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Part I Boards Question Bank > *MOVED*Advanced Trauma (Physical Injury) > Flashcards

*MOVED*Advanced Trauma (Physical Injury) Flashcards

1
Q

A pitch-fork handler is likely to get a fatigue fracture of the… A. Radial neck B. Coronoid process C. Olecranon process D. Ulna shaft

A

D. Ulna shaft

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2
Q

Which of the following classification systems of ankle fractures is based on the position of the fibular fracture with respect to the joint line? A. Evans B. Lauge-Hansen C. Weber D. Seinsheimer’s

A

C. Weber

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3
Q

Which fracture predisposes to dislocation of the entire carpus? A. Chauffers B. Bartons C. Colles D. Essex-Lopresti

A

B. Bartons

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4
Q

Which of the following of the Lauge-Hansen classification represents the most common ankle injuries? A. SAD B. PAB C. SER D. PDF

A

C. SER

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5
Q

Sucky golfers will frequently develop fatigue fractures of what structure? A. Upper ribs B. Coracoid C. Triquetrum D. Lateral epicondyle

A

A. Upper ribs

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6
Q

Bucket handle fractures of the knee are seen in which condition? A. Osteogenesis imperfecta B. Child abuse C. Well diggers injury D. Parachutists knee

A

B. Child abuse

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7
Q

What is the best diagnostic imaging modality for the diagnosis of complex regional pain syndrome? A. MRI B. Conventional radiographs C. 3 phase bone scan D. CT myelography

A

C. 3 phase bone scan

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8
Q

Which of the following eponyms represents a variation in SER stage I injuries in which an avulsion fracture of the anterior margin of the tibia occurs? A. Wagstaff-Lefort B. Reverse Tillaux C. Tillaux D. Sinding-Larsen-Johansson

A

C. Tillaux

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9
Q

An individual with a stress fracture of the proximal fibula is most likely a… A. Ballet dancer B. Hurdler C. Parachutist D. Bowler

A

C. Parachutist

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10
Q

What fracture is frequently found in conjunction with a hangmans fracture? A. Teardrop B. Clay shovelers C. Articular pillar D. Jefferson

A

A. Teardrop

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11
Q

According to the Pipkin classification system of femoral head fractures associated with posterior hip dislocation, which of the following descriptions correctly illustrates a type II injury? A. Femoral head fracture that is located inferior to the fovea centralis. B. Femoral head fracture that is superior to or involving the fovea centralis. C. Femoral head fracture with associated fracture of the femoral neck. D. Femoral head fracture with associated fracture of the acetabulum.

A

B. Femoral head fracture that is superior to or involving the fovea centralis.

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12
Q

Which of the following is not a good indicator of likely recurrent anterior glenohumeral joint dislocation? A. Large Hill-Sachs lesion B. Large Bankart fracture C. Initial dislocation in an older individual D. All of the above are good indications for recurrent dislocations

A

C. Initial dislocation in an older individual

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13
Q

According to the Evans’ classification system of intertrochanteric fractures, Type I differs from Type Il by which of the following? A. Comminuted versus non-comminuted. B. The obliquity of the fracture line. C. Involvement of the greater trochanter. D. All of the above.

A

B. The obliquity of the fracture line.

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14
Q

Which is a radiograhic finding of loosening of a prosthesis of the hip? A. Widening of the cement-bone interface B. Heterotopic bone C. Periosteal scalloping D. Metal fracture

A

A. Widening of the cement-bone interface

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15
Q

A Duverney fracture has what Tile classification? A. A В. В C. C D. D

A

A. A

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16
Q

Which is the most common type of anterior glenohumeral joint dislocation? A. Subglenoid B. Subcoracoid C. Subclavicular D. Intrathoracic

A

B. Subcoracoid

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17
Q

In the Tile classification of pelvic injuries, a fracture of the superior and inferior pubic rami with associated contralateral sacroiliac joint separation is caused by which of the following forces… A. Anterior compression injury B. Lateral compression injury C. Vertical shearing injury D. None of the above

A

B. Lateral compression injury

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18
Q

What is a “growing fracture”? A. Leptomeningeal cyst B. Aneurysmal bone cyst C. Intracranial hypertension D. Suture resporption from HPT

A

A. Leptomeningeal cyst

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19
Q

T F Rib fractures commonly occur from normal childhood trauma.

A

F

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20
Q

This is the most frequently fractured long bone. A. Radius B. Ulna C. Tibia D. Fibula

A

C. Tibia

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21
Q

Direct forces of low magnitude result in transverse or slightly oblique fractures. These have been termed… A. Butterfly fracture B. Teacup fracture C. Tapping fracture D. Segmental fracture

A

C. Tapping fracture

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22
Q

A posterior dislocation of the hip with an associated posterior acetabular rim fracture is termed? A. Dashboard B. Dancers C. Duverneys D. Dichotamous

A

A. Dashboard

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23
Q

Extension, rotation, and lateral flexion of the cervical spine during trauma result in what fracture? A. Articular pillar B. Clay shovelers C. Transverse process D. 1st rib

A

A. Articular pillar

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24
Q

Your patient demonstrates pain at the AC joint. This is a remote history of trauma, but nothing in the last 3 months. Radiographs demonstrate widening of the acromioclavicular joint, and an irregular distal cortal margin of the clavicle. What do you suspect? A. AC dislocation grade 2 B. Post-traumatic osteolysis C. Osteitis condensans clavicle D. Trapshooter shoulder

A

B. Post-traumatic osteolysis

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25
Q

What percent of patients with growth plate injuries develop some degree of growth deformity? A. 10 to 15 percent B. 25 to 30 percent C. 40 to 45 percent D. 55 to 60 percent

A

B. 25 to 30 percent

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26
Q

The most reliable indirect sign of a basal skull fracture on conventional radiographs is… A. Air/fluid level in the sphenoid sinus B. Pneumocephalus C. Air/fluid in the maxillary sinus D. Leptomeningeal cyst

A

A. Air/fluid level in the sphenoid sinus

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27
Q

Shin splints is a term used to describe pain and tenderness in the lower leg that worsens with activity and abates with rest. MR findings in a patient with clinical evidence of acute shin splints includes which of the following. MARK ALL THAT APPLY, 1-4 CORRECT ANSWERS A. Tibiofemoral joint edema B. Periosteal edema C. Bone marrow edema D. Ankle mortise joint edema E. All of the above

A

B. Periosteal edema C. Bone marrow edema

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28
Q

Surgical reduction is generally recommended for fractures of the tibial plateau that are depressed or displaced by more than: A. 2mm B. 4mm C. 6mm D. 10mm

A

D. 10mm

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29
Q

Craniofacial dissociation describes what LeFort fracture? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

A

C. 3

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30
Q

Which of the following classification systems describes intracapsular fractures, particularly those that are subcapital, according to the degree of displacement on prereduction radiographs? A. Pauwels B. Evans C. Garden D. Seinsheimer’s

A

C. Garden

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31
Q

Which Weber classification injury would be associated with a Maisonneuve fracture? A. A B. B C. C D. D

A

C. C

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32
Q

A comminuted fracture of the radial head combined with dislocation of the distal radioulnar joint is termed.. A. Piedmont fracture B. Reverse Monteggia fracture C. Galeazzi fracture D. Essex-Lopresti fracture

A

D. Essex-Lopresti fracture

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33
Q

According to the classic classification system for acromioclavicular joint dislocations, which of the following statements best describes a type IV injury? A. Disruption of both the acromiocalvicular and coracoclavicular ligaments with displacement of the distal clavicle posteriorly into or through the trapezius. B. Disruption of both the acromiocalvicular and coracoclavicular ligaments with 25-100% dislocation of the clavicle. C. Disruption of both the acromiocalvicular and coracoclavicular ligaments, extensive clavicular detachment of the deltoid and trapezius muscles, and greater than 100% superior dislocation of the distal clavicle. D. Disruption of both the acromiocalvicular and coracoclavicular ligaments, clavicular detachment of the deltoid and trapezius muscles, and displacement of the clavicle below the acromion or coracoid process.

A

A. Disruption of both the acromiocalvicular and coracoclavicular ligaments with displacement of the distal clavicle posteriorly into or through the trapezius.

34
Q

The most common fraeture of the elbow in pediatric patients is what? A. Supracondylar Fx of the humerus B. Radial head chisel Fx C. Coronoid process Fx of the ulna D. Osteochondral Fx of the capitellum

A

A. Supracondylar Fx of the humerus

35
Q

Which of the following views will best demonstrate an air/fluid level in the sphenoid sinus? MARK ALL THAT APPLY. 1-5 CORRECT ANSWERS A. Waters view B. Horizontal-beam lateral (cross table lateral) radiograph of the skull C. AP Towne’s radiograph D. PA Caldwell E. Submentovertex

A

B. Horizontal-beam lateral (cross table lateral) radiograph of the skull

36
Q

According to the Lauge-Hansen classification of ankle fractures, which of the following combinations cannot be distinguished radiographically. A. SER stage I and SAD stage I. B. PER stages I and II and PAB stages I and II. C. PER stages III and IV and SER stages III and IV. D. All of the stages are easily distungished radiographically.

A

B. PER stages I and II and PAB stages I and II.

37
Q

A comminuted fracture of the base of the 1st metacarpal is termed? A. Bennets B. Bartons C. Rolondos D. Piedmonts

A

C. Rolondos

38
Q

A depressed skull fracture where the fragment is displaced greater than 5mm raises concern for what complication? A. Dural tear B. Ventricular displacement C. Meningioma D. Button sequestrum

A

A. Dural tear

39
Q

A valgus force through the knee results in which injury? A. Segond Fx B. Fender Fx C. Posterior tibial spine Fx D. Popliteus tendon avulsion Fx

A

B. Fender Fx

40
Q

A lateral clear space of the ankle that measures______or greater represents an unequivocal indication for syndesmotic rupture. A. 2mm B. 3.5mm C. 4.5mm D. 5.5mm

A

D. 5.5mm

41
Q

The criteria used by Neer to evaluate displacement of a fractured osseous fragment is… A. Displacement of the fragment by more than 1 cm B. Angulation of the fragment by more than 45 degrees C. Superior migration of the humeral head by more than 1 cm D. Both A and B are correct

A

D. Both A and B are correct

42
Q

Which of the following systems is used to classify subtrochanteric fractures? A. Seinsheimer’s B. Garden C. Evans’ D. Pauwels

A

A. Seinsheimer’s

43
Q

A fracture seen in the clavarium of children and associated with no overt fracture, but rather an indentation deformity, is termed what? A. Linear fracture B. Depressed fracture C. Lead piple fracture D. Ping pong fracture

A

D. Ping pong fracture

44
Q

This fracture is a combination of an incomplete transverse fracture of one cortex and buckling of the opposite side. A. Greenstick fracture B. Lead pipe fracture C. Torus fracture D. Tapping fracture

A

B. Lead pipe fracture

45
Q

Which pelvic injury is associated with vertical shearing? A. Malgaigne B. Bucket handle C. Sprung pelvis D. Duverney

A

A. Malgaigne

46
Q

A radial head fracture with associated dislocation of the elbow is which Mason classification? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

A

D. 4

47
Q

What view would best visualize a hamulus fatigue fracture? A. Carpal tunnel B. Merchants C. Lateral oblique D. PA radial deviation

A

A. Carpal tunnel

48
Q

The most commonly used classification system of subcapital femoral fractures is… A. Pauwels B. Mason C. Boyd & Griffin D. Garden

A

D. Garden

49
Q

Hamulus stress fractures are a component of what sport? A. Raquet ball B. Volley ball C. Trap shooting D. Bowling

A

A. Raquet ball

50
Q

Following fracture of the first rib, what is an indirect sign of subclavian artery injury? A. Interstitial emphysema B. Pneumothorax C. Callus formation D. Extrapleural mass

A

D. Extrapleural mass

51
Q

In regards to intracapsular fractures, the frequency of ischemic necrosis of the femoral head: A. is about 5%. B. varies from 60 - 75%. C. is about 50%. D. varies from 10 - 30%.

A

D. varies from 10 - 30%.

52
Q

Choose the false statement about fractures of the anterior process of the calcaneus. A. This is the most common form of avulsion fracture of the calcaneus. B. This fracture is more common in males. C. Must be differentiated from the os calcaneus secondarius. D. The fracture is the result of adduction of the forefoot while the foot is in the equinus position.

A

B. This fracture is more common in males.

53
Q

Mechanical failure of normal bone due to abnormal loading is termed? A. Stress Fx B. Fatigue FX C. Insufficiency Fx D. Wuss Fx

A

B. Fatigue FX

54
Q

Which one of the following is a direct sign of cranial injury? A. Soft tissue swelling overlying the cranium B. Opacification of the sinuses C. Fracture D. Air in the cranial cavity

A

C. Fracture

55
Q

Choose all the synonyms for complex regional pain syndrome. MARK ALL THAT APPLY, 1-4 CORRECT ANSWERS A. Causalgia B. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome C. Sudeks atrophy D. Transient migratory osteoporosis

A

A. Causalgia B. Reflex sympathetic dystrophy syndrome C. Sudeks atrophy

56
Q

What is the hallmark of child abuse? A. Multiple fractures of varying age B. Epiphyseal corner fractures C. Hand or foot injuries D. Comminuted spinal or pelvic fractures

A

A. Multiple fractures of varying age

57
Q

T F In patients over the age of 5 it is common to find acute fractures associated with child abuse.

A

F

58
Q

The overall incidence of fractures appearing on skull radiographs is less than… A. 10% B. 25% C. 50% D. 70%

A

A. 10%

59
Q

This fracture is sometimes known as a pyramidal fracture. A. Tripod B. LeFort l C. LeFort II D. LeFort III

A

C. LeFort II

60
Q

Select the fractures associated with anterior glenohumeral dislocation MARK ALL THAT APPLY, 1-4 CORRECT ANSWERS A. Flap B. Hill Sachs C. Trough D. Bankart E. Piedmont AB.Coracoid

A

A. Flap B. Hill Sachs D. Bankart

61
Q

With regards to the Salter-Harris classification system, which of the following is the most common type of growth plate injury? A. Salter-Harris type III, which represents approximately 50% of injuries. B. Salter-Harris type II, at 75% of physeal injuries. C. Salter-Harris type IV, at 75% of all growth plate injuries. D. Salter-Harris type I, which represents approximately 50% of injuries.

A

B. Salter-Harris type II, at 75% of physeal injuries.

62
Q

What classification scheme is used for fracture/dislocations of the hip? A. Thompson-Epstein B. Lauge-Hanson C. Milch-Mason D. Ottawa-Steill

A

A. Thompson-Epstein

63
Q

What percentage of fractures of the sternum are associated with wedge compression fractures? A. 20% B. 40% C. 60% D. 80%

A

B. 40%

64
Q

What fracture is associated with entrapment of the inferior rectus muscle of the eye? A. LeFort 2 B. Tripod C. Blow out D. Naso-lacrimal

A

C. Blow out

65
Q

Which one of the following entities is part of the early stage of reflex sympathetic dystrophy? A. Constant burning or aching pain in the extremity B. Cold, glossy skin C. Limited range of motion D. Osteopenia

A

A. Constant burning or aching pain in the extremity

66
Q

Utilizing the Neer classification of proximal humeral fractures, which type is most common? A. 1 part B. 2 part C. 3 part D. 4 part

A

A. 1 part

67
Q

Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning linear skull fractures? A. They do not cross sutures whereas vascular grooves do B. They are the most common types of skull fracture C. They are more lucent than vascular grooves D. Linear skull fractures are most commonly found in the temporal and parietal bones

A

A. They do not cross sutures whereas vascular grooves do

68
Q

Which Neer classification has the greatest association with avascular necrosis of the humeral head? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

A

D. 4

69
Q

Children throwing curve balls in little league will often develop an injury of what structure? A. Medial epicondyle B. Lateral epicondyle C. Radial head D. Supracondular humerus

A

A. Medial epicondyle

70
Q

MRI imaging post patella dislocation demonstrates a number of findings, one in which should prompt the radiologist to recommend an arthroscopic evaluation. Which of the following findings is the key feature for further examination? A. Missing cartilage B. Retinacular disruption C. Kissing lesion D. Shallow trochlear notch

A

A. Missing cartilage

71
Q

A Mason type I elbow fracture is treated… A. Conservatively B. Surgically C. By radial head excision D. Internal fixation

A

A. Conservatively

72
Q

The most common facial bone fracture is? A. Tripod B. Nasal C. Lefort 4 D. Zygoma

A

B. Nasal

73
Q

Pneumocephalus will most likely occur… A. Following a fracture of the base of the skull B. Following an orbital blow out fracture C. Following a fracture of the mastoid process D. Following a depressed fracture of the frontal sinus

A

D. Following a depressed fracture of the frontal sinus

74
Q

Your 70yo osteoporotic patient develops periosteal lifting of the 1st metatarsals bilaterally after a weekend gardening. What does this represent? A. Fatigue Fx B. March Fx C. Insufficiency Fx D. Loading Fx

A

C. Insufficiency Fx

75
Q

According to the Garden classification system, a complete fracture without osseous displacement is considered a: A. Type I fracture. B. Type Il fracture. C. Type Ill fracture. D. Type IV fracture.

A

B. Type Il fracture.

76
Q

In general, when is surgery for tibial plateau fractures indicated? A. Local depression of a plateau by 10-mm or more, and displacement of split fractures by 5-mm or more B. Local depression of a plateau by 5-mm or more, and displacement of split fractures by 10-mm or more C. Depressed by more 3-mm or if there is more than 30 degrees of angulation D. Displacement of fragments more than 10-mm or angulated more than 45 degrees

A

A. Local depression of a plateau by 10-mm or more, and displacement of split fractures by 5-mm or more

77
Q

The-anteversion of the femoral neck as visualized on the groin lateral view is normally… A. 10 to 15 degrees B. 15 to 20 degrees C. 20 to 25 degrees D. 25 to 30 degrees

A

D. 25 to 30 degrees

78
Q

A fracture of the lateral malleolus at the level of the ankle joint without widening of the distal tibiofibular joint indicates which Weber classifcation? A. A В. В C. C D. D

A

В. В

79
Q

The most common complication of a scaphoid fracture is… A. AVN B. Median nerve damage C. Vascular injury D. Non-union

A

D. Non-union

80
Q

I had to write 50 new questions for this exam. My brain is Jell-o. Memorizing classification schemes has probably turned your brain to Jell-O. Pick your favorite letter. A. A B. M C. X D. Z

A

A. A

Part I Boards Question Bank (20 decks)

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