Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EM Boards > EM2 > Flashcards

EM2 Flashcards

1
Q

What medications constitute triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori?

A

Clarithromycin, Amoxicillin (or metronidazole) and a proton pump inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Kanavel’s signs? (4) -

A

1) symmetrical swelling of the involved finger, 2) finger held in flexion at rest, 3) tenderness along the flexor tendon sheath, and 4) pain with passive extension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Epi cardiac vs anaphylactic dosing?

A

Cardiac- 1:10,000 IV, 1 mg (10ml)

Anaphylactic- 1:1000 IM, 300mcg (0.3ml)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Try this medicine for refractory hypotension in patient with known HTN

A

Glucagon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Beck’s triad for cardiac tamponade

A

hypotension, JVD, muffled heart sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which bacteria is associated with many variants of Guillain-Barré syndrome that are preceded by diarrhea?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is Fitz-Hugh-Curtis?

A

Perihepatitis associated with PID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Most sensitive exam finding for cauda Equina?

A

Urinary retention (Post void residual> 100ml) followed by urinary incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the Parkland formula for fluid resuscitation in burns?

A

Total Body Surface Area Burned x Weight (kg) x 4mL. First half is administered in first 8 hours followed by the second half in the next 16. (LR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

MCC neonatal Meningitis? Tx?

A

GBS. Amp/gent or amp/cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tx of meningitis in <18 vs >18?

A

(Cefotaxime)/ceftriaxone + vanc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tx of meningitis in >50 or alcoholic?

A

CTX + vanc + amp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MCC meningitis in adults?

A

Strep pneumo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Difference between placenta previa and placenta abruptio? (3)

A

PP- Painless third trimester bleeding. Dx with ultrasound. Placenta lying over cervix

PA- Painful third trimester bleeding. Poorly seen with ultrasound. Premature Placenta separation from uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Tx Kawasaki disease (2)

A

ASA + IVIG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Ketosis without AG acidosis

A

Isopropyl alcohol toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tx of primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

100mg hydrocortisone IV (bc both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the most common worldwide cause of primary adrenal insufficiency?

A

TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What special population has an increased risk of cecal volvulus?

A

Marathon runners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tx for intussusception

A

air enema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tx for midgut volvulus or malrotation? (3)

A

IVF, NGT, Surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tx for HAPE?

A

Descent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What treatments may prevent the development of acute mountain sickness? (3)

A

Acetazolamide, dexamethasone, slow ascent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Classic pentad for TTP?

A 
1- microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
2- thrombocytopenia
3- fever
4- renal pathology
5- CNS abnormality
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What bacterial diarrheal organism can lead to TTP?

A

Shiga toxin producing E Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the first sign of magnesium toxicity?

A

Loss of patellar tendon reflexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Epididymitis tx <35 vs >35?

A

<35: ceftriaxone + doctor

> 35: levoflox/cipro or bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Prehn’s sign?

A

Relief of pain when the scrotum is lifted (indicates inflammation of the epididymis.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Patients with sickle cell disease are at higher risk of bacteremia and osteomyelitis from which organism?

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the most rapid method of rewarming?

A

Cardiopulmonary bypass circuit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

MC age for quad tendon rupture vs patellar Tendon Rupture?

A

<40 : PTR

> 40: QTR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Differential for AG metabolic acidosis?

A

MUDPILES: Methanol, uremia, diabetic ketoacidosis (as well as alcoholic and starvation ketoacidosis), propylene glycol/paracetamol (acetaminophen), iron/isoniazid, lactate, ethylene glycol, salicylates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Tx beta-blocker OD? (3)

A

Glucagon, vasopressor, high dose insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

TCA OD tx? until?

A

Sodium bicarb 50mEq until QRS narrows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

AAA triad?

A

Abdominal/back pain, hypotension and a pulsatile abdominal mass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Radiation injuries prognosis?

A

Lymphocyte count in 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

organophosphate poisoning tx?

A

Atropine + pralidoxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Diltiazem OD Tx? (3)

A

calcium chloride, high dose insulin and glucose, and, in severe cases, intralipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Anticholinergics toxicity tx? (3)

A

Physostigmine, BZDs, cooling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

At how many weeks gestation should one expect fetal cardiac activity?

A

6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Tx UTI in pregnancy?

A

Macrobid, keflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Spontaneous pneumothorax tx?

A

<20% observe

>20% chest tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How to dx intestinal malrotation?

A

Upper GI series with oral contrast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Virchow’s node?

A

Left supraclavicular LAD usu from gastric malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

HIV post-exposure prophylaxis

A

(if mucous membrane exposure or skin compromise) Tenofovir + emtricitabine plus raltegravir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

HBV post-exposure prophylaxis

A

Prior vaccination: PEP not needed

No prior immunization: HBIG + HBV vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

HCV post-exposure prophylaxis

A

No PEP available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the most common viral cause of cirrhosis in the United States?

A

HCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How to calculate maintenance fluids rate

A

100 ml/kg/day for the first 10 kg, 50 ml/kg/day for the next 10 kg, and 20 ml/kg/day for each additional kilogram. The total is then divided by 24 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Hypersensitivity reactions? (4)

A

ACID
1-Anaphylactic/urticarial (igE, needs 2 exposures, immediate)
2-Cytotoxic/Complement (igG/igM, hemolytic anemia, 2 exposures)
3-Immune complex (igG/igM, SLE/RA/serum Sickness)
4-Delayed (T cells, immune mediated, TB/Contact dermatitis/transplant rejection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

3 types of pelvic fractures + mech?

A

1- lateral compression (T-bone MVC/pedestrian hit from side)
2- AP fracture (head on MVC)
3- vertical shear (fall)

52
Q

Where do most esophageal Foreign body’s get stuck?

A

C6 cricopharyngeus muscle

53
Q

What size FB needs to be removed from stomach

A

Any foreign body longer than 5 cm or wider than 2.5 cm diameter should be removed as they are highly unlikely to pass the duodenum.

54
Q

Dx compartment syndrome? (2) Tx?

A

compartment pressure >30 mmHg or delta pressure (DBP - compartment pressure) <30 mmHg indicates significant CS.

tx= fasciotomy

55
Q

SIRS criteria? 2 or more of the following:

A

T >38° or <36°
HR > 90 bpm
RR > 20 bpm or PCO2 < 32 mmHg
WBC >12000/mm3 or <4000/mm3

56
Q

What is the immediate ED management of a patient with polycythemia vera and altered mental status?

A

Phlebotomy of 500cc of blood

57
Q

3 neck injury zones + prognosis ?

A

Zone I: clavicle to cricoid cartilage (highest morbidity and mortality)
Zone II: cricoid cartilage to mandible (best prognosis, most accessible)
Zone III: mandible to skull base

58
Q

Tx for achilles tendon rupture

A

posterior splint in plantarflexion, orthopedic consult

59
Q

Cushing reflex: (3)

A

Hypertension + bradycardia + respiratory depression

60
Q

Decorticate posturing:

A

upper extremity flexion, lower extremity extension

61
Q

Decerebrate posturing:

A

upper/lower extremity extension

62
Q

Oculocephalic response:

A

eyes moving in opposite direction of head turning = intact brainstem function

63
Q

Oculovestibular response:

A

irrigation of saline into the ear; no eye movement = brainstem injury

64
Q

Which two maneuvers should be attempted first in a patient with shoulder dystocia

A

Suprapubic pressure and McRoberts maneuver

65
Q

When should an asymptomatic AAA be referred for repair?

A

> 5cm

66
Q

Tx for jellyfish sting

A

Immersion in acetic acid (vinegar)

67
Q

tx for cholinergic poisoning? until?

A

Atropine and 2-PAM (pralidoxime) until sessation of secretions

68
Q

Symmetric descending paralysis

A

Botulism

69
Q

At what ages should infants begin to roll over and walk?

A

5 months and 12-15 months, respectively.

70
Q

Difference between phimosis and paraphimosis? Which more dangerous?

A

Paraphimosis- needs PARAmedics (more dangerous)- cannot retract foreskin over exposed edematous glans
Phimosis- can’t pull back foreskin

71
Q

Diff between breast feeding failure and breast milk jaundice

A

BFF- presents within first week. Dec bilirubin excretion bc poor feeding
BMJ- benign. Well appearing just delay in gut flora

72
Q

Colicky abd pain, sausage shaped mass, current jelly stool

A

Intussception

73
Q

Bullous pemphigoid vs pemphigus vulgaris?

A

BP- Old, tense, neg Nikolsky, benign, topical steroids

PV- 40-60, flaccid, pos Nikolsky, life threatening, mucosal involvement

74
Q

RIJ placement depth

A

13 +/- 2 cm

75
Q

Nerve injury associated with shoulder dislocation

A

Axillary nerve (sensation over deltoid)

76
Q

Hill-Sachs lesion

A

2/2 shoulder dislocation, posterolateral humeral head compression fx

77
Q

Bankhart lesion

A

2/2 shoulder dislocation, injury to labrum of glenoid

78
Q

Thompson test?

A

Lack of plantar flexion with calf squeeze= Achilles tendon rupture

79
Q

Diff between uterine rupture and placental rupture?

A

UR- No palpable fetus, loss of contractions, heavy bleeding

80
Q

pseudo-obstruction seen in elderly debilitated patients with chronic constipation?

A

Ogilvie syndrome

81
Q

Which organisms cause bloody diarrhea (6)

A

Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, Yersinia, enterohemorrhagic Escherichia coli, enteroinvasive E. coli, and Entamoeba histolytica.

82
Q

Organism most related to reactive Arthritis

A

Chlamydia

83
Q

Hypothermia, hypotension, bradycardia

A

Myxedema coma

84
Q

MCC Tricuspid Regurg

A

RA And RV dilatation

85
Q

Cold calories, expected nystagmus?

A

COWS. Cold water causes opposite side nystagmus , warm water causes same side nystagmus

86
Q

Double bubble sign

A

Duodenal atresia

87
Q

Sx of hypercalcemia

A

Patient will be complaining of bone pain (Bones), kidney stones (Stones), abdominal pain (Groans), lethargy, psychosis (Psychiatric overtones)

88
Q

Saltar Harris Classification? Tx?

A 
I: S (Slipped epiphysis)
II: A (fracture Above physis), most common
III: L (fracture beLow physis)
IV: T (fracture Through physis)
V: ER (ERasure of growth plate)

I/II rx: nonoperative
IV/V rx: surgery required

89
Q

Hypoproteinemia, proteinuria, edema

A

Nephrotic syndrome

90
Q

Tx malaria?

A

Uncomplicated, no resistance areas Rx: chloroquine

Complicated, P. falciparum Rx: quinidine + doxycycline

91
Q

Target pH for Morgan lens irrigation

A

7-7.2

92
Q

Diff between acid vs alkali burns (ocular)

A

Acid- protein coagulation.

Alkali- liquefactive necrosis. Worse

93
Q

Tx of wernicke-korsakoff syndrome?

A

thiamine then glucose

94
Q

Tx of serotonin syndrome

A

Supportive then cyproheptadine

95
Q

Diff between serotonin syndrome and neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Both can cause hyperthermia, automatic instability, AMS but hyperreflexia and clonus are more specific to SS

96
Q

MC location of anal fissure

A

posterior midline (6pm)

97
Q

Diff between internal and external hemorrhoids

A

Internal bleed

External hurt

98
Q

At what level does the spinal cord end in adults?

A

L1-L2

99
Q

What medications do you use to treat hypertension caused by cocaine toxicity? (2)

A

Benzodiazepines and phentolamine.

100
Q

Terminal R wave in aVR

A

TCA poisioning

101
Q

VP shunt reservoir interpretations?

A

difficult-to-depress reservoir is suggestive of a distal obstruction (thrombus)

whereas delayed refilling of the reservoir > 3 seconds is suggestive of a proximal obstruction (choroid plexus or inc CSF)

102
Q

Common cause of food bolus?

A

Shiatzki rings

103
Q

TX SJS?

A

Supportive + refer to burn center

104
Q

Sea urchin tx

A

Hot water immersion

105
Q

Peds coiled NG tube

A

Tracheoesophagel fistula

106
Q

What labs are unreliable from IO line?

A

CBC (only HB is reliable) + K + pO2

107
Q

Tx preseptal cellulitis?

A

Oral augmentin or clindamycin

108
Q

Dosing for rhogam?

A

<12 weeks: 50mcg
>12 weeks: 300 mcg antiD immunoglobulin IM

but no harm in giving 300 so might as well

109
Q

Toluidine blue:

Wood’s lamp:

A

Toluidine blue: detects vulvar tears

Wood’s lamp: detects semen stains

110
Q

triad nephrotic syndrome?

A

hypoproteinemia, edema, proteinuria (greater than 3.5 gm per day or 3+ to 4+ on dipstick)

111
Q

nephrotic syndrome in children, preceded by URI. rx?

A

Minimal change disease

rx= steroids

112
Q

nephrotic syndrome in African-Americans, HIV/IVDA

A

Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

113
Q

nephrotic syndrome in Caucasians, HBV, HCV, SLE, gold, penicillamine, malignancy

A

Membranous nephropathy

114
Q

maculopapular rash with lesions in the same stage of development? tx?

A

smallpox (variola)

tx= supportive

115
Q

vague flu-like symptoms and fever that can progress to hemorrhagic mediastinitis? tx?

A

anthrax. cipro or doxy

116
Q

sudden onset febrile flu-like illness that can progress to pleuropneumonitis? tx?

A

tularemia. streptomycin.

117
Q

gram-negative sepsis with or without flu-like symptoms or bobo lesions? tx?

A

Yersinia pestis, or the plague. streptomycin or gentamicin

118
Q

PERC out? (8)

A 
age>50
HR>100
O2<95%
prior hx
recent trauma/surgery
hemoptysis
OCP
UL leg swelling

all must be neg to PERC out

119
Q

What are the three components of Horner’s syndrome caused by disruption of the sympathetic chain?

A

Ptosis, miosis and anhidrosis.

120
Q

ptosis, diplopia and blurred vision

A

myasthenia gravis

121
Q

Improvement of muscle strength with repeated stimulation

A

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

122
Q

antibodies target the calcium channels which results in a reduction of acetylcholine release

A

Lambert-Eaton syndrome

123
Q

autoimmune destruction of the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on the postsynaptic membrane –> less total receptors

A

myasthenia gravis

124
Q

ice bag test

A

lid lag in MG improves w/ ice

because improved neuromuscular transmission at lower muscle temperatures

125
Q

tx of TM rupture 2/2 AOM?

A

amox + otic drops

126
Q

What delivery method is preferable in cases of placental abruption involving a term pregnancy when the mother and fetus are stable?

A

oxytocin assisted vag delivery

127
Q

pseudomembranes w/ mucopurulent sputum or cough

A

bacterial tracheitis

EM Boards (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions