

Amitriptyline

176
Q

A side effect of daily use of analgesics (like ibuprofen) is ____.

A

Rebound migraines

177
Q

What is the quickest acting and most effective medication for prevention of cluster headaches?

A

prednisone

178
Q

What is the FDA approved tx for prevention of migraine headaches?

A

propranolol (SSRIs are often used, but not FDA approved)

179
Q

What are the premier migraine abortive drugs?

A

Triptans

180
Q

Which one can be found as an injectable: ergotamine or dihydroergotamine?

A

dihydroergotamine (ergotamine comes inroad tablet or suppository; DHE comes in IM and IV)

181
Q

How do vigabatrine and tiagabine work?

A

vig: GABA transaminase binder (slows down breakdown of GABA)tiag: GABA reuptake inhibitor

182
Q

What drugs binds to synaptic vesicle protein 2 resulting in less neurotransmitter release and what is it used for?

A

levetiracetam; anti-convulsant

183
Q

MS drugs: dacilizumab and alemtuzumab: how do they work?

A

dac: binds IL-2 and prevents activation of T cells (have to fail two other drugs before going on)alem: binds CD52 receptors on mature lymphocytes (can cause ITP)

184
Q

Name 5 secondary progressive MS treatments (4 immunosupppresants, and 1 that works by broad immune suppression and modulation of B cells, t cells, and macrophages (anthracenedione))

A

4: CAMM: cylcophosphamide, azathioprine, methotrexate, mycophenolate mofetil1: mitoxantrone

185
Q

How do LSD, mescaline, and psilocybin work?

A

They are agonists at 5HT2A receptors – inhibition of Raphe Nuclei firing – increased sensory input; also are partial dopamine agonists

186
Q

What is the endogenous cannabinoid? Name two synthetic THC compounds

A

anandamide; dronabinol, nabilone(they all hit CB1, CB2, which are GPCR)

187
Q

What does fomepizole and N-acetylcysteine do?

A

fom: blocks alcohol dehydrogenase - used for methanol and ethylene glycol poisoning (expensive)N-ac: supplies sulfhydryl groups to glutathione (antioxidant) (acetaminophen OD antidote)

188
Q

What is nalmefene?

A

An opioid antagonist

MS2 Unit3 Neurology (10 decks)

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