Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PCM III Final > Respiratory CIS Handout > Flashcards

Respiratory CIS Handout Flashcards

1
Q

Patient populations at risk for exposure and infection with tuberculosis

A

Close contact with someone who has active TB

Immigrants from endemic areas (<5 yrs ago)

Residents and employees at high risk areas: jail, prison, nursing homes, homeless shelters, healthcare facilities, drug treatment facilities

Medically underserved, low-income populations

IV drug abuse

HIV/AIDS pts as well as other immunocompromised states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The ____________ can be utilized when a pt has a positive TST test with a history of a BCG vaccination

A

IFN-gamma release assay [in other words, the IGRAs like quantiferon TB gold are NOT affected by BCG administration]

It is more sensitive to a true TB exposure and can guide us to an understanding that the positive result is not due to the BCG vaccination — keep in mind that people who have BCG vaccine will have a TST reaction of 3-19 mm (2-3 mo after vaccine)

> 10 years after vaccine, the TST reaction is typically <10 mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Signs/symptoms associated with active pulmonary TB

A

Fever (can be diurnal)

Night sweats

Cough (generally >2weeks; productive or hemoptysis possible)

Weight loss

LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Gold standard for dx of TB

A

Sputum culture

[3 separate morning sputum samples are taken for culture on liquid and solid media; as M.tuberculosis is slow growing, results can take between 6-8 weeks]

Other aspects of clinical dx of active TB include clinical symptoms, risk factors, and radiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

While sputum culture is the gold-standard for dx, sputum staining can also be done. What are the 2 stains that may be used, and what do they indicate?

A

Rhodamine-auramine stain — initial screening stain for TB

Ziehl-Neelson and/or Kinyun stain — confirmatory AFB stains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Purpose of PPD skin test (aka TST or Mantoux)

A

Determines if person is currently infected or has previously been infected with M.tuberculosis

NOT utilized to determine a dx, but can support the dx and raise clinical suspicion

Most widely used screening modality for TB

Cost effective, easy to obtain, sensitive (not specific)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Purpose of interferon gamma release assay (IGRA)

A

Indicates there has been a cellular response to TB

Preferred test in those who have received BCG (as vaccine or for cancer therapy)

May be used in place of TST (without preference) to test recent contacts of persons with infectious TB with special considerations for follow-up testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

On CXR of reactivation T, ______ lesions typically involve the _____ of the lungs

A

Cavitary; apices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Purpose of the nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) in TB workup

A

Utilized in conjunction with a smear that is positive for AFB while cultures are pending

NAAT-TB detects genetic material

NAAT-R detects INH and rifampin resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

That standard 4 drug therapy includes __________________

The majority of pts require ______ (duration) of continual therapy

A

Rifampin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Remember to follow your TB pts with CMPs to monitor ____ and ____ function while on 4-drug therapy

______ is also collected to monitor tx efficacy

A

Kidney; liver

Sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Potential side effects of rifampin

A

Red/orange body fluids
Hepatitis
Steven-Johnson syndrome

[also N/V, rash]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Potential side effects of isoniazid

A 
Hepatitis
Peripheral neuropathy (give Vit B6)

[also N/V, rash]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Potential side effects of pyrazinamide

A

Hepatitis
Hyperuricemia
Urticaria
Joint aches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Potential side effects of ethambutol

A

Optic neuritis

Color-blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Baseline lab evaluation prior to initiating 4-drug therapy for TB should include what?

A

Measurement of hepatic enzymes (transaminases, bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase)

CBC

Serum creatinine

Uric acid

Counseling and testing for HIV

Visual acuity and red-green color discrimination testing when tx includes ethambutol

[testing for Hep B and C should also be done in pts with epidemiologic risk factors]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Latent TB is clinically silent but can become active. What should you do if you see positive result for PPD or IGRA, and CXR is negative (indicating latent TB)?

A

Treat with 9 months of isoniazid

18
Q

What clinical situations regarding TB are we obligated to report in the US?

A

Persons with confirmed or suspected TB must be reported to state or local public health authority promptly (w/i 24 hrs)

Labs that process diagnostic specimens for TB are also requried to report the isolation of M.tuberculosis complex to the provider and to the public health authority

[The public health authority can provide a link to expert medical consultation for dx or managment; CDC also sponsors regional centers where consultation is available]

19
Q

TB is most likely to be transmitted in healthcare settings when health care workers and pts come in contact with persons who have unsuspected TB disease, who are not receiving adequate treatment, and who have not been isolated from others.

What are some infection-control measures based on the 3-level hierarchy?

A

Administrative controls — management measures, minimize areas where exposure may occur

Environmental controls — admit to negative pressure room, use respiratory protective equipment, etc.

Respiratory controls — use respiratory protective equipment and other PPE, pt education, health care worker training, etc.

20
Q

Why do we admit pts with active TB to negative pressure rooms?

A

To prevent the spread and reduce the concentration of infectious droplet nuclei

Consists of controlling source of infection by using local exhaust ventilation (e.g., hoods, tents, booths) and diluting/removing contaminated air by using general ventilation. Also controls airflow to prevent contamination of air in other areas adjacent to the source

Cleans air by using high efficiency particulate air filtration (HEPA) or ultraviolet germacidal irradiation

21
Q

Types of O2 delivery (O2 levels in arterial blood = SaO2 — order pulse ox)

A

Room air (RA) — FiO2 21%(fraction of inspired oxygen)

Nasal cannula (NC) — 1-6L, FiO2 24-44%

Simple facemask — 6-10L, FiO2 40-70%

Venturi mask — 3-15L, aerosol mask, FiO2 24-50%

Non-rebreather (NRB) — 15 L, bag reservoir, FiO2 80-100%

22
Q

Considerations for selections of respirators

A

The overall effectiveness of respiratory protection is affected by:

  1. The level of respiratory protection selected (e.g., the assigned protection factor)
  2. The fit characteristics of the respirator model
  3. The care in using the respirator
  4. The adequacy of the training and fit-testing program
23
Q

OMM considerations for acute TB

A

OMT is a relative contraindication while in the acute phase (e.g., ICU)

While rare, TB can spread to the lymph nodes, causing them to be sore or swollen. Complications from LN involvement include sepsis and fistulas

24
Q

Areas typically treated with OMT in costochondritis secondary to chronic cough

A 
Pectoralis TP
Ribs
Sternum
Thoracic
Chest musculature
Quadratus lumborum
25
Q

Areas typically treated with OMT in bronchitis

A

Chapmans — bronchus 2nd ICS

Parasympathetics — vagus

26
Q

Areas typically treated with OMT in pneumonia

A

Rib restrictions

T/L diaphragm

27
Q

An OMT consideration in COPD is that bronchospasm and mucous production are mediated through the ______ n.

A

Vagus

28
Q

Weber vs. Rinne test

A

Weber for lateralization:
Normal is if it lateralizes to both ears equally. If it lateralizes to R ear, it is either conduction loss in R ear, or sensorineural loss in L ear

Rinne for air vs. bone conduction:
When pt no longer hears against bone, place in front of ear canal. Normal is AC>BC. If lateralized to R ear, and then AC>BC, suspect sensorineural loss in L ear. If lateralized to R ear, then BC>AC, there is conductive loss in R ear.

29
Q

The frontal sinuses do not open until after _____ years of age

A

7

30
Q

What is cheilitis?

A

Red cracks at corners of mouth; may be due to B12 or iron deficiency

31
Q

Clinically relevant landmark for needle decompression of pneumothorax

A

2nd intercostal space just superior to 3rd rib margin at MCL

[remember that neurovascular bundle runs inferior to each rib, so needles and tubes should be placed superior to the rib margins]

32
Q

Clinically relevant landmark for chest tube insertion

A

4th ICS at mid or anterior axillary line just superior to margin of rib 5

33
Q

Clinically relevant landmark for lower margin of endotracheal tube on CXR

A

T4

34
Q

Clinical landmark for thoracentesis

A

7th ICS

35
Q

In what conditions might you see clubbing of the fingertips?

A 
Congenital heart disease
Interstitial lung disease
Bronchiectasis
Pulmonary fibrosis
Lung abscess
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)
Malignancies (lung cancer)
Cystic fibrosis
36
Q

What conditions might show decreased vs. increased tactile fremitus?

A 
Decreased/absent fremitus:
COPD
Pleural effusions
Fibrosis
Pneumothorax
Thick chest wall
Infiltrating tumor

Increased fremitus:
Pneumonia (increased transmission through consolidated tissue)

37
Q

Normal diaphragmatic excursion

A

3-5.5 cm

38
Q

Name the normal breath sounds

A

Vesicular
Bronchovesicular
Bronchial
Tracheal

39
Q

Name the adventitious breath sounds

A 
Crackles (rales)
Wheezes
Rhonchi
Stridor
Pleural friction rub
40
Q

Bronchophony vs. egophony vs. whispered pectoriloquy

A

Bronchophony = spoken words become louder and clearer (indicates consolidation)

Egophony = the “ee” sounds like “A” with nasal bleating quality

Whispered pectoriloquy = whispers heard louder and clearer

41
Q

Describe the fever associated with TB

A

Fever associated with TB is classically diurnal, with an afebrile period early in the morning and a gradually rising temp through the day, reaching a peak in the late afternoon or evening.

Fever subsides during sleep, but night sweats may occur [fever and night sweats are more common among pts with advanced pulmonary TB]

42
Q

Although a blood count is never diagnostic in the case of TB, _______ and _______ are common.

Neutrophilia is rarely found [iron deficiency anemia may develop with ______ treatment].

Urea and electrolytes are usually normal, although hypocalcemia and hyponatremia are possible in tuberculous meningoencephalitis due to ________. In advanced disease, hypoalbuminemia, hyperproteinemia, and hyperglobulinemia may be present. ESR is usually raised

A

Normocytic anemia; lymphopenia

Isoniazid

SIADH

PCM III Final (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions