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Command Preparation > OMB > Flashcards

OMB Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum seats in each type?

A

A319 156
A320 180
A320-186 186
A321 235

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2
Q

Maximum bank angle to be used in normal flight as recommended by OMB?

A

30 degrees

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3
Q

Above what crosswind is a rolling take-off advised?

A

20kts

OMB 2.1

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4
Q

What is the minimum runway width?

A

30m

45m for F/O

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5
Q

Maximum taxi speed (and in turns)?

A

30kts (10kts)

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6
Q

For OETD, what is a cold engine? Is OETD allowed on a cold engine?

A

Cold engines are switched off for 6 hours+, and yes if both of the engines have over 5 minutes at idle

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7
Q

When should you not use OETD/OETA?

A 
Slippery conditions
LVPs
APU or APU GEN inop
Bleed, hydraulic, steering, or brake issues (MEL)
Consider fatigue?
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8
Q

What are the handling limits for an F/O? What if he/she has 3*?

A 
Max x-wind is 20kts
T/O RVR is 550m min
Approaches CAT 1 minimum
45m runway width
No runway contamination, windshear, or autolands

3* F/Os: no planned tailwind landings (>1000ft) or flap 3s

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9
Q

When should the ISIS be set to QNH by?

A

FL200

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10
Q

When should you not use the PA?

A

Taxiing, climb, or descent (unless operationally necessary)

OMB 2.3.1.4

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11
Q

When should you complete a safety exterior inspection? And what does it involve checking?

A

On walk to aircraft, before opening doors

Check:

  • Wheel chocks in place (check park brake/accumulator pressure if not)
  • Landing gear doors (do not pressurise hydraulics if ground crew nearby, communication…)
  • APU area clear (inlet and outlet)
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12
Q

Within what distance must the take-off alternate be?

A

320nm for A319/320/321

OMB 5.1

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13
Q

Within what distance must the cruise alternate be?

A

380nm for A319
400nm for A320/321

OMB 5.1

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14
Q

When are only *asterisk items to be completed on the preliminary cockpit preparation checklist?

A

On a transit stop without a crew change

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15
Q

If the batteries have 25.5V on selection to AUTO on cockpit preparation, what can their charge level be assumed to be?

A

Over 50%

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16
Q

Within how many minutes of selecting the batteries to AUTO should the APU be started?

A

35 minutes

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17
Q

If batteries are less than 25.5V on cockpit prep, what should you do?

A

Select them to AUTO with external power in to charge them, then after 20 minutes check when off the voltage is 25.5V+

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18
Q

What are the shared cockpit duties during an evacuation?

A
  • Take high vis jackets (if possible)
  • Take loading form (to verify pax numbers)
  • Escape via cockpit windows and rope if needs be
  • Assist passengers, direct away from aircraft

OMB 3.90

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19
Q

What are the commanders specific duties during an evacuation?

A
  • Last person to leave cockpit, go to cabin and help with passenger evacuation
  • Last to leave the aircraft (by rear door if possible), check everyone is off
  • On ground, take control until rescue units arrive

OMB 3.90

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20
Q

What are the first officers specific duties during an evacuation?

A
  • Proceed to cabin, take emergency equipment
  • Evacuates aircraft using any exit
  • Helps move passengers away from aircraft

OMB 3.90

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21
Q

How much time should you leave between APU MASTER pb and APU START pb?

A

3 seconds

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22
Q

Is the air conditioning from APU bleed air more or less efficient with the EXT PWR connected?

A

More efficient

OMB 2.3.4.4

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23
Q

What are you checking the portable fire extinguisher for in the cockpit prep?

A 
Correct number onboard
Stowed correctly
Safety catch in position
-Red indicator disc present, or
-Pressure in green arc on gauge
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24
Q

What two things must you check in flight deck prior to completing walkaround?

A

Navigation lights on

Parking brake set (to see brake wear indicators)

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25
Q

What must the clock be accurate to?

A

+/- 1 second from UTC (for ATC datalink)

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26
Q

What is the cockpit door check?

A

1) ANN LT test: OPEN and FAULT lights on pedestal and three strike lights on overhead panel. All on and all off.
2) Check that in UNLOCK the door opens and the OPEN light comes on
3) Close the door, check OPEN light goes out
4) Open the door manually

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27
Q

How long must you wait for after electrical network power up before using the FMGS?

A

3 minutes minimum and when the PLEASE WAIT message disappears

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28
Q

How do you change the IDLE/PERF factor?

A

Type “ARM” into the CHG CODE line (5L) on aircraft status page in MCDU.

Idle factor should be -3.5, perf factor from OFP

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29
Q

When is NAVAID deselection required?

A

When not in GPS PRIMARY and the NOTAMs warn of unreliable VORs or DMEs

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30
Q

How long should you wait after typing the flight number in the FMGS before selecting *INIT REQUEST?

A

5 seconds, to allow flight number to be copied into AOC INIT page

OMB 2.3.6.8

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31
Q

What is the maximum difference allowed between altimeters during cockpit prep?

A

+/-20ft between PFDs

+/-60ft between ISIS and PFDs

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32
Q

How should you perform an oxygen mask test?

A

1) Press the reset/test button, blinker goes yellow then black
2) Press the reset/test button and the emergency pressure selector at the same time, listen for oxygen flow noise
3) Press the emergency pressure selector to check mask is not supplied and blinker doesn’t turn yellow

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33
Q

According to OMB, to which position should the loudspeaker knob be selected to?

A

The 1 o’clock position…!

OMB 2.3.6.13

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34
Q

What format should the take-off briefing take?

A

WANT (A for variant and OEBs, N for CCI)
Departure (including FMS F-PLAN and stop alt)
Take-off (RTO etc. brief)

OMB 2.3.6.15

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35
Q

When checking the FOB now vs the FOB at the end of the last flight after refuelling, what are the maximum allowed discrepancies?

A

FOB after refuelling <6T: 400kg
“ 6T to 12T: 500kg
“ >12T: 600kg

OMB 2.3.7

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36
Q

At what T.O. C.G. must FORWARD be entered in the EFB on A320s?

A

Forward of/less than 27% MAC (Mean Aerodynamic Chord)

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37
Q

Is CONF 1+F take off allowed in A321 like we use as standard on A319/320?

A

Yes, CONF 2 is normal, but CONF 1+F is allowed if performance necessitates it

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38
Q

What are the allowed differences in EFBs during take off data cross check?

A

+/- 1 knot of speed

+/- 1 degree of flex temperature

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39
Q

How should you reopen cabin doors on stand if they have been armed already but steps need to be reattached?

A

1) Establish comms with CM for reason
2) CM2 makes the PA “Cabin crew disarm doors for arrival”
3) CM1 turns seat belt signs off (as required)

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40
Q

Describe what happens during the engine start sequence on a CEO aircraft

A

16% N2: igniter on (A or B)
22% N2: fuel flow
15s max after fuel flow: EGT and N1 increase
50% N2: start valve starts closing, igniter off

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41
Q

Describe what happens during the engine start sequence on a NEO aircraft

A

Above 20% N2 (after dry cranking): igniter on (A or B) and fuel flow,
15s max after fuel flow: EGT and N1 increase,
55% N2: igniter off,
63% N2: start valve starts closing.

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42
Q

What are the engine idle parameters of a CEO aircraft at ISA and sea level? (N1, N2, EGT and FF)

A

N1: 19.5%
N2: 58.5%
EGT: 390degC
FF: 275kgh

(2,6,4,3)

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43
Q

What are the engine idle parameters of a NEO aircraft at ISA and sea level? (N1, N2, EGT and FF)

A

N1: 19%
N2: 68%
EGT: 520degC
FF: 290kgh

(2,7,5,3)

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44
Q

When do the pack valves open after engine start?

A

With a 30 second delay after the second engine N2 is above 50%

OMB 2.3.8.1

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45
Q

How long should an engine be operated at idle power for after starting before using high power?

A

3 minutes

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46
Q

What is the ice shedding procedure for CEO?

A

When in icing conditions and the OAT is +3degC or less for more than 30 minutes:
- Accelerate engine to 70% N1 for 30s, intervals of 30 minutes

In freezing rain:
- Momentarily to 70% around 10 minute intervals

Caution what’s behind you!

OMB 2.3.9

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47
Q

What is the ice shedding procedure for NEO?

A

When in icing conditions and the OAT is +3degC or with significant engine vibration:
- Accelerate engine to 50% N1 for 5s, intervals of 60 minutes

Caution what’s behind you!

OMB 2.3.9

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48
Q

If WING ANTI ICE is selected on (on the ground) how long do the anti ice valves open for?

A

30 seconds (test sequence)

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49
Q

For “rudder trim: zero” what is an acceptable amount of trim to be showing on the display on the pedestal?

A

<0.3deg (L or R)

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50
Q

When should you select flaps if there is snow or slush on the taxiways?

A

At the holding point, to avoid contaminating the actuators

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51
Q

What should you always do when making a selection with the parking brake?

A

Check the brake pressure is zero on the triple indicator (slight residual pressure may show temporarily)

OMB 2.3.10

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52
Q

Maximum N1 for taxi?

A

40%

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53
Q

For OETD, when starting the second engine, should PM do this silently or verbalise the actions?

A

Verbalise (and only do it when PF taxiing in straight line)

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54
Q

What are the flex temperature corrections that can be made during the taxi out by PM?

A

ENG ANTI ICE ON: Subtract 5 degC

QNH reduction: Subtract 1 degC/2hPa

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55
Q

What should the brake temperatures be for take off?

A

Less than 300degC (or less than 150degC if brake fans used)

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56
Q

When should you select engine mode selector to ignition? Is this allowed for take off?

A

In standing water, heavy rain or heavy rain/turbulence expected after takeoff. So yes!

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57
Q

Describe the tailwind take off technique. Is this also used for crosswinds?

A

Set 50% N1, advance to 70%, wait for 15kts ground speed, then set T/O thrust by 40kts. Hold full forward sidestick until 80kts then release by 100kts.

Yes above 20kts crosswind.

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58
Q

At what wheel speed is directional control by the rudder pedals of the nosewheel steering removed?

A

130kts wheel speed

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59
Q

What speed does the SRS hold immediately after a normal takeoff?

A

V2 + 10kts

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60
Q

Which screen should PFs MCDU be showing in the climb?

A

PERF CLB (but others as tactically necessary)

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61
Q

What is optimum flight level a function of?

A

The cost index (as well as weight and ground speed/winds aloft)

OMB 2.3.14

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62
Q

What does MAX REC FL provide in terms of aircraft safety and stability?

A

A 0.3g buffet margin, and a climb rate of 300fpm at max cruise thrust. Pilot may enter a cruise FL above this, as long as it doesn’t reduce the buffet margin to 0.2g

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63
Q

When replying to an FMA call, does PM reply “check” or “checked”?

A

Checked

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64
Q

What is the difference between ALT and ALT CRZ?

A

In ALT the cruise managed speed/mach targets are not available, and neither is SOFT ALT mode (where the aircraft can transition up to 50ft high or low to minimise thrust variations and fuel consumption)

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65
Q

What should you do with the cost index during a stepped climb?

A

Leave it at 0 until the final cruise altitude

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66
Q

Why may a slight decrease in hydraulic fluid quantities be observed across all systems in the cruise?

A

Fluid contraction during cold soak

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67
Q

Why is the green system hydraulic fluid level lower in the cruise than on the ground?

A

Landing gear retraction

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68
Q

What should you do if you get a navigation accuracy downgrade in flight? How much loss of accuracy is acceptable?

A

Use raw data for navigation (ROSE VOR is good to avoid being misled by FM data). If accuracy check is less than 3nm out then you’re still good!

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69
Q

What should you do if the FLD is less than the LDA but Maximum Manual braking is required to achieve this?

A

Use autobrake medium
Maximum reverse
PF ready to override autobrake

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70
Q

What should you consider if the go-around climb gradient required is higher than the performance calculations provide?

A

Config 3 landing
Different approach or missed (by ATC)
Packs off (or fed by APU bleed?)
Higher minima if published

OMB 2.3.16

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71
Q

If TOO STEEP PATH is displayed in the FMGC after the Final Descent Point, is FINAL APP guidance available?

A

No, don’t use it

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72
Q

In which class(es) of airspace is 250kts the limit below FL100?

A

Class D, E and G

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73
Q

In which class of airspace is VFR flight not allowed?

A

Class A

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74
Q

What classes of airspace are there in the UK?

A

Class A, C, D, E and G

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75
Q

Which system uses the QNH value set in the FMGC descent/approach performance page?

A

Cabin pressure controller (also uses landing elevation)

FCOM 21-20-30

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76
Q

What is the maximum speed VAPP can be increased to to take account of strong or gusty crosswinds greater than 20kts?

A

VLS+15kt maximum (check landing performance)

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77
Q

During approach, at which VAPP should you amend it in the FMGC if it looks too close to VLS?

A

If VAPP < VLS + 3 knots

Then amend to VLS + 5 knots

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78
Q

When should you not land CONF3 for fuel saving?

A

If there is:
-technical defects affect landing performance
-runway contamination
-issues with landing performance (weight/tailwind)
Or:
-on the A321 (unless required operationally, consider VLS+10 to mitigate tailstrike risk)

OMB 2.3.16

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79
Q

When should CONF3 be considered?

A

To improve go-around performance
If windshear/severe turbulence is possible
Certain failures

OMB 2.3.16

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80
Q

Should you use TERRAIN on ND if NAV ACCURACY is LOW?

A

No

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81
Q

When should ISIS be set to QNH?

A

By FL200

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82
Q

How can you calculate the FPA to land?

A

FPA = FL/DIST(nm)

Use bird to check this if necessary

OMB 2.3.17.2

83
Q

What does selected EXP do in CLB and DES?

A

EXP CLB: Speed target is green dot

EXP DES: Speed target is M0.8 or 340kts (WEL)

84
Q

If the speedbrakes are used over a certain speed, their retraction is slow. What is this speed and how slow do they retract? How can you tell they are slow?

A

Above 315kt/M0.75 with AP engaged, full retraction takes around 25 seconds from FULL.

ECAM memo displays speedbrakes amber during this slow retraction period

OMB 2.3.17.2

85
Q

In good practise, what vertical distance should you retract the speedbrakes before the assigned altitude in a descent to avoid overshooting it?

A

At least 2000ft before selected altitude

86
Q

How would you set up the FMGC for an SRA approach?

A

Runway only, and a CF at 5nm out. VDEV guidance then displays on PFD. Early stabilised recommended due to intensity of R/T. 5x G/S gives ROD.

OMB 2.3.18

87
Q

What are the stable approach criteria? When should/must these be reached at the latest?

A

Aircraft in landing configuration
On correct lateral/vertical path (by G/S, PAPIs etc)
Speed is VAPP +10/-5kts max
Bank angle less than 15 degrees

Should be stable by 1000ft
MUST be stable by 500ft

88
Q

When must you go-around at 1000ft with respect to the stable approach criteria? What about at 500ft?

A

G/A at 1000ft if not in landing config or speed greater than VAPP + 30kts

G/A at 500ft if not stable or landing checklist not completed

89
Q

Can the 1000ft RA stability criteria be referenced to anything else?

A

Yes, TDZE depending on terrain profile. Must be briefed. Reference OMB 2.3.18.1.4 Note 2.

90
Q

How do the stability criteria differ for circling approaches?

A

Same as normal stable criteria but by 400ft TDZE, bank angle must be less than 15 degrees within 30 degrees of final track

91
Q

What is an early stabilised approach? When might you use it?

A

VAPP at the Final Descent Point (flap 3, G/D usually)

If approach made using selected guidance, high glide path angle, low altitude intermediate approach, certain failures.

92
Q

How and when would you fly a discontinued approach?

A

As an alternative to a go-around (go-around still possible) at or above the FCU altitude.

“CANCEL APPROACH”
Disarm any approach mode
Select lateral/vertical guidances
Select speed and adjust

OMB 2.3.18.1.6

93
Q

How far from touchdown should you activate the approach phase in the MCDU?

A

15nm

94
Q

When should FLAPS 1 be selected at the latest according to OMB?

A

3nm before the FAF

95
Q

When should FLAPS 2 be selected at the latest according to OMB?

A

2000ft above TDZE, or at one dot below the glideslope

96
Q

What should you select the NOSE light to on landing?

A

Takeoff

97
Q

What should you always check for when lowering the landing gear?

A
  • Three greens (at least one green triangle per strut on the WHEEL SD page) and,
  • Residual braking pressure on the triple indicator (apply residual braking procedure if needs be)
98
Q

To reduce wear, when is the earliest flaps FULL should be selected?

A

Below VFE-15kts

(Flaps FULL VFE = 177kts, so below 162kts)

OMB 2.3.18.2.2

99
Q

At what deviation from the expected speed, pitch, bank angle and descent rate should PM call out during approach?

A

Speed lower than -5kt or higher than +10kt
Pitch below 2.5deg or above 10deg (above 7.5deg for A321)
Bank angle over 7deg
Rate of descent over 1000fpm

100
Q

When should engine anti-icing be used for take off?

A

OAT (on the ground or after takeoff) or TAT (in flight) is at or below 10 degC and visible moisture is present*, or where operating on ramps and taxiways with moisture that could be ingested by the engines.

Also consider flying into icing conditions before thrust reduction altitude (below 1000ft AAL)

*such as clouds, fog <1600m, rain, snow etc.

OMB 2.3.9

101
Q

What are the LMC limitations for requiring a new Loading Form?

A

Plus 10 or minus 20 passengers (limits listed on the loading form itself)

OMB 7.4

102
Q

What are the LMC limitations for requiring new performance calculations?

A

Positive LMC of over +250kg, positive LMC at all when TOGA already planned, or MAC CG change of over 2% (limits listed on the loading form itself)

OMB 7.4

103
Q

In a flight operating on a free seating contingency basis with a low passenger load, what would you expect from the cabin crew and in the flight deck?

A

Make sure EFB load sheet calculation is correct with respect to MAC CG.

  • Cabin crew must perform a headcount with the passenger numbers in each of the 3 zones
  • Flight crew should ensure this is correct on the EFB and loading limitations are complied with
  • Captain must make a brief PA to explain why the flight is not using allocated seating

OMB 7.5

104
Q

If you have fuel drops from engine after start, what do you do?

A

If drops exist after 5 minutes, then shut down engine and get maintenance action. If the drops disappear after 5 minutes then you’re good to go!

OMB 2.3.8.1

105
Q

Can the strobe lights be switched off?

A

Yes if they cause a distraction

OMB 2.3.18.2.2

106
Q

What is the minimum landing capability FMA required for an auto land?

A

CAT 2 (or better) on the FMA

107
Q

In the case of a downgrade on an approach (autoland), when must the rebrief and higher minima be completed/entered by?

A

1000ft

108
Q

When APP or LOC is armed, within what period of time will localiser or glideslope capture modes be engaged?

A

No sooner than 3 seconds after being armed

109
Q

What does ICAO define as the envelope where a normal G/S can take place?

A

Within 10NM, +/-8 degrees of centreline, 1.75xG up and 0.3xG down

(Where G is the nominal glide path angle)

OMB 2.3.18.3.1.3

110
Q

At which altitude or below will pressing the APPR pb show the correct landing/approach capability of the aircraft with both AP1 and AP2 engaged?

A

Below 5000ft AGL

(Above this it will always read CAT 1)

OMB 2.3.18.3.1.3

111
Q

Below which altitude may a downgrade of systems not monitored by the FMGS for FMA approach capability be disregarded? (Autoland)

A

1000ft

112
Q

What is the minimum equipment required to start an RNP or RNAV GNSS approach? Where can you find this?

A 
1x FMGC
1x GPS
1x MCDU
1x FD
1x PFD (on PFs side)
2x IRS
2x NDs (temporary display via switch on PM side allowed)
2x FCU channels

OMB 2.3.18.3.1.4
or FCOM PRO SPO

113
Q

When checking an RNAV approach in the box against the plates, what is an acceptable degree of vertical and lateral difference?

A
  1. 1 degrees vertically, and

3. 0 degrees laterally

114
Q

On an RNAV approach, when should PM call out excessive deviation from XTK or V/DEV? When should a go-around be flown?

A

PM calls out:
XTK>0.1nm
V/DEV>1/2 dot

Go-around at:
XTK>0.3nm
V/DEV>3/4 dot

115
Q

What visibility is required to convert to a straight in approach?

A

RVR no less than 800m

OMA 8.4.2.1

116
Q

When does DISCONNECT AP FOR LANDING show? Does it need to be disconnected straight away?

A

At minimum -50ft

AP can still be used until AP limit from FCOM-LIM-AFS (500ft AGL for circling, 250ft AGL with FINAL APP, 160ft AGL for CAT1 etc)

117
Q

Is the required equipment for an RNAV VISUAL approach the same for an RNAV approach?

A

No, for RNAV VISUAL only 1 FMS and 1 GPS or 2 DME required

OMB 2.3.18.3.5

118
Q

How long should you extend downwind for on a visual approach or circling approach?

A

3s per 100ft, +1s/1kt headwind or tailwind

119
Q

What is the flare height approximately?

A

30ft

120
Q

When are ground spoilers inhibited on landing?

A

If both thrust levers remain above idle, or if one thrust level is above idle and one is at idle

121
Q

What is the “touchdown zone” defined as?

A

Within the runway markings, or in the absence of them the first 1000m or 1/3 of the runway (whichever is less)

122
Q

What FMA appears at 350ft on an autoland?

A

LAND

123
Q

How do you engage SOFT GA mode (if fitted)?

A

TOGA to ensure SRS GA mode, then back to FLX/MCT

The FMA will read MAN GA SOFT/SRS/NAV

124
Q

When is maintenance action due on the brakes due to their temperatures? Where is this information?

A

If the difference between two brakes (same gear) is above 150degC and one is above 600degC,

If the difference between two brakes (same gear) is above 150degC and one is below 60degC,

Left and right gear difference of 200degC,

One temperature exceeds 900degC.

OMB 2.3.21

125
Q

After how long can engines be shut down after taxi in?

A

At least 3 minutes

126
Q

When can the seat belt signs be turned off parking on stand?

A

All doors disarmed

127
Q

When can the beacon light be turned off parking on stand?

A

Both N1 below 10%

128
Q

Why are the center tank pumps/transfer valves turned off as part of CM2s parking scan?

A

Prior to refuelling to avoid pumps low pressure cautions or fuel spillage

129
Q

Is there a requirement to note taxi in time in icing conditions?

A

Yes, below OAT+3degC in icing conditions, in the tech log

130
Q

What are your actions if you see a AIR L(R) WING LEAK on the ground in hot weather?

A

OMB 2.3.22.2

  1. Ensure wing area clear
  2. Blue pump OVRD to ON
  3. Flaps 1 (slats out)
  4. Blue pump OVRD to OFF
  5. Flaps 0 (prevents flap extension if G/Y HYD power applied)

Allows cooling of bleed ducts

131
Q

On approach, what and when does PM call deviations from:

  • Speed
  • Rate of descent
  • Bank angle
  • Pitch
  • Localiser/Glideslope
  • Track error (managed non-precision)
  • Vertical error (managed non-precision)
  • Course (VOR/ADF)
A

“SPEED” -5kt/+10kt
“SINK RATE” greater than -1000ft/m
“BANK” above 7 degrees
“PITCH” lower than -2.5 degrees or above +10 degrees (+7.5 degrees for A321)
“LOC” or “GLIDE” for over 1/2 dot deviation
“CROSSTRACK” for 0.1nm deviation in FINAL APP
“V-DEV” for 1/2 dot deviation in FINAL APP
“COURSE” for 1/2 dot VOR or 5 degrees NDB

OMB 2.3.90.8

132
Q

During a go-around, what does PM call if there is no climb rate?

A

“SINK RATE”

OMB 2.3.90.8

133
Q

What defines a steep approach? What is the A320 family limit?

A

Steep is above 3.5 degrees, the limit is 4.5 degrees

134
Q

Can we cross raised arrestor cables? Is there a limitation?

A

Yes, below 40 knots. Above this MOC action required

135
Q

Which warning/cautions would you reject for above 100 knots and below V1?

A

Any warning, and the following 5 cautions:

  • F/CTL SIDESTICK FAULT
  • ENG FAIL
  • ENG REVERSER FAULT
  • ENG REVERSE UNLOCKED
  • ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT
136
Q

Above what speed would you continue the take-off with tyre damage?

A

Above V1 minus 20 knots

Unless engine damage suspected as a result of tyre failure, it is far better to get airborne above V1 minus 20 knots and land with fuel runway length available

137
Q

What and when are the two PAs made on approach to an emergency landing?

A

2000ft: “Cabin crew take up landing positions”
500ft: “Brace, brace”

138
Q

What are the minimum climb gradients for takeoff?

A
  1. 4% gross for second segment (gear up to 400ft AGL)

1. 2% gross for final segment (flaps 0 to 1500ft AGL)

139
Q

What is the net takeoff flight path?

A

The actual/gross flight path reduced by a specific gradient decrement. This is 0.8% for two engine aeroplanes.

140
Q

When is an engine considered “secure”?

A

Engine fail? MASTER to OFF
Engine fail with damage? First agent discharged
Engine fire? First agent discharged (or second if FIRE SWITCH remains illuminated)

141
Q

What are your actions if an engine fails during enroute climb (above 1500ft)?

A

Turn towards the ENG FAIL HP. A radius of 30nm is surveyed for limiting obstacles. The SIDs routes (within 30nm) are taken into account for this

OMB 4.4.4

142
Q

When is a runway “wet”?

A

When the surface is covered with 3mm or less of water, slush, or loose snow, or when there is sufficient moisture on the runway to make it appear reflective, but without standing water

143
Q

When is a runway “damp”?

A

When the surface is not dry, but the moisture does not give a shiny appearance. For calculations, it is considered “wet”

144
Q

What is the screen height for takeoff on a dry runway?

A

35ft

145
Q

What is the screen height for takeoff on a wet runway?

A

15ft

146
Q

What is the procedure for the EFB when the runway is “slippery when wet” on takeoff?

A

If the whole runway is “slippery when wet”, select ICY when OAT is 5degC or below, or WATER 1/2 when OAT is above 5degC.

If portions of the runway are “slippery when wet”, sum the total length of the portions, and decrease the runway length from the runway start by this total. Select WET.

147
Q

Is there a new maximum crosswind if the runway is “slippery when wet”?

A

Yes, 25 knots. If portions of the runway are “slippery when wet” and have poor or unreported braking action, then the crosswind limit is 15 knots.

148
Q

What defines a contaminated runway?

A

More than 25% of the runway is covered by more than 3mm of standing water, compacted snow, or ice.

Takeoff with TOGA, captains only takeoff and landing.

Do not take off if contamination exceeds 13mm of standing water, 30mm of wet snow, or 100mm of dry snow.

149
Q

Is there a maximum height for snow banks at the side of a runway for takeoff/landing?

A

Yes, 0.3m at the runway edge, 0.6m at 5m away, 1.0m at 10m away, 1.5m at 15m away, and 3.0m at 20m away.

OMB 4.6.8

150
Q

What is a narrow runway and what is the minimum width required?

A

Below 45m is narrow, 30m is minimum required

151
Q

In the EFB, what does “RAG” signify on the runway takeoff data section?

A

Runway Arrestor Gear is used on the runway selected

152
Q

When is “FORWARD” given by the EFB as an A320 takeoff C of G?

A

MAC less than 27%

153
Q

What is the enroute net flight path?

A

1.1%

OMB 4.10

154
Q

What is the actual landing distance multiplied by to calculate the required landing distance on dry, wet and contaminated runways?

A
  1. 67x ALD for DRY
  2. 92x ALD for WET
  3. 15x ALD for CONTAMINATED (significantly lower!)
155
Q

What minimum climb gradient do all go around/missed approach procedures assume?

A

2.5%

156
Q

For landing performance, what will you enter in the EFB if the runway is “slippery when wet”?

A

If the whole runway is “slippery when wet”, select Standing Water (dispatch) or 3-Medium (in-flight).

If portions of the runway are “slippery when wet”, sum the total length of the portions, and decrease the runway length from the runway start by this total. Select WET (dispatch) or 5-Good (in-flight).

157
Q

Are METAR, TAF or tower winds given in degrees magnetic or true?

A

METAR and TAFs are given in degrees True, whereas tower winds are given in degrees Magnetic.

In areas of significant variation (such as KEF), METAR and TAF winds must be corrected to Magnetic.

158
Q

What are the fuel burn values for APU, taxi, holding (at 1500ft) and approach?

A

APU 2kg/min
Taxi 10kg/min (OETD 7kg/min)
Holding 40kg/min
Approach 17kg/min

159
Q

If engine or wing anti ice is required in the climb, what fuel penalty do these have?

A

Engine +1.1kg/min
Engine and wing +2.0kg/min

OMB 5.1

160
Q

How close must a takeoff alternate be?

A

Within 320nm (one hour still air flight time with one engine inoperative)

161
Q

How close must an adequate aerodrome be along the planned route?

A

Within 380nm for A319, or 400nm for A320/321 (one hour still air flight time with one engine)

162
Q

On the OFP, how is ZFW calculated?

A

DOW + payload

163
Q

On the OFP, if a route has been optimised, it may show as MCT, MDT, MFT or MTT. /R may be shown immediately after these. What do these stand for?

A

MCT is Min Cost Track
MDT is Min Distance Track
MFT is Min Fuel Track
MTT is Min Time Track

/R indicates Restricted (planning has freely optimised all relevant rules and restrictions, i.e. NOTAMs)

164
Q

On the OFP, is an RVSM altimeter check required?

A

No, it has been removed from EASA Air Ops regulation

165
Q

On the OFP, what is the difference between a fuel and commercial alternate?

A

F: Fuel alternates should only be chosen when the weather and operational conditions make a diversion unlikely (low risk)

C1, C2, C3…: Commerical alternates are used when a diversion is considered likely, due to thunderstorms, weather close to minima, crosswinds, or FZRA/DZ and SN forecast.

166
Q

What is the shear rate?

A

Vertical windshear value in metres per second per thousand feet at the position.

This value is calculated by quantifying the difference in wind speed (in m/s) and direction for the wind 2000ft above and 2000ft below the planned altitude (using the Singapore Airlines vertical windshear algorithm).

It is used as an indicator for Clear Air Turbulence only.

167
Q

If increasing or decreasing trip fuel, what is the amount (in kg) per nm that should be used?

A

Increase the trip fuel by 5kg/nm

Decrease the trip fuel by 4kg/nm

168
Q

What fuel does the aircraft normally use? What can it use?

A

JET A1. It can use many others, although JP 8 is identical to JET A1 (used at some military/civil airports).

Others include Jet A, JP5, No3 JET.

FCOM LIM FUEL

169
Q

What is the specific gravity of JET A1?

A

0.8kg/litre

170
Q

What is the standard cargo loading policy on an A319?

A

Up to 150 bags into the rear hold, mostly in compartment 4, with a maximum of 50 bags in compartment 5. Overspill baggage into compartment 1

OMB 7.1.2

171
Q

What is the standard cargo loading policy on an A320?

A

Up to approximately 85 bags into compartment 1, the remaining bags should go into compartment 4. Compartment 3 can also be used for high baggage loads.

There should be no requirement to use compartment 5, although it may be used in non-normal situations.

OMB 7.1.2

172
Q

What is the standard cargo loading policy on an A321?

A

First 100 bags into compartment 3, next 50 bags in compartment 4, remaining bags in compartment 2.

Electric mobility aids can be loaded in compartment 4 if total bags less than 100, or compartment 2 if bags over 100.

There should be no requirement to load compartment 1 and 5, but they can be used in non-normal situations.

OMB 7.1.2

173
Q

For ground stability of the A320, what consideration should be given to cargo loading/unloading?

A

The forward hold (compartment 1) should always be loaded before the aft hold (compartment 4). Unloading should be the reverse of loading.

174
Q

You have rear steps only on an A320, what are your thoughts?

A

Avoid excessive movement of passengers to the rear of the cabin, controlled by cabin crew, due to ground stability issues.

L/G SHOCK ABSORBER FAULT may indicate an unstable condition

OMB 7.1.3 Ground Stability

175
Q

You have front steps only on an A320, what are your thoughts?

A

Avoid excessive numbers of passengers left at the rear of the cabin (i.e. if forward passengers leave quicker), flow controlled by cabin crew, due to ground stability issues.

L/G SHOCK ABSORBER FAULT may indicate an unstable condition

OMB 7.1.3 Ground Stability

176
Q

If entering number of pieces of cargo in EFB (not weight), how can you do this?

A

Enter “p” after the number in the cargo compartment field. This uses standard weights of either 13kg/piece for international or 11kg/piece for domestic flights.

177
Q

How would you annotate a loading form if an authorised ticketed passenger (such as a Competent Authority inspector) is flying on the jumpseat but has a seat in the cabin?

A

Annotate the loadsheet at a suitable place with “Passenger on Flight Deck Jumpseat”. The trim change is tolerable. Do not change the passenger figures in the allocated seating bays, as this would not reconcile.

OMB 7.3.2

178
Q

Above what weight increase would LMCs require new ZFW/ZFWCGs and new performance?

A

Above 250kg

179
Q

Above/below what T.O. MAC% change would LMCs require new ZFW/ZFWCGs and new performance?

A

Above +2% or below -2%

180
Q

In the case of a free seating contigency, what should the cabin crew and the flight crew do?

A

CC must perform a head count informing flight deck of passenger numbers in each zone, and total POB.

The flight crew must correctly fill the EFB and make a PA to explain why allocated seating isn’t being used.

181
Q

When does PM call PITCH in a GA?

A

Over +20 or below -10 degrees

182
Q

When does a PM call SINK RATE in a GA?

A

If there is no climb rate

183
Q

When does a PM call SINK RATE on approach?

A

Greater than -1000fpm

184
Q

When does a PM call BANK on approach?

A

Greater than 7 degrees

185
Q

When does PM call LOC or GLIDE on APP?

A

Greater than half dot deviation

186
Q

When does PM call CROSSTRACK in FINAL APP?

A

Greater than 0.1nm deviation

187
Q

When does PM call COURSE in APP?

A

0.5 dot on VOR or 5 degrees on ADF

188
Q

When does PM call VDEV or LAT-DEV on RNP AR APP?

A

Greater than 0.5 dot deviation

189
Q

When does PM call PITCH PITCH on landing?

A

Approaching the tail strike pitch limit indicator, or reaches +10 degrees (+7.5 degrees A321)

190
Q

When performing OETD, when may engine 2 be started?

A

Wait until the start pressure is established, to ensure bleed system valves are no longer in transit

191
Q

When should PACK FLOW be selected to LO?

A

Below 130 pax (or below 160 A321)

192
Q

When a destination runway is “slippery when wet” what should the landing DISPATCH runway condition be on the iPad?

A

“Slippery wet”

193
Q

If NWS is offset by 0.5 to 1.5 degrees, what is the maximum crosswind for an autoland?

A

10kts

194
Q

If NWS is offset by less than 0.5 degrees, what is the maximum crosswind for an autoland?

A

No restriction

195
Q

If NWS is offset by more than 1.5 degrees, what is the action?

A

Do not attempt takeoff, seek maintenance action

196
Q

What are the TREF values?

A

A319 ISA+30
A320 ISA+29
A321 ISA+15

197
Q

When does PM call BANK on an RNP AR approach?

A

When bank goes above 30 degrees

198
Q

When does PM call PITCH on approach?

A

Pitch lower than -2.5deg or higher than +10deg (+7.5deg for A321)

199
Q

What should be the delay between selecting APU MASTER ON and APU START?

A

3 seconds

200
Q

How long between APU start before using APU bleed?

A

1 minute (to allow for APU thermal stabilisation)

201
Q

How long between APU bleed and selecting packs 1+2 on?

A

1 minute (to exhaust any contaminants)

202
Q

What is the standard weight on the loading form in passenger LMC for male/female/child?

A

84 kg

203
Q

What is the standard weight on the loading form for cabin baggage which cannot fit in the cabin?

A

11kg

204
Q

When must takeoff performance be recalculated with respect to LMCs?

A

When the LMC weight is greater than +250 kg or ZFCG variation is outside +/- 2% MAC

Command Preparation (31 decks)

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