737 ATP Flashcards
(680 cards)
1
Q
Runway Slope
A
+/- 2%
2
Q
Max tailwind / crosswind
A
15 / 36 (max demonstrated crosswind
w/winglets=33 knots)
3
Q
Max Speed
A
320/.82
4
Q
Turbulent Speed
A
280/.78
5
Q
Max Altitude
A
41,000 ft.
6
Q
Max Takeoff & Landing Altitude
A
8,400 ft.
7
Q
Max Ramp Weight
A
174,700 lbs. (IGW) 156,000 lbs. (STD)
8
Q
Max Takeoff Weight (MTOW)
A
174,200 lbs. (IGW) 155,500 lbs. (STD)
9
Q
Max Landing Weight (MLW)
A
144,000 lbs.
10
Q
Max Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW)
A
136,000 lbs.
11
Q
Max Cabin Differential Pressure
A
9.1 PSI
12
Q
APU Bleed and Electrical
A
10,000 ft.*
13
Q
APU Bleed Only
A
17,000 ft.
14
Q
APU Electrical Only
A
41,000 ft.
15
Q
Min Altitude for A/P ON after Takeoff
A
400 ft.
16
Q
Min Altitude for A/P ON During Non-Pre App
A
50 ft below minimums
17
Q
Maximum Engine Limits
A
Redline
18
Q
Minimum Engine Limits
A
Redline
19
Q
Caution Limits
A
Amber
20
Q
Engine Ignition Must be ON For
A
Takeoff, Landing, Heavy Rain, Anti-Ice
21
Q
Max Flap Extension Altitude
A
20,000 ft.
22
Q
Min Altitude For Speed Brake Use
A
1,000 ft.
23
Q
Alternate Flap Duty Cycle (down & up)
A
Flaps 1 thru 15 = 5 min; Flaps >15 = 25 mins
24
Q
Fuel System Minimum Temperatures
A
-43 degrees C or fuel freeze plus 3 degrees C
25
Fuel System Maximum Temperatures
+49 degrees C
26
Fuel IMBAL For Taxi/Takeoff or Landing
1,000 lbs.
27
Icing Condition Temperature
10C / 50F
28
ADIRU Alignment Must Not be Attempted at
| Latitudes Greater than
⇒ 78 degrees 15 minutes
⇒ *Under Captain’s Emergency Authority, APU
has demonstrated the capability to supply
both bleed air and electrical power up to
20,000 feet altitude.
29
What do you have left when on standby power?
?
30
What engine instruments are left on standby?
?`
31
What engine instruments are self generating?
?
32
If start engine valve does not close, what do you
| do and why?
?
33
What is difference between LE flaps transit light
on fwd panel and transit yellow lights on aft
overhead?
?
34
Hydraulic discussion
⇒ What to look for on gauges for quantities?
⇒ What do you see if a leak in A or B occurs?
⇒ Discussion of Landing Gear Transfer Unit
⇒ Do system A and B mix fluid?
35
What is the alternate flap limit (1 cycle)?
⇒ What is 1 cycle? 15° or 40°?, therefore don’t
normally have to worry about time limit on
alternate flaps
⇒ Discussion of why time limit.
a. 0 - 15 = more lift
b. 15 - 30 = more drag
c. therefore more effort for motor to drive
flaps down
36
Discuss DC meter selector switch - what does it
| do?
?
37
Discuss bus transfer switch - what does it do?
```
⇒ Why are there two switch positions?
a. AUTO - provides 3 items – BTBs, DC bus
tie relay, TR3 transfer works
automatically
b. OFF-Prevents automatic transfer
```
38
What does flight recorder off light mean?
⇒ Can you go without F.R.? (MEL)
39
Discussion of duct overheat lights
⇒ What if in conjunction w/ bleed trip off?
| a. What to do? I.e. warm up, cool off?
40
L Wing body overheat light on.
⇒ Where are sensors?
| ⇒ What do they do?
41
Pressurization - what power sources?
```
⇒ What indicators do you have with electrical
failure?
a. Cabin rate of climb
⇒ How to control pressure normally and
manually?
```
42
Discussion of fire warning system
⇒ What do you see?
⇒ What do you see on test?
⇒ Discussion of where fuel valves are and what
opens or closes them
a. Fire switch @ fuel control
b. Start lever @ strut
⇒ Mentioned to watch for fuel valve closed
light to indicate that valve actually closed
(Look for this in sim check)
43
Discussion of zero fuel weights
?
44
With the Flight Recorder switch in NORMAL, when
does the flight recorder operate?
On the ground?
In the air?
⇒ Oil pressure on first engine started
⇒ Any electrical power available
45
What does an illuminated OFF light mean
| adjacent to the Flight Recorder switch?
⇒ Power failure, loss of input data or electronic
| malfunction, test failed
46
What are some of the things that the flight
| recorder monitors?
⇒ Altitude
⇒ Heading
⇒ Acceleration
⇒ Airspeed
47
Where is the flight recorder located?
⇒ Aft cabin ceiling
48
What does the Crew Oxygen gage indicate?
⇒ Crew O2 pressure at the bottle
49
What is normal crew O2 pressure?
⇒ 1,850 psi
50
What is the normal minimum crew O2 pressure for
| dispatch?
⇒ According to table in performance inflight
51
Where is the crew O2 bottle located?
⇒ Aft end of the E&E compartment
52
How is the crew O2 bottle accessed?
⇒ Thru the forward cargo compartment
| forward bulkhead access panel
53
What happens if the crew O2 bottle becomes
| overheated and thermally discharges?
⇒ Green disk will be gone (on pre-flight
| inspection)
54
What kind of crew O2 do you get in NORMAL
| operation of the crew mask?
⇒ Air/O2 mix on demand
55
What kind of crew O2 do you get in 100%?
⇒ 100% oxygen on demand
56
What kind of crew O2 do you get in EMERGENCY?
⇒ 100% oxygen under pressure
57
Where is the passenger O2 supply stored?
⇒ Each individual PSU unit
58
With the switch in the guarded NORMAL position,
| when will the passenger O2 masks be presented?
⇒ Approximately 14,000 feet cabin pressure
59
What is the function of the ON position of the
| PASS O2 switch?
⇒ Manual activation of pax oxy doors
60
How many masks are connected to each
| passenger O2 generator?
⇒ 4 at passenger seats, 2 at flight attendants
| and lavatories
61
What is indicated by the illuminated PASS OXY
| ON light?
⇒ System activated
62
With the PASS OXY ON light illuminated, what
| other light might you expect to see ON?
⇒ Auto fail light
⇒ MC lights
⇒ Overhead annunciator (ALT Horn @ 10,000
feet cabin altitude)
63
When does the passenger O2 generator actually
| start to manufacture oxygen?
⇒ First mask pulled down on each bank of seats
64
How long will passenger O2 flow through the
| passenger masks, once activated?
⇒ 12 minutes
65
Can the passenger O2 be shut off after flow is
| initiated?
⇒ No
66
What can you do if a passenger oxygen mask
| compartment does not open when activated?
⇒ Manually open
67
Should passengers use oxygen when the cabin
| altitude is below 14,000 ft.? Why not?
⇒ No, air is mix of O2 and cabin air
68
What is available with the Service Interphone in
| the OFF position?
⇒ Flight deck to cabin
| ⇒ Cabin to flight deck
69
What is available with the Service Interphone in
| the ON position?
⇒ Connects all external jacks
70
With the Service interphone switch in the OFF
position, is communication between flight deck
and cabin possible?
⇒ Yes
71
Is there an exterior service interphone switch?
| Where?
⇒ No, there is an external flight interphone jack
| located on the external power panel
72
What does PSEU stand for?
⇒ Proximity Switch Electronic Unit
73
What does the PSEU monitor?
⇒ Air/Ground sensors
⇒ Configuration status/alerts
⇒ Overwing exit locks
74
When is the PSEU light inhibited?
⇒ In flight (takeoff power to 30 sec after
| landing)
75
Should you be concerned with the PSEU light if it
| is illuminated on the ground?
⇒ Yes
76
Should you be concerned with the PSEU light if it
| illuminates during recall?
⇒ No, if it will cancel by pushing the MC light, it
| is ok to go
77
Are there any limitations on the use of the
| windshield wipers?
⇒ Don’t use on a dry windshield
78
Why is it important not to use wipers on a dry
| windshield?
⇒ Will destroy rain repellant coating
79
What sort of rain repellant system do we use?
⇒ Rain repellant coating (like Rain-X)
80
In the ARMED position, when will the emergency
| lights come on?
⇒ Loss of DC bus 1 or AC power has been
| turned off
81
What do the EMERGENCY LIGHTS illuminate?
⇒ Aisle lights; entry/exit lights; escape path
lighting; dome light; locator
⇒ signs; area lighting; exterior area lighting
82
Where is the other EMERGENCY LIGHT switch?
⇒ AFT flight attendants panel
83
Will the AFT flight attendant panel Emergency
| Light switch override the cockpit switch?
⇒ Yes
84
What cockpit light(s) are controlled by the
| emergency light switch?
⇒ Flt deck CAPT dome light
85
What does the blue light on the audio control
| panel indicate?
⇒ Ground or cabin is trying to call
86
Can you call the personnel on the ground?
⇒ Yes
87
How is this accomplished?
⇒ Thru the ground call button and nosewheel
| well horn
88
Where is the CVR circuit breaker located?
⇒ Behind the captain’s seat
89
When does the CVR start recording?
⇒ Anytime 115V AC is applied to the A/C
90
How long is the CVR recording?
⇒ 120 minutes (older than 120 min is auto
| erased)
91
How do you erase what is on the CVR?
⇒ On ground, parking brake set, hold 2 sec
92
What is unique to the EQUIP door light?
⇒ Only door light that has two doors associated
| with it
93
What does the Lights test position do?
⇒ illuminates (at full brightness) all system
lights on center pedestal, overhead panel,
and most lights on instrument panel.
94
Which NAV modes will display TCAS traffic?
⇒ Map, center map, VOR or APP modes
95
What does a TA look like?
⇒ Solid amber circle
96
What does a RA look like?
⇒ Solid red square
97
What does pitch guidance on the PFD look like
| during a RA?
⇒ Restrictive red bands
98
What does vertical speed guidance on the IVSI
| look like during a RA?
⇒ Red-do not fly to / Green-fly to
99
In the TA/RA mode, when is an RA inhibited?
⇒ Stall
⇒ Windshear
⇒ GPWS
⇒ Less than 1,000 FT RA
100
What are the sources of bleed air?
⇒ engines, APU, ground air
101
What is bleed air used for?
⇒ Anti-ice, air cond, press of water, HYD
pressurization, engine start, (and aspirated
TAT probe if installed)
102
What is indicated by an illuminated DUAL BLEED
| light?
⇒ APU bleed open with #1 eng bleed switched
position or APU bleed open with #2 eng
bleed open and isolation valve open
103
What would cause an Engine Bleed tripoff?
⇒ Excessive pressure or temperature
104
How does the Isolation Valve work in AUTO?
⇒ Valve is closed when all engine bleeds and
| pack switches are on
105
What would cause a L WING BODY OVERHEAT
| light to illuminate?
⇒ Duct leak left side (eng strut, wing leading
edge, air conditioning bay, keel beam, or APU
duct)
106
What would case a R WING BODY OVERHEAT light
| to illuminate?
⇒ Duct leak on right side
107
Can a BLEED TRIP OFF be reset?
⇒ Yes
108
Can a WING BODY OVERHEAT be reset?
⇒ No
109
Equipment cooling is for the most part automatic.
When would you have to interact with the
system?
⇒ When the OFF light illuminates
110
What does the Equipment Cooling OFF light
| indicate?
⇒ Loss of air flow due to fan failure
111
How many Supply fans are there? Exhaust fans?
⇒ Two, two
112
Where is equipment exhaust air drawn from?
⇒ Flight deck displays, overhead and AFT
electronic panels, circuit breaker panels and E
& E bay
113
Where is equipment cooling air exhausted?
⇒ Overboard exhaust valve (when open)
| ⇒ Outflow valve when OEV closed
114
If a supply or exhaust fan should fail when on the
| ground, what indication would you get?
⇒ MC Light with an Overhead annunciation and
| a nosewheel well horn
115
Is a single PACK capable of supplying all of the air
conditioning and pressurization requirements of
the airplane?
⇒ Yes
116
What is indicated by a PACK light?
⇒ Pack trip (overheat) or dual controller failure
117
When would you get HIGH flow if both packs were
| in AUTO?
⇒ Both engine bleeds off and APU bleed on
118
If on downwind at 5 flaps and you had a pack to
| fault, would the remaining pack go to high flow?
⇒ No, not with flaps out
119
Is it recommended to operate two packs from a
| single bleed?
⇒ No
120
When would it be feasible?
⇒ on the ground with the APU
121
What sort of flow does the APU produce when a
| pack is in HIGH on the ground?
⇒ Max rate
122
What is indicated by a CONT CAB zone temp light?
⇒ Duct temp overheat or dual controller failure
123
What is indicated by a FWD CAB zone temp light?
⇒ Duct temp overheat
124
What is indicated by a AFT CAB zone temp light?
⇒ Duct temp overheat
125
Can the AFT CAB zone temp light be reset?
⇒ Yes
126
If both the primary and secondary controllers for
| a pack fail, will the pack continue to operate?
⇒ Yes
127
Why would the engineers design an air
conditioning system that is so seemingly difficult
to understand?
⇒ To make it simple to operate
128
When you move a zone temperature control up,
| what are you asking the system to do?
⇒ Add warm trim (bleed) air
129
What do recirculation fans do?
⇒ Reduce pack workload and bleed air demand
| which saves fuel
130
How would you achieve maximum cooling on the
| ground?
⇒ Packs in auto, APU bleed open, & engine
| bleeds closed
131
Which windows do the air vent controls defrost?
⇒ The #1 windows only
132
What is the maximum differential pressure?
⇒ 9.1 PSI
133
What is indicated by an AUTOFAIL light
| illuminated by itself?
⇒ Dual controller failure
134
What is indicated by an AUTOFAIL light
| illuminated along with the ALTN light?
⇒ Single controller failure
135
What is indicated by the OFF SCHED DESCENT
| light?
⇒ Aircraft descended prior to (.25 PSI) reaching
| cruise altitude
136
What is the result of changing the FLT ALT setting
| after takeoff?
⇒ Inhibits auto return feature
137
How does the operation of the outflow valve in
| manual compare with the operation in AUTO?
⇒ Slower (20 seconds-full closed to full open)
138
What condition would cause an AUTO FAIL light
| to illuminate?
```
⇒ Excessive rate of cabin change (+/- 2000 FPM)
⇒ Loss of DC power
⇒ Controller fault
⇒ Outflow valve problem
⇒ High cabin pressure (>8.75 PSI)
⇒ High cabin altitude (15,800 FT)
```
139
What does the HIGH ALT LDG Option Switch do?
⇒ Reprograms initiation of cabin altitude
| warning horn from 10,000 ft to 12,500 ft.
140
What does ENG VALVE CLOSED mean when bright
| blue?
⇒ In transit or disagreement
141
What does ENG VALVE CLOSED mean when dim
| blue?
⇒ Valve closed
142
What does SPAR VALVE CLOSED mean when
| bright blue?
⇒ In transit or disagreement
143
What does SPAR VALVE CLOSED mean when dim
| blue?
⇒ Valve closed
144
What is the position of the engine valve or spar
| valve if the lights are extinguished?
⇒ Open
145
Which valve is controlled by the start lever,
| engine valve or spar valve?
⇒ Both, Spar valve and engine valve
146
Which one of these valves is controlled by the
| engine fire switch?
⇒ Both
147
Which one of these valves is controlled by the
| respective EEC?
⇒ Engine valve
148
What is the maximum fuel temperature?
⇒ 49C
149
What is the minimum fuel temperature?
⇒ -43C or fuel freeze +3C (whichever is higher)
150
What is indicated by a FILTER BYPASS light?
⇒ Impending filter bypass (contaminated fuel)
151
Could the Filter Bypass light be ice? Why not?
⇒ Not likely. Fuel is warmed prior to entering
| filter
152
If a fuel valve is in transit, is it bright or dim?
⇒ Bright
153
Is the fuel crossfeed from tank to tank or tank to
| engine?
⇒ Tank to engine
154
How many valves are controlled with the
| crossfeed switch?
⇒ One
155
What electrical power is needed to operate the
| crossfeed valve?
⇒ Battery bus
156
Are the Center Tank FUEL LOW PRESS lights
| always armed to indicate low pressure?
⇒ No, only in ON position
157
What does the Center Tank FUEL LOW PRESS
| lights mean?
⇒ Pumps are on with output either LOW or NO
| pressure
158
If only one Center Tank LOW PRESS light is on, will
| the Master Caution light illuminate?
⇒ Yes, it only takes one LOW PRESS light to give
you the MC lights and FUEL ANNUNCIATOR
on the center tanks
159
With one Center Tank pump OFF, will illumination
of the opposite low press light illuminate the MC
light?
⇒ Yes
160
What is the electrical power source for the center
| tank pumps?
⇒ AC Power
161
What is the electrical power source for the main
| tank fuel pumps?
⇒ AC Power
162
What does illumination of a AFT/FWD fuel LOW
| PRESS light mean?
⇒ Low output press or switch is off
163
What sort of indication would you get with the
illumination of just one LOW PRESS light in the
center tank?
⇒ Master caution and fuel annunciator on recall
164
What indication would you get with illumination
| of both LOW PRESS lights in the same tank?
⇒ Master caution and fuel annunciator lights
165
How many fuel sticks are there in a Main Tank?
⇒ six
166
How many fuel sticks are there in the Center
| Tank?
⇒ four
167
Which fuel is used first, Center Tank or Main
| Tank?
⇒ Center tank fuel
168
Do Center Tank pumps produce the same
| pressure as Main Tank pumps?
⇒ No, higher output
169
Engines have mechanical fuel pumps. Can they
| suck fuel?
⇒ Yes
170
Can fuel be suctioned from the Main Tanks? Why?
⇒ Yes. They have a bypass valve
171
Can fuel be suctioned from the Center Tank?
| Why?
⇒ No. No bypass valve
172
The Center Tank has a fuel scavenge jet pump.
| What does it do?
⇒ Transfers remaining center tank fuel to #1
main tank when #1 main tank is
approximately half full and #1 fwd boost
pump is running
173
Where is the fuel temperature sensor located?
⇒ #1 main tank
174
Which tank can supply the APU?
⇒ Any tank with the appropriate pump on and
| crossfeed position
175
Which tank can the APU suction feed from?
⇒ #1 main tank
176
What is the total capacity of the fuel system?
⇒ 46,000 lbs
177
How much fuel can the Center Tank hold?
⇒ 28,800 lbs
178
What does LOW indicate on the main tank gages?
⇒ Fuel quantity less than 2.000 lbs
179
Can you get a LOW indication on the Center Tank
| gage?
⇒ no
180
What does CONFIG indicate on the Center Tank
| gage?
⇒ Center tank quantity >1600 lbs with low or
| no pump pressure and engine is running
181
What does IMBAL indicate on the Main Tank
| gage?
⇒ Mains differ by more than 1000 lbs
182
The APU is located where on this airplane?
⇒ In the tail, fireproof compartment
183
If you tried to start the APU and had no luck, is
| there anything you could check?
⇒ Battery switch on, fire handles in cockpit and
| in the wheelwell
184
How long can it take the APU to start?
⇒ Up to 120 seconds
185
What are some requirements to start the APU?
⇒ BATT switch must be on and inlet door must
| be fully open
186
What happens if the APU has not started by the
| end of the start cycle?
⇒ Auto shutdown
187
What happens if the APU GEN OFF BUS light has
| not illuminated by the end of the start cycle?
⇒ Auto shutdown & fault light illuminates
188
If a fault is sensed by the APU, what happens?
⇒ Auto shutdown
189
What are some of the things that will cause an
| auto shutdown of the APU?
```
⇒ Fire
⇒ Low oil pressure
⇒ High oil temperature
⇒ Overspeed
⇒ Fuel control unit fail
⇒ High EGT temperature
⇒ Other ECU faults
```
190
How long should the APU be operated before
| using it as a bleed source?
⇒ One minute
191
Why is it recommended waiting one minute
| before selecting bleed source after APU start?
⇒ To increase the service life
192
Is it mandatory to wait one minute after APU start
| to select as bleed source?
⇒ No, but it is recommended. As soon as the
APU GEN OFF BUS light illuminates it is ready
to take a load
193
When the APU switch is moved to OFF, does the
| APU shut down immediately?
⇒ No
194
How could you shut the APU down immediately?
⇒ APU fire handle or BATT switch
195
During engine start will the APU ECU favor bleed
| air or electrical load?
⇒ Bleed air
196
At other times is this APU load logic the same?
⇒ No, electrical load is favored
197
Does the battery switch have to be ON in order to
| start the APU?
⇒ Yes
198
How do you know if the APU is ready to accept a
| bleed air or electrical load?
⇒ APU GEN off bus light illuminates
199
What is indicated by the MAINT light?
⇒ Maintenance should be notified
200
Can you operate the APU with the MAINT light
| on?
⇒ You can still use the APU if required
201
What is indicated by the APU LOW OIL PRESS
| light?
⇒ Startup or shutdown due to low oil pressure
202
Can you operate the APU with the LOW OIL PRESS
| light on?
⇒ No, this will cause an auto shutdown
203
What is indicated by the APU FAULT light?
⇒ Some fault caused auto shutdown
204
What is indicated by the APU OVERSPEED light?
⇒ APU RPM limit exceeded with a
| corresponding auto shutdown
205
What is indicated by an APU OVERSPEED light on
| shutdown?
⇒ Feature has failed a self-test during a normal
| APU shutdown
206
Will an APU LOW OIL PRESSURE alert shut the APU
| down before the start cycle is complete?
⇒ No
207
Approximately how long does it take for the APU
| inlet door to open or close?
⇒ 20 seconds
208
What does an illuminated STBY HYD LOW
| QUANTITY light indicate?
⇒ Low quality (approx 50%)
209
Is this STBY HYD LOW QUANTITY light always
| armed?
⇒ Yes
210
What does an illuminated STBY HYD LOW
| PRESSURE light indicate?
⇒ Low pressure
211
Is the STBY HDY LOW PRESSURE light always
| armed?
⇒ No
212
When is the STBY HDY LOW PRESSURE light
| armed?
⇒ When the standby system is armed or
| operating
213
What does an illuminated STBY RUD ON light
| indicate?
⇒ The standby rudder system is commanded
on to pressurize the standby rudder power
control unit
214
When does illumination of the STBY RUD ON light
| take place?
⇒ When the force fight monitor (FFM) detects
opposing pressure between A and B
actuators (this may occur if either system A or
B is jammed or disconnected) or if Stby
rudder switch is on (A or B)
215
What is indicated by an electric pump OVERHEAT
| light?
⇒ Associated pump has overheated
⇒ (Abex electric motor driven hydraulic pump
option)
⇒ If an overheat is detected in either pump, the
related overheat light illuminates
⇒ (Vickers electric motor driven hydraulic pump
option)
⇒ If an overheat is detected in either pump, the
related overheat light illuminates, power is
removed from the pump and the low
pressure light illuminates
216
What is indicated by a LOW PRESSURE light?
⇒ Output pressure is low
217
When is the engine LOW PRESSURE light
| deactivated?
⇒ When the associated engine fire handle is
| pulled
218
When is the electric pump LOW PRESSURE light
| deactivated
⇒ Never
219
What happens when you turn OFF an engine
| pump switch?
⇒ Blocks output pressure (by way of a blocking
| solenoid)
220
What happens in the hydraulic system when you
| pull and engine fire switch?
⇒ Shuts off fluid to the pump and deactivates
| the low pressure light
221
What is the normal hyd system pressure?
⇒ 3,000 PSI
222
What is the maximum hyd system pressure?
⇒ 3,500 PSI
223
What is the minimum hyd system pressure?
⇒ 2,800 PSI
224
What does an RF mean adjacent to the hydraulic
| quantity gage?
⇒ Refill
225
When is a RF indicated adjacent to hyd qty?
⇒ Quantity less than 76%
226
Which hydraulic system powers the:
```
Gear A
TE Flaps + LE Devices B
Alternate Brakes A
Normal Brakes B
Flight Spoilers ½ by A
(2 out of four ea. wing) ½ by B
Autopilot A A
Autopilot B B
Ailerons A&B
Rudder A&B
Elevator A&B
Thrust reverser #1 A
Thrust reverser #2 B
PTU A
LGTU B
Ground Spoilers A
Yaw Damper B
Nose wheel steering A
Alt Nose wheel steering B
```
227
How does the output of an electric pump compare
| with the engine driven pump?
⇒ Engine driven pump output volume 4 times
| greater
228
Where are the heat exchangers for the (electric)
| hydraulic fluid located?
⇒ Main fuel tanks
229
How much fuel is required in the tanks for ground
| operation of the electric hyd pumps?
⇒ 1675 lbs
230
What are the consequences of a leak in System A
| engine pump or lines?
⇒ Fluid Leaks to standpipe (approx 20% left at
| standpipe)
231
What are the consequences of a leak in System A
| electric pump?
⇒ Complete fluid loss
232
What are the consequences of a leak in System B?
⇒ Fluid loss to standpipe (still allows PTU
| operation)
233
What are the consequences of a leak in the STBY
| System?
⇒ Complete fluid loss (B system to 72%)
234
What does the PTU do?
⇒ LED extension and retraction; autoslat
| operation (airborne, flaps
235
What does the LGTU do?
⇒ B system transfers fluid to A system to help
| raise the gear
236
What does the STBY Hydraulic system power?
⇒ Standby rudder, thrust reversers, leading
edge devices, and Stby yaw damper (manual
reversion)
237
How is the STBY HYD System activated manually?
⇒ STBY rudder or ALT flaps master SW
238
How is the STBY HYD System activated
| automatically?
⇒ Loss of system A or B, flaps not up, 60 KTS
| or greater or airborne or FFM activated
239
What is the purpose of the overhead gear lights?
⇒ Redundant, do not need view ports
240
What is indicated by a three-green indication on
the overhead gear lights and only two-green
indication on the center forward panel?
⇒ Gear is down and locked
241
Does the same set of circuits operate both sets of
| lights on the overhead & center forward panel?
⇒ No
242
What is the OFF gear handle position for?
⇒ Removes hydraulic pressure from landing
| gear system
243
What is the gear handle trigger for?
⇒ Allows landing gear to be raised, bypassing
| the lever lock
244
What normally releases the lever lock on the
| landing gear?
⇒ Air/ground sensing
245
When the gear handle is raised on takeoff, what
| takes place?
⇒ Hydraulic pressure releases uplocks, brakes
stop tire rotation, retraction is accomplished,
mechanical uplocks engage to hold gear up
246
When the gear handle is moved to the DOWN
| position, what happens?
⇒ HYD press releases uplocks
⇒ Gear extends by HYD press, airloads and
gravity
⇒ Overcenter mechanical and HYD locks hold
the gear at full extension
247
What is indicated by a red gear light?
⇒ Not down and locked throttle(s) idle & less
than 800 ft RA or disagreement with lever (intransit
of unsafe)
248
What is indicated by all lights extinguished?
⇒ Gear is up and locked
249
Which hydraulic system is used for alternate nose
| wheel steering?
⇒ System B
250
Is alternate nose wheel steering ever
| automatically selected?
⇒ No
251
In the normal mode, which hydraulic system is
| providing power for steering?
⇒ System A
252
In the alternate mode, which hydraulic system is
| providing power for steering?
⇒ System B
253
What does pressing the landing gear warning
| horn button accomplish?
⇒ Silences landing gear warning horn
254
Does pushing the landing gear warning horn
| button always cancel the configuration horn?
⇒ No
255
When does the landing gear warning horn button
| not cancel the configuration horn?
⇒ Flaps 15 or greater with landing gear up
256
What does RTO refer to?
⇒ REJECTED TAKEOFF MODE
257
When do you get autobrakes when this mode is
| armed?
⇒ THROTTLES IDLE ABOVE 90 KNOTS
258
What happens if you reject the takeoff below 90
| knots?
⇒ No autobrakes are activated and RTO remains
| armed
259
What conditions must exist in order to arm RTO?
⇒ On the ground anti-skid and autobrakes
operational RTO selected at less than 60
knots idle power
260
What happens to the RTO mode when airborne?
⇒ It is automatically disarmed
261
What happens to RTO switch when airborne?
⇒ It does not move from RTO
262
What happens if you land in the RTO mode?
⇒ No autobrake action occurs
263
What happens when you first select an autobrake
| mode for landing?
⇒ Does a self-test
264
What is indicated by a successful self-test?
⇒ Autobrake Disarm light illuminates for one
| second then extinguishes
265
What is indicated by an unsuccessful self-test?
⇒ Autobrake disarm light remains illuminated
| and system does not arm
266
How many levels of deceleration can be selected
| with Autobrakes?
⇒ Four
267
What kind of braking do you get in the MAX
| Autobrake mode?
⇒ Less than produced by full pedal braking
268
What is different about selecting MAX?
⇒ You must pull the switch out and rotate
269
After landing, when does autobrake application
| begin?
⇒ Both thrust levers to idle main wheels spinup
270
Can landing autobrake selections be made after
| landing?
⇒ Yes
271
When can you select after landing
⇒ Any time above 60 knots
272
Will the autobrake system completely stop the
| airplane?
⇒ Yes
273
How can the pilot disarm the autobrake system?
⇒ Move the selector switch to off
⇒ Speed brake lever to the down detent
⇒ Advancing a throttle momentarily
⇒ Manual braking
274
Will autobrakes operate with alternate brake
| system?
⇒ No
275
Will autobrakes operate with accumulator
| pressure?
⇒ No
276
Do Alternate brakes have anti-skid protection?
⇒ Yes
277
What is different about anti-skid protection with
| alternate brakes?
⇒ Paired wheels
278
What kind of protection is available with normal
| brakes?
⇒ Individual wheels
279
If the anti-skid light is ON, does anti-skid work?
⇒ No
280
What types of anti-skid are available?
⇒ Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and
| hydroplane
281
What does an illuminated ANTI-SKID light
| indicate?
⇒ A system fault exists
282
What is normal brake pressure?
⇒ 3,000 PSI
283
What is maximum brake pressure?
⇒ 3,500 PSI
284
What is the normal brake precharge pressure?
⇒ 1,000 PSI
285
Which system pressurizes the brake accumulator?
⇒ System B
286
With accumulator only what braking is available?
⇒ Several applications and parking brake
287
What light might you see on the forward panel if
| there is a fault in the parking brake system?
Anti-skid inop light
288
What is being tested when this stall test switch is
| pushed?
⇒ SMYD (Stall Management & Yaw Damper
| Computer)
289
When can you perform the test of the stall
| warning system?
⇒ On the ground
290
What electrical power must be available for the
| stall test?
⇒ AC power
291
When is the stall warning system armed for
| operation?
⇒ In flight
292
Will the FO’s stick shaker be felt on the Captain’s
| control column?
⇒ Yes
293
What does the amber color on the Leading Edge
| Device annunciator represent?
⇒ LED in transit
294
What does the green color on the Leading Edge
| Device annunciator represent?
⇒ LED in extend or full extend position
295
What color is the annunciator for an LED in
| transit?
⇒ Amber
296
What color is the annunciator for an LED in a
| proper position?
⇒ Green or Extinguished (retracted)
297
What is wrong if all lights on the LED are
| extinguished?
⇒ Nothing
298
Why do leading edge flaps have just two positions
| on the annunciator?
⇒ They are either retracted or extended
299
Why do leading edge slats have three positions
| on the annunciator?
⇒ Retracted, Extended or Full Extended
300
When might a green light be an indication of an
| abnormal condition?
⇒ LED jammed or in an improper or
| uncommanded position
301
If this panel was inoperative, where could you
| monitor LED’s in transit?
⇒ Forward Instrument Panel LE flaps in transit
| light
302
Is autoslat movement displayed on the LED
| annunciator panel?
⇒ Yes
303
Is autoslat movement displayed on the LE FLAPS
| TRANSIT light on the Center Forward Panel?
⇒ No, this light is inhibited during autoslat ops
304
What happens when you press the test switch?
⇒ All lights on the annunciator panel illuminate
305
Do the LED annunciator lights test with the
MASTER LIGHTS TEST switch on the forward
panel?
⇒ Yes
306
At what flap setting do slats move to the EXTEND
| position?
⇒ Flaps 1, 2, & 5
307
At what flap setting do the leading edge flaps
| move to FULL EXTEND?
Flaps 1 or greater
308
At what flap setting do slats move to the FULL
| EXTEND position?
⇒ Flaps 10 or greater
309
How many ailerons are there?
⇒ Two
310
How many elevators are there?
⇒ Two
311
How many rudder sections are there?
⇒ One
312
How are the ailerons operated normally?
```
⇒ Cables connect control wheels to the
hydraulic PCUs (power control units)
```
313
How are the ailerons operated with the loss of
| Hyd. System A or B?
⇒ No change from normal
314
How are the ailerons operated with loss of both
| Systems A and B?
⇒ Manually by cables
315
What is installed on the ailerons to aid with
| manual reversion flight?
⇒ Balance tab
316
How are the elevators operated normally?
⇒ Cables connect control columns to PCUs
317
Are the elevators interconnected?
⇒ Yes, by a torque tube
318
How are the elevators operated with the loss of
| System A or B?
⇒ No change from normal
319
How are the elevators operated with the loss of
| both systems A and B?
⇒ Manually by cables
320
What is installed on the elevators to aid with
| manual reversion flight?
⇒ Balance tabs
321
How is the rudder operated normally?
⇒ Cables connected to hydraulic PCUs
322
Are the rudder pedals interconnected?
⇒ Yes
323
Which hydraulic system normally powers the
| main rudder PCU?
⇒ Both A and B
324
Which hydraulic system normally powers the
| main yaw damper?
⇒ System B
325
How is the rudder operated with the loss of
| System A?
⇒ System B and STANDBY rudder PCU
326
How is the rudder operated with the loss of
| System B?
⇒ System A and STANDBY rudder PCU
327
How is the rudder operated with the loss of both
| Systems A and B
⇒ STANDBY rudder PCU
328
What happens if the FLT CONTROL A switch is
| moved to OFF?
⇒ Flight control shutoff valve closes isolating
| flight controls from system A hydraulics
329
What happens if the FLT CONTROL A switch is
| moved to STBY RUD?
Activates the standby pump and opens the
| standby rudder shutoff valve
330
What happens if the FLT CONTROL B switch is
| moved to OFF?
⇒ Flight control shutoff valve closes isolating
| flight controls from the system B hydraulics
331
What happens if the FLT CONTROL B switch is
| moved to STBY RUD?
⇒ Activates the standby pump and opens the
| standby rudder shutoff val
332
What happens if both FLT CONTROL switches are
| moved to OFF?
⇒ Pressure from both A and B systems is
removed from the elevators, ailerons, and
the rudder
333
What happens if both FLT CONTROL switches are
| moved to STBY RUD?
⇒ Standby rudder PCU is still powered, flight
controls revert to manual ops, & standby yaw
damper is enabled (turn switch on)
334
Would the operation of the primary flight controls
| be affected by a loss of System A or B?
⇒ No
335
Would the operation of the primary flight controls
| be affected by the loss of Systems A and B?
⇒ Yes
336
On the modified rudder system, what does the
| STBY RUD ON light mean?
⇒ It indicates the standby rudder system is
commanded on to pressurize the standby
rudder power control unit
337
What limits full rudder authority in flight after
| takeoff and before landing?
⇒ At speeds above approx 135 KTS, both hyd
system A and B pressure are reduced by 25%
each
338
What is the purpose of the Force Fight Monitor
| (FFM)?
⇒ It detects opposing pressure (force fight)
between A and B actuators in the main
rudder PCU
339
What happens if opposing pressure is detected?
⇒ The FFM automatically turns on the standby
hydraulic pump, opens the standby rudder
shutoff valve, and illuminates the STBY
rudder on, MC, and flight control light
340
How is the Captain’s control column connected to
| the primary flight controls?
⇒ Cables to the aileron PCUs
341
How is the FO’s control column connected to the
| primary controls?
⇒ Cables to the spoiler PCUs
342
Are the Captain’s and FO’s control wheels
| connected?
⇒ Yes – by a cable drive system
343
Would control forces be higher during manual
| reversion flight?
⇒ Yes – friction & airloads
344
What happens if an aileron or spoiler becomes
| jammed?
⇒ Aileron transfer mechanism allows operating
controls to be separated from non-operating
controls
345
How are the ailerons trimmed?
⇒ Electronically repositioning the aileron feel &
| centering unit
346
Where is the aileron trim indicated?
⇒ Top of the control column
347
Do the control wheels move when the ailerons are
| trimmed?
⇒ Yes
348
Can the aileron trim be used during manual
| reversion?
⇒ Yes
349
Should the aileron trim be used with an autopilot
| engaged? Why or why not?
⇒ No! Abrupt roll if not in trim when the A/P is
| disengaged
350
What happens if an elevator becomes jammed?
⇒ Transfer mechanism allows separation of
control columns to breakout operating
control column
351
What system is still available to assist with a
| jammed elevator?
⇒ Stab trim
352
How are the elevators trimmed
⇒ Only by mach trim above .615 mach
353
How is pitch trim accomplished?
⇒ Stab trim
354
How many speeds does the stabilizer trim motor
| have?
Two
355
When do these two speeds of stabilizer trim
| motor operate?
⇒ High speed with flaps extended and low
| speed with flaps retracted
356
How is the rudder trimmed?
⇒ Electronically and hydraulically repositioning
| the rudder Feel & Control Unit
357
When the rudder trim is used, are the rudder
| pedals displaced?
⇒ Yes
358
What is indicated by a FLT CONTROL LOW
| PRESSURE light?
⇒ Just that
359
Is this LOW PRESSURE light ever deactivated?
| When?
⇒ Yes, when standby rudder is on
360
In normal operation, would crew members be
| concerned with operating the SPOILER switches?
⇒ No
361
For what purpose are the SPOILER switches used?
⇒ Maintenance
362
How do spoilers aid with roll control of the
| airplane?
⇒ Spoilers rise on the wing with up aileron
when control wheel is displaced more than
10 degrees
363
How many spoiler panels are used as flight
| spoilers
⇒ 8
364
From what hydraulic system do flight spoilers
| receive pressure?
⇒ Half from A, half from B
365
What purpose other than roll control are the
| spoilers used?
⇒ Speedbrakes
366
When is flight spoiler activation initiated?
⇒ Approx 10 degrees of control wheel
| displacement
367
Which hydraulic system normally powers the
| main rudder PCU?
⇒ A and B systems
368
Which hydraulic system normally powers the
| main yaw damper?
⇒ B system
369
What condition would illuminate the yaw damper
| light?
⇒ B flt control switch off or stby rudder, or the
| SMYD computer senses a system fault
370
If hydraulic System B fails will the yaw damper
| switch move to OFF automatically?
⇒ No
371
Will the yaw damper switch ever move to OFF
| automatically?
⇒ Yes (B flt control switch to Off or stby
| rudder)
372
Can the yaw damper switch be turned ON after a
| loss of System B hydraulics (only)?
⇒ No
373
When can the yaw damper switch be turned ON
| after an automatic disengagement?
⇒ A & B flight control switches in stby rudder
374
How are the Trailing Edge flaps normally
| operated?
⇒ Hydraulically from system B
375
What is the backup system for operation of the TE
| flaps if the B system fails?
⇒ Electrically through the alternate flaps
| position switch
376
What happens when you move the ALT FLAPS
| MASTER switch to ARM?
⇒ Activates the standby pump
⇒ Arms alt flaps position switch
⇒ Closes the trailing edge flap bypass valve
377
How then are the TE flaps extended?
⇒ By an electric motor
378
Can the TE flaps be retracted with the ALT FLAPS
| POS switch?
⇒ Yes
379
What feature normally available would not be
| available during alternate flap operation?
⇒ Asymmetry and skew protection
380
What happens to the LED’s when you activate the
| ALT FLAPS POS switch?
⇒ All LEDs go to full extend
381
Can the LED’s be retracted with this switch?
⇒ No
382
Does the ALT FLAPS POS switch have to be held
| down until LED’s arrive at the desired position?
⇒ No
383
Does the ALT FLAPS POS switch have to be held
down until the TE flaps arrive at the desired
position?
⇒ Yes
384
Does the ALT FLAPS POS switch have to be held in
| the up position?
⇒ No (magnetically held UP)
385
What is the alternate flap duty cycle time for flap
| positions 1 to 15?
⇒ 5 Minutes off
386
What is the alternate flap duty cycle time for flap
| positions greater than 15?
⇒ 25 Minutes off
387
What would the illumination of the FEEL DIFF
| Pressure light indicate?
⇒ Excessive pressure differential
388
Which hydraulic systems send signals to the
| Elevator Feel Computer?
⇒ A and B Systems
389
Would the illumination of the FEEL DIFF
Pressure light mean that a hydraulic system has
failed?
⇒ Possibly
390
Could a problem with the elevator feel pitot
| tube cause FEEL DIFF Pressure light to illuminate?
⇒ Yes
391
What would the Speed Trim Fail light mean?
⇒ System failure (both channels)
392
What if the Speed Trim Fail light did not
| illuminate until recall?
⇒ Single channel failure
393
If the Speed Trim Fail light illuminated during
| recall, could it be reset?
⇒ Yes
394
What is the purpose of the Speed Trim?
⇒ To return the airplane to a trimmed speed
| condition
395
What are some of the conditions for Speed
| Trim operation?
⇒ Airspeed between 100 KIAS and MACH 0.5,
10 sec after takeoff; 5 sec following release of
trim switches
⇒ Autopilot not engaged
⇒ Sensing of trim requirements
396
What does the Speed Trim system trim?
⇒ The stabilizer
397
What is the purpose of the Elevator Feel Shift
| Module (EFS)?
⇒ Along with the speed trim and yaw damper
help identify and prevent further movement
into a stall condition
398
How does it prevent further movement?
⇒ Increases forward control column force to
| approx four times normal feel pressure
399
What would the MACH TRIM FAIL light mean?
⇒ System failure (both computers)
400
What if the MACH TRIM FAIL light illuminated
| only during recall?
⇒ Single channel failure
401
If the MACH TRIM FAIL light illuminated
| during recall, could it be reset?
⇒ Yes
402
When is mach trim automatically
| accomplished?
⇒ Above .615 MACH
403
With failure of the mach trim system, what is
| your speed restriction?
⇒ 280 KTS/ .82 MACH
404
What does the Mach Trim system trim?
⇒ The elevators
405
What is the purpose of the Mach Trim System?
⇒ Provides speed stability at higher MACH
| numbers (by preventing mach tuck)
406
What would the illumination of the AUTO
| SLAT FAIL light mean?
⇒ System failure (both computers)
407
What if the AUTO SLAT FAIL light illuminated
| only during recall?
⇒ Single SMYD channel failure
408
If the AUTO SLAT FAIL light illuminated only
on recall, would it extinguish when recall was
reset?
⇒ Yes
409
If the AUTO SLAT FAIL light were ON, would
| autoslats work
⇒ No
410
If the AUTO SLAT FAIL light were ON, would
| autoslats work with PTU power?
⇒ No
411
What does the SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM
| light mean?
⇒ Abnormal condition or test inputs to
| automatic speed brake system
412
What does the SPEED BRAKE ARMED light
| mean?
⇒ A valid automatic speed brake system input
413
When is the STAB OUT OF TRIM light armed?
⇒ (A/P ops) Auto-pilot engaged
414
What does the STAB OUT OF TRIM light mean?
⇒ Auto-pilot is not trimming stabilizer properly
(may be on momentarily with large power or
configuration changes)
415
What does the YAW DAMPER indicator
| display?
⇒ Yaw damper movement of the rudder
416
Does the YAW DAMPER indicator display
| rudder pedal input?
⇒ No
417
What can be determined from the Trailing
| Edge (TE) Flap indicator?
⇒ Flap position, Asymmetry or skew condition
418
What electrical power is needed for the flap
| position indicator?
⇒ 28V AC (transfer bus #2)
419
How would you be able to determine an
| asymmetry condition?
⇒ A split needle of the TE Flap indicator
420
What does the illumination of the LE FLAPS
| TRANSIT light indicate?
⇒ Any LED in transit
⇒ Any LED not in programmed position
⇒ Slat skew or asymmetry (inboard 3 only)
⇒ During alternate flap extension until reaching
TE flaps 10
421
Does the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light work during
| autoslat extension?
No
422
What causes the LE FLAPS EXT light to
| illuminate?
⇒ All LED’s extended (full ext with flaps 10 thru
| 40)
423
What other indicator can you use to
| determine position of the LED’s?
⇒ LED annunciator panel
424
What is indicated by the illumination of the
| SPEED BRAKES EXT light
⇒ In flight: beyond armed and TE flaps >10, or
| RA
425
Does the SPEED BRAKE LEVER have to be
| armed to get spoilers on an RTO?
⇒ No
426
Why doesn’t the SPEED BRAKE LEVER have to
| be armed during an RTO to get spoilers?
⇒ During an RTO, auto speed brake system
works when: Wheel Spin – up (60 knots),
reverse thrust is selected
427
Does the SPEED BRAKE LEVER have to be
| armed to get spoilers on landing?
⇒ Yes
428
When does the SPEEDBRAKE system operate
| on landing?
⇒ Armed (light on); both throttles to idle; flight
spoilers deploy: Wheel spin – up (60 knots);
ground spoilers deploy: right main gear strut
compresses RA
429
In flight, what is controlled by the speed brake
| lever?
⇒ Flight spoilers symmetrically
430
What are the cautions concerning the use of
| the speedbrake lever in flight?
⇒ Caution should be exercised in a turn since it
greatly Increase roll rate
⇒ Moving the Speed Brake lever past the flight
detent causes buffeting and is prohibited in
flight
431
144. What is the significance of the green band on
| the Stabilizer Trim Scale?
⇒ Allowable range for takeoff
432
Why are gates on the Flap Lever positioned at
| the 1 and 15 degree settings?
⇒ Go-around flap settings
433
What do you have to do to get past the gates
| on the Flap Lever?
⇒ Push the handle down as you move it
434
What are normal landing flap settings?
⇒ Flaps 30 and flaps 40
435
When the flap handle is at 5 degrees, where
| are the LED’s?
⇒ Leading edge flaps: full extend
| ⇒ Leading edge slats: extend
436
When the flap handle is at 15 degrees, where
| are the LED’s?
⇒ Leading edge flaps: full extend
| ⇒ Leading edge slats: full extend
437
Does the flap handle move during autoslat
| operation?
⇒ No
438
Does the flap handle move during flap blowup
| operation?
⇒ No
439
Should the flap lever be moved during
| alternate flap operation?
⇒ Yes, as called for in the checklist
440
What does the takeoff configuration system
| monitor?
```
⇒ Parking Brake (if it is set)
⇒ Trim (takeoff range)
⇒ Speed Brake (handle down detent)
⇒ Spoilers (All boards down)
⇒ Flaps (takeoff configuration)
⇒ LE devices (not in takeoff configuration)
```
441
Can you cancel the takeoff configuration
| warning?
⇒ No
442
When will you get a configuration warning?
⇒ On the ground and either or both thrust
| levers are advanced for takeoff
443
What is the purpose of the Stab Trim Cutout
| switches?
⇒ Disconnect stab trim during a runaway
444
Which of the Stab Trim Cutout switches will
| cause disengagement of the A/P if engaged?
⇒ Stab trim A/P cutout
445
How is aileron trim accomplished?
⇒ Electrically through aileron F&C Unit
446
Do the ailerons move when they are trimmed?
⇒ Yes
447
Can the autopilot trim the ailerons?
⇒ No
448
Can you trim the ailerons with the autopilot
| engaged?
⇒ Yes, but you should NOT
449
Where is aileron trim indicated?
⇒ Top of yoke
450
How is the rudder trim accomplished?
⇒ Through the rudder feel & centering unit
451
Do the rudder pedals move when the rudder is
| trimmed?
⇒ Yes
452
Can the autopilot trim the rudder?
⇒ No
453
Does the rudder have trim tabs?
⇒ No
454
Where is rudder trim indicated?
⇒ Aft pedestal indicator
455
Can the rudder be trimmed with a loss of
| hydraulics?
⇒ No
456
What is the purpose of the Stab Trim Override
| switch?
⇒ Bypasses the control column actuated stab
trim cutout switches (under floor) to restore
power to the stabilizer trim switches
457
Is the Stab Trim Override switch electrical or
| mechanical?
⇒ Electrical
458
What does IDG stand for?
Integrated drive generator
459
How many IDG’s does this aircraft have?
Two
460
Do the AC power sources normally operate
| paralleled or isolated?
⇒ Isolated
461
What does BAT DISCHARGE light mean?
⇒ Excessive battery discharge
462
What does TR UNIT light mean on the ground? In
| flight?
⇒ Any TR has failed; TR 1 OR TR 2 and TR 3 have
| failed
463
What does the ELEC light mean?
⇒ fault in DC or STBY power systems
464
Will you see the ELEC light in flight?
⇒ No, It is a ground only light
465
When is the ELEC light inhibited?
⇒ In flight
466
What is the normal IDG frequency?
⇒ 400 CPS
467
What is the normal IDG voltage?
⇒ 115 volts
468
What is the normal battery voltage?
⇒ 24 (22-30 volt range)
469
If under normal conditions the battery switch is
| turned OFF, would the Battery Bus be powered?
⇒ No
470
If under normal conditions the battery switch is
turned OFF, would the Switched Hot Battery Bus
be powered?
⇒ No
471
What does the STANDBY PWR OFF light mean?
⇒ STBY AC, STBY DC, or Battery Bus are not
| powered
472
What does the DRIVE light mean?
⇒ Low oil pressure in the IDG
473
What items make up the Standby Power System?
```
⇒ Hot battery bus
⇒ Switched hot battery bus
⇒ Battery bus
⇒ Standby AC
⇒ Standby DC
⇒ Static inverter
```
474
With the standby power switch in BATT, what is
| available?
```
⇒ Hot battery bus
⇒ Switched hot battery bus
⇒ Battery bus
⇒ Standby AC
⇒ Standby DC
⇒ Static inverter
```
475
With the standby power switch in AUTO, what is
| available?
⇒ All busses
476
With the standby power switch in OFF, what is
| available?
⇒ Hot battery bus
⇒ Switched hot battery bus
⇒ Battery bus
477
Can an IDG be automatically disconnected?
⇒ Yes, due to high oil temperature
478
What is the covered Disconnect Switch used for?
⇒ When QRH procedure calls for a disconnect
479
An illuminated GRD POWER AVAILABLE light
| means what?
⇒ Acceptable ground power is available
480
What checks the incoming EXT PWR for quality?
⇒ Bus power control unit
481
Does the EXT PWR light have a bright blue/dim
| blue feature?
⇒ No
482
When you connect external power to the airplane
| electrical system, are both TB’s powered?
⇒ Yes
483
If the APU is powering the TB’s and EXT PWR is
| selected ON, how many busses will EXT power?
⇒ All
484
What does a TRANSFER BUS OFF light mean?
⇒ Transfer bus not powered
485
What does a GEN OFF BUS light mean?
⇒ IDG not supplying power to the TB
486
What does a SOURCE OFF light mean?
⇒ Respective IDG not powering bus or
| previously selected source no longer powering bus
487
What does the BUS TRANSFER switch do?
⇒ Enables or disables auto bus switching
488
What does the APU GEN OFF BUS light mean?
⇒ APU GEN available but not powering any
| busses
489
If the APU is supplying power to both TB’s and
one APU GEN switch is moved to OFF, what
happens?
⇒ That source off light illuminates and both
| transfer busses remain powered
490
What happens in flight if an IDG fails?
⇒ Auto bus transfer allows other IDG to power
| failed side IDG’S TB
491
How many TR’s are there?
⇒ Four (TR #1, TR #2, TR #3, and Battery
| Charger
492
What normally supplies power to the standby AC
| bus; if AC power is not available?
⇒ TB #1; inverter
493
Is it possible to power one TB from EXT and one
| TB from APU?
⇒ No
494
Is it possible to power one TB from EXT or APU
| and one TB from an IDG?
⇒ Yes
495
Is ground service available without powering all
| of the airplane busses?
⇒ Yes
496
How is the ground service available without
| powering all the a/c busses accomplished?
⇒ Ground service switch on fwd FA panel
497
What happens if you takeoff with the APU
| powering both TB’s and the APU fails?
⇒ Auto connect to engine IDG’S one time only
| flight only
498
For single generator operation, is load shedding
| automatic or manual?
⇒ Automatic
499
Which components are shed automatically?
⇒ (Galley Switch Option) galleys on txfr bus 2,
then galleys on txfr bus 1, then main bus #2,
then main bus #1
⇒ (CAB/UTIL Switch Option) galleys and main
bus on txfr bus #2, then galleys and main bus
on txfr bus #1, then IFE busses
500
In flight, if the APU is the only available power
| source do you have to manually load shed?
⇒ No
501
How is the load shed when the APU is the only
| power source?
⇒ (CAB/UTIL Switch Option) in flight, all galley
and main busses are shed. If load still too
high, the IFE busses are shed (Galley Switch
Option) all galleys are shed first; if load is still
too high, all main busses are shed
502
On the ground, will the APU load shed?
⇒ The APU attempts to carry the full electrical
| load except during engine start
503
Is load restoration automatic or manual?
⇒ Automatic
504
Can you manually restore galley power? How?
⇒ maybe, cycle galley switch and see
505
What would an IDG automatically disconnect for?
⇒ High IDG oil temperature
506
Can a disconnected IDG be reconnected in flight?
⇒ No
507
What normally powers:
| ⇒ DC BUS #1?
a. TR 1, 2, and 3
508
What normally powers: DC BUS #2?
TR 1, 2, and 3
509
What normally powers: STBY AC BUS?
a. TB #1
510
What normally powers: STBY DC BUS?
TR1, or all TRs.
511
What normally powers: BATT BUS
TR #3
512
What normally powers: HBB
BATT CHG/TR
513
What normally powers: SHBB
BATT CHG/TR
514
Normally, are DC BUS #1 and DC BUS #2 isolated?
⇒ No
515
When are the main DC BUSSES isolated
| automatically?
⇒ At glideslope intercept
516
How can you isolate the DC BUSSES manually?
Bus transfer switch off
517
How long will a fully charged battery be able to
| supply standby power?
⇒ 30 minutes (single battery option)
| ⇒ 1 hour (dual battery option)
518
Does STANDBY POWER include one attempt at
| starting the APU (fully charged battery)?
⇒ Yes (not recommended above FL250)
519
What busses are powered by the battery after loss
| of both generators?
```
⇒ Hot battery bus
⇒ Switched hot battery bus
⇒ Battery bus
⇒ Standby AC
⇒ Standby DC
⇒ Static inverter
```
520
What does the OVERHEAT light mean?
⇒ An overheat has been detected
521
What does it mean if the Window Heat ON light is
| extinguished with the switch ON?
System failure or an overheat has been
| detected
522
```
Which window (s) is/are heated with the FWD
switch?
```
⇒ #1 window (thru a temperature controller)
523
```
Which window (s) is/are heated with the SIDE
switch?
```
```
⇒ #2 (thru a temperature controller) & #5 and
#4
```
524
What is the function of the OVHT position of the
| Window Heat test switch?
⇒ simulate an overheat condition
525
What is the function of the Window Heat POWER
| TEST?
⇒ To verify operation when on light is off
526
Which windows are heated?
```
⇒ #1, #2, #4, and #5 (there is an option to heat
#3)
```
527
If a Window Heat ON light was out, what would
| you do?
⇒ Do a power test
528
If a POWER TEST confirmed that the window was
| not getting heat, what are your restrictions?
⇒ Cannot exceed 250 knots below 10,000 ft.
| MSL
529
What is indicated by an amber Probe Heat light?
⇒ Probe is not heated
530
If the ELEV PITOT heat amber light is ON, what
| other light would you expect?
Elev feel diff press
531
Are the static ports heated electrically?
⇒ No
532
How are the static ports heated?
By the warm air that is circulated around the
| cargo compartment
533
Below what temperature would you use WING
| A/I?
10C/50F
534
What is anti-iced by the wing anti-ice system?
⇒ Inboard three LE slats
535
Will the wing anti-ice work on the ground?
⇒ Yes
536
How is wing anti-ice inhibited on the ground?
Overtemp in ducts or high power setting
| blue light is bright
537
What happens to the wing anti-ice switch on
| takeoff?
⇒ It trips off at liftoff
538
After selecting wing anti-ice ON how are the
| minimum speed bars affected?
⇒ Min maneuvering speed and stickshaker
| logic are increased
539
Once turned on in flight, will the stickshaker logic
return to normal when the wing anti-ice is turned
OFF?
⇒ No
540
Is the wing anti-ice effective in any slat position?
⇒ Yes
541
Will the LT VALVE OPEN or RT VALVE OPEN
position indicate bright then dim if the valves
cycle with thrust movement on the ground?
⇒ Yes
542
What is anti-iced on the engine?
⇒ The cowl lip
543
What is indicated by a COWL ANTI-ICE amber
| light?
⇒ Overpressure condition in the duct
544
What is indicated by a COWL VALVE OPEN bright
| light?
⇒ Valve in transit or disagrees with the switch
545
What is the TAI green indication above the N1
| gages?
⇒ Valve open
546
What is the TAI amber indication above the N1
| gages?
⇒ Not in agreement with the switch
547
At what temperature would you use engine antiice?
⇒ 10C/50F or less, visible moisture present or
| anticipated
548
How are the minimum speed bars affected when
| engine anti-ice is turned ON?
⇒ Min maneuvering speed and stickshaker
| logic are increased
549
Do the speed bars return to normal when engine
| anti-ice is turned OFF?
⇒ Yes
550
How can you silence a fire warning bell?
Press bell cutout or fire warning light
551
Some simple faults will not illuminate the Master
Caution Light and a system annunciator until
RECALL. How can you reset the annunciator and
the system light?
⇒ Press MC light
552
What is the power source for fire detection?
⇒ Battery bus (BB
553
What is the power source for fire protection?
⇒ Hot battery bus (HBB)
554
What is the power source for wheel well fire
| detection?
⇒ #2 AC transfer bus (TB)
555
What happens when you pull an engine fire
| handle?
⇒ Arms one discharge squib on each engine
fire extinguisher
⇒ Closes the fuel, hydraulic and engine bleed
air valves
⇒ Disables the thrust reverser
⇒ Trips generator control relay & breaker
⇒ Deactivates ENG HYD low pressure light
⇒ Allows rotation of the fire switc
556
Where are the engine fire bottles located?
⇒ Wheel well
557
What are the indications of an APU fire?
⇒ Fire warning bell sounds
⇒ Both fire warning lights illuminate
⇒ APU fire warning switch illuminates
⇒ APU automatically shuts down
⇒ Wheel well fire warning horn sounds (on
ground only) & wheel well light flashes
558
Where is the APU fire bottle located?
⇒ At the APU compartment
559
What happens when you pull the APU fire handle?
```
⇒ Arms the APU extinguisher circuit
⇒ Closes fuel shutoff valve, APU bleed air valve,
and APU inlet door
⇒ Trips Gen control relay and breaker
⇒ Allows the APU fire switch to rotate
```
560
How many lights should you get on a normal test?
⇒ Five: Two green, Two red & an amber
561
Will you get a fire warning bell and FIRE WARN
| lights?
⇒ Yes
562
In flight, if a DETECTOR FAULT light illuminates,
| what has happened?
⇒ Both loops in one or both cargo
| compartments have failed
563
What if a DETECTOR FAULT light illuminates
| during a test?
⇒ One or more detectors in the loop(s) has
| failed
564
What does an illuminated ENGINE CONTROL light
| mean?
⇒ Engine control system is not dispatchable
| due to a fault
565
Should you takeoff with an ENGINE CONTROL
| light illuminated?
⇒ No
566
Will you see an ENGINE CONTROL light in flight?
⇒ No, ground only light
567
Each EEC has how many independent channels
| (computers)?
⇒ Two
568
If an EEC channel fails, how do you select an
| operating channel?
⇒ You don’t, EEC channel switching is
| automatic
569
What will the EEC do for you if you shove the
| throttle to the forward stop (firewall)?
```
⇒ The EEC will provide N1 and N2 redline
overspeed protection (not EGT)
```
570
What engine protection will the EEC give you?
⇒ N1 & N2 redline overspeed protection
571
The EEC has how many control modes?
⇒ Two
572
What are these modes?
⇒ Normal
| ⇒ Alternate
573
The EEC has how many alternate modes?
Two
574
What are the EEC alternate modes?
Soft
| ⇒ Hard
575
How does the EEC operate in the soft ALTN mode
⇒ EEC uses the last valid flight conditions to
define engine parameters: Limits may change
if conditions do
576
What do the switches and lights look like in the
| soft ALTN mode?
ON light and amber ALTN light
577
How does the EEC operate in the hard ALTN
| mode?
⇒ ALTN thrust schedule, factory preprogrammed
| hard data
578
What do the switches and lights look like in the
| hard ALTN mode?
⇒ ALTN light only (push button)
| ⇒ ON light and ALTN light (pull throttle to idle)
579
Will you get full rated power in the hard alternate
| mode?
⇒ Hard alternate mode thrust is always equal to
or greater than normal mode thrust for the
same lever position
580
Does the EEC provide N1 and/or N2 redline
| overspeed protection?
Yes
581
Does the EEC provide EGT redline exceedence
| protection?
No (except on ground starts only)
582
What are the IDLE phases the EEC can select?
⇒ Ground min.
⇒ Flight min.
⇒ Approach
583
When is APPROACH idle automatically selected?
Flaps in LDG CONFIG or ENG ANTI-ICE ON
584
In flight, if a fault prevents the EEC from receiving
flap or anti-ice signals, when is APPROACH idle
selected?
⇒ Below 15000 feet MSL
585
What does an illuminated amber REVERSER light
| mean?
⇒ Fault in the reverser system
586
What are four things that can cause the REVERSER
| light to illuminate?
```
⇒ Auto restow system active
⇒ Translating sleeve not in commanded
position
⇒ Isolation valve not in the commanded
position
⇒ Synchronization shaft lock circuitry problem
```
587
When do the REVERSER lights come on in normal
| operation?
⇒ When stowing the reversers
588
For how long do the REVERSER lights illuminate?
⇒ When stowing the reversers. 10 seconds
589
When will you get a MC light & ENG annunciator
| in the case of REVERSER light illuminated?
⇒ When reverser light stays on past 12 seconds
590
What is the function of the engine start switches
| GRD position on the ground?
⇒ Open start valve, closes bleed valve, arms
| ignition
591
How does ignition operate in CONT?
⇒ Selected igniter operates engine running
592
How does ignition operate in FLT?
⇒ Both igniters operate if engine failure is
| sensed with start lever in idle
593
What is the power source for the LEFT igniters?
⇒ associated AC transfer bus
594
What is the power source for the RIGHT igniters?
⇒ Standby AC
595
When must the engine start switches (with the
| OFF option) be in CONT?
⇒ takeoff, landing, heavy precip, anti-ice in use
596
What is the difference between the OFF option
| and the AUTO option on the start switches?
⇒ When eng is running and flaps are not up
below 18,000 ft, or engine anti-ice is on, you
get ignition from the selected igniters
597
How many autothrottle actuators are there?
⇒ One servo motor for each throttle
598
What has to happen before reverse thrust can be
| selected?
⇒ Throttles must be at idle position
599
Can the throttles be advanced while in reverse
| thrust?
⇒ No
600
What does an overspeed warning sound like?
⇒ Clacker
601
Can you test the overspeed warning system in the
| air?
⇒ No
602
If the mach / airspeed warning were to activate,
| could you cancel it?
⇒ Yes, slow down
603
```
What system or component sends the signal to
the aural warning module to sound the clacker?
```
⇒ ADIRU (Air Data Inertial Reference Unit)
604
What does an illuminated GPS light mean?
⇒ Failure of both GPS sensor units
605
What does an illumination of the GPS light mean
| on RECALL?
⇒ Failure of a single GPS unit
606
What does an illuminated ALIGN (steady) light
| mean?
⇒ IRS operating in ALIGN, INITIAL, ATT or
| SHUTDOWN cycle
607
What does an illuminated ALIGN (flashing) light
| mean on the IRU panel?
⇒ Difference in position entered or no position
| entered
608
Does an extinguished ALIGN light on the IRU
| panel mean that the system is OFF?
⇒ No
609
Does an extinguished ALIGN light mean that the
| system is in NAV and aligned?
⇒ No, could be in ATTITUDE
610
What does an illuminated FAULT light mean on
| the IRU panel?
⇒ ATT or NAV fault is detected in IRS
611
What does an illuminated ON DC light mean?
⇒ Momentary self test when first turned on or
| AC power not normal
612
What does an illuminated DC FAIL light mean?
⇒ DC power not normal
613
Are the IRU’s the only source of attitude and
| heading information?
⇒ No, integrated standby flight instruments
(ISFD) or standby instruments and STBY
compass
614
If the airplane’s present position cannot be
entered through the MCDU, how can it be
entered?
⇒ IRS Display Unit (ISDU)
615
Must the airplane remain stationary during
| alignment?
⇒ Yes
616
How long should an alignment normally take?
⇒ 5 to 17 minutes (7 to 10 at our latitudes)
617
Where can you see how much time is remaining in
| the alignment process?
⇒ ISDU-HDG/Status Pos
618
When the IRU mode selector is first positioned to
| NAV, the ON DC light comes on. Why?
Self Test
619
What is the normal power source for IRU #1?
| Backup?
⇒ Standby AC; Switched hot battery bus
620
What is the normal power source for IRU #2?
| Backup?
⇒ AC Transfer bus #2, Switched hot battery
621
If the IRU does not like the airplane position
entered, what message will be displayed on the
MCDU?
⇒ Verify Position
622
How do you initiate a fast realignment on short
| turnarounds?
⇒ Align, Enter Position, NAV or Align, NAV,
| Enter Position
623
How long will a fast realignment take?
⇒ 30 Seconds (aircraft must remain stationary)
624
What happens if the airplane is moved during a
| fast realignment?
⇒ IRS automatically begins a full alignment
| process when the aircraft stops moving
625
Can IRU alignment be lost if the mode selector is
| moved out of the NAV position?
⇒ Yes
626
If alignment is lost in flight, can it be regained
| before landing?
⇒ No
627
What would the IRU’s be good for if alignment
| was lost in flight?
⇒ Attitude Reference
628
How long would it take to reestablish attitude
| reference?
⇒ 30 Seconds straight & level flight
629
What must be done by the crew to reestablish the
| heading reference?
⇒ Enter actual heading
630
What should the crew be concerned about when
| using IRU heading reference?
⇒ Updating it from time to time
631
What alert would you get if an IRU was left ON
| and the battery was the only source of power?
⇒ Horn in Nose wheel well
632
If an IRU was to fail, could the affected pilot
| benefit from the operating IRU?
⇒ Yes, IRS transfer switch
633
Which IRU is the default IRU?
⇒ Left for Left, Right for Right
634
If the aircraft reverted to STANDBY power, what
| lights would you see on the IRS panel?
⇒ On DC light on the right, no lights on the left
635
How long will the ON DC light remain illuminated
| on the right?
⇒ 5 Min, then it will shut down
636
What does NORMAL position of the IRS/VHF
| NAV/FMC switching allow?
⇒ Default Operation
637
What does L/R position of the IRS/VHF NAV/FMC
| switching allow?
⇒ Switches both to left or right units
638
On the Displays-Source Panel what does SOURCE
| refer to?
⇒ Displays electronic unit (DEU)
639
When you switch ALL to 1 or 2, on the Displays-
| Source Panel what are you switching?
⇒ Single DEU control of all displays
640
In AUTO which displays are controlled by
| DEU 1?
⇒ Capt outboard
⇒ Capt inboard
⇒ Upper
641
In AUTO which displays are controlled by
| DEU 2?
⇒ FO outboard
⇒ FO inboard
⇒ Lower
642
In AUTO, if DEU 1 failed, what would happen to
| the affected displays?
⇒ DEU 2 controls
643
In AUTO, if DEU 2 failed, what would happen to
| the affected displays?
⇒ DEU 1 controls
644
What does CONTROL PANEL refer to?
⇒ Displays or EFIS control panel
645
How is the NORMAL position of the switch
| different from BOTH on 1 or 2?
⇒ Left controls Capt’s display and right controls
| FO’s display
646
What modes are Weather Radar available in?
⇒ ARC or MAP
647
On EFIS Displays-Source Panel what modes is
| TCAS display available?
⇒ MAP or ROSE
648
On the Mode Control Panel when is the Altitude
| Alert inhibited?
⇒ Glideslope capture, flaps >25
649
What is the default airspeed of the Mode Control
| Panel when first powered up?
⇒ 100 KTS
650
What is the default altitude of the Mode Control
| Panel when first powered up?
⇒ Displays previously selected altitudes
651
Is it possible to have BELOW G/S lights
illuminated with other aural and visual alerts
active?
⇒ Yes
652
When would this light illuminate?
⇒ Excessive GS deviation (1.3 DOT)
653
When can you inhibit the Below G/S Inhibit alert?
⇒ Below 1,000 ft RA
654
What would the Display Switches be used for?
⇒ Switching displays on respective display units
655
Moving the Captain’s main DU to MFD will give
| you what kind of display?
⇒ Displays PFD on outboard display. Inboard
| display is blank until eng or sys is selected
656
What does an amber A/P light mean?
⇒ Light test switch held in #1 position
657
What does a flashing red A/P light mean?
⇒ Auto-pilot disengagement
658
What does a steady red A/P light mean?
⇒ Stab out of trim below 800 ft RA on a dual
A/P approach, ALT ACQ inhibited on
⇒ A/P GO-AROUND if stab not trimmed for
single A/P operation
659
What does a FMC light mean?
⇒ test #1 or #2 or a message exists for both
| MCDU’S
660
How long will the ISFD operate after the main
| battery (batteries) has been depleted?
⇒ 150 minutes
661
How long will the total time be for ISFD operation
| with a single battery?
⇒ 180 minutes
662
What does the AUTO position mean on the Engine
| Display Control Panel?
⇒ Both reference bugs set by the FMC
663
What does the BOTH position mean on the
| Engine Display Control Panel?
⇒ both reference bugs set manually
664
What does the 1 or 2 position mean on the Engine
| Display Control Panel?
⇒ respective engine N1 reference bug and
| readout set manually
665
What does the Fuel Flow Reset position do on the
| Engine Display Control Panel?
Resets fuel used to zero/displays fuel used
momentarily, decreases to zero then displays
fuel flow
666
What does the Fuel Flow Used position do on the
| Engine Display Control Panel?
⇒ Displays fuel used since last reset; after 10
| secs display auto reverts to fuel flow
667
What happens if Fuel Used switch is held longer
| than 30 seconds?
⇒ Fuel Used readout is deactivated for
| remainder of the flight
668
What does the AUTO position of the SPD REF
| switch do?
⇒ FMC sets speeds and weights
669
What does the V1 position do on the Engine
| Display Control Panel?
⇒ Manually sets V1 on the ground / in-flight
| gives “V1 Invalid Entry” message
670
What does the VR position do on the Engine
| Display Control Panel?
Manually sets VR on the ground / in-flight
| gives “VR Invalid” message
671
What does the WT position do on the SPD REF
| selector?
⇒ Allows manual entry or reference gross
| weight
672
What does the VREF position do on the Engine
| Display Control Panel?
⇒ Manually sets ref speed in flight / on the
| ground displays “VREF Invalid Entry” message
673
What does the SET position do on the Engine
| Display Control Panel?
⇒ Removes the digital readout above the
| airspeed indication
674
What does the MFD engine switch display?
⇒ Secondary engine indications on the lower
DU or upper or inboard DU (Depending on
the position of the display select panel
selector)
675
What does the SYS position do on the Engine
| Display Control Panel?
⇒ Displays hydraulic pressure and quantity on
the lower DU (will also display brake temp
and control positions if your aircraft has
those options)
676
What are the three windows of the Flight Mode
| Annunciator (FMA)?
⇒ Autothrottle, roll, pitch
677
How would you move the Captains Inboard
| display to another location?
⇒ Display select panel switch
678
What is the purpose of the Weather Radar TEST
| button?
⇒ When activated it tests the radar system
| operation without transmitting
679
What does the WX button do?
⇒ Shows weather radar returns at the selected
| gain level
680
What about the WX-T button?
⇒ Also shows turbulence within 40 miles
