CFP - 2.2 Insurance Flashcards

1
Q

Is the granting of stock options a taxable event?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the two types of stock options?

A

Non-qualified Stock Option (NQSO)

Incentive Stock Option (ISO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

NQSOs can be granted to which of the following:

A. Employee
B. Independent contractor
C. Family member of A or B
D. Beneficiary of A or B
E. All of the above
A

E. All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Is there a limit to the exercise period of NQSOs?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When are NQSOs taxed?

A

At exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How are NQSOs taxed?

A

As ordinary income, subject to payroll taxes for the difference between the exercise price and the current fair market value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the tax basis of a stock from an exercised NQSO?

A

The exercise price plus the ordinary income recognized (approximately equal to the FMV on the date of exercise)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When does holding period begin for the stock of an exercised NQSO?

A

Date of exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is income recognized by the employee if an NQSO is transferred to a family member or other person?

A

When the transferee exercises the option

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Are gifted NQSOs valued on date of gift or date of exercise?

A

Date of gift

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

NQSO transfers are completed gifts on the latter of what two dates?

A

Date of transfer or date of vesting (when it becomes exercisable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When is income recognized by the employee if an NQSO is transferred to a charity?

A

When the charity exercises the option, if the employee is still living

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If an employee gifts an NQSO to a charity and then passes before exercise, who pays the income tax?

A

There is no ordinary income in this case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When can the employee deduct an NQSO gift to charity?

A

On the latter of the date of transfer or date of vesting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If an employee gifts an NQSO to a charity and then passes within __#__ years of exercise, the employee’s gross estate must include the value the options would have had at the date of death.

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who can deduct an NQSO gifted to charity if the employee passes before its exercised?

A

The estate is eligible for the estate tax charitable deduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is an ISO?

A

incentive stock option

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Do ISOs have to be approved by stockholders?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The expiration date of an ISO cannot exceed _____

A

10 years from the date of grant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The exercise price of an ISO cannot be less than:

A

The market price of the stock at the time of grant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The maximum value of stock with respect to which ISOs may first become exercisable in any one year is $XXXXXXX

A

$100,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who can be granted ISOs?

A

Only employees of the company

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Are ISOs transferable?

A

No, only at death by will

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ISOs must be exercised within ______ from the date of retirement or termination

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

If ISO stock is sold within ______ year(s) of grant and _____ year(s) of exercise, the gain is considered what type of income?

A

2, 1, W-2 compensation income. Not subject to payroll tax.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How are ISOs taxed when they are granted?

A

They aren’t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the AMT adjustment for ISOs?

A

FMV - Exercise price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the tax basis of stock from an exercised ISO?

A

The exercise price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the AMT basis?

A

FMV of the stock on the date of exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What tax benefits do ISOs have over NQSOs?

A

ISOs are not included in gross income. If sold properly, only will incur long-term capital gains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is an ISO disqualifying disposition?

A

Selling ISO stock before the holding period expires (1 year from exercise, 2 years from grant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

1/1/2015 FMV is $20. Exercise price is $10.

stock is sold a year later for $15. The employee will recognize how much ordinary income?

A

$5

Proceeds from sale - exercise price

No capital gain or loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a cashless exercise?

A

Employee exercises stock option and the cash required to buy the stock is made up by selling some of the stock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is an ESPP?

A

Employee Stock Purchase Plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Do employees pay income tax on ESPPs?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Are ESPPs subject to nondiscrimination rules?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Do ESPPs need to be approved by shareholders?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ESPP option grant prices must not be less than the lesser of:

___ % of the FMV on grant date

___ % of the FMV on exercise date

A

85% and 85%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

ESPPs must be exercised within _____ of leaving the company.

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Employee’s owning more than ____% of the company cannot participate in ESPPs.

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

_____ are stock options designed for key employees, _____ are stock options intended for rank-and-file employees

A

ISOs

ESPPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

All employees must be included in an ESPP except for (3)

A
  1. Employees with less than 2 years of employement
  2. Highly compensated employees
  3. Part-time/seasonal employees
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

No employee can have the right to buy more than $XXXXXXXX of stock per year with an ESPP plan.

A

$25,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

ESPP recognized ordinary income equals the lesser of…

A

FMV on grant date - Ex Price

and

FMV on disposition date - Ex price

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is phantom stock?

A

Fake stock. Anytime the real stock pays a dividend, the phantom stock owner is credited the amount of the dividend to a special account. At retirement or termination, they receive the balance of the account.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

When are phantom stock dividends taxed to employee and deducted for employer?

A

When the payment is received by the employee at retirement or termination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A method for companies to give their management or employees a bonus if the company performs well financially. This plan resembles employee stock options in that the holder/employee benefits from an increase in stock price.

A

Stock Appreciation Rights (SARs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Employer stock that is forfeited if the executive’s performance is subpar, if the executive terminates employment before a stated period, or if the executive works for a competitor

A

Restricted stock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

When and how is restricted stock taxed?

A

W-2 income in the amount of the FMV of the stock, when it is no longer subject to substantial risk of forfeiture.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is a Section 83(b) election?

A

Employee elects to recognize the income on received restricted stock immediately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the advantage of a Section 83(b) election?

A

The income recognized equals FMV. All subsequent gains are capital gains and can be taxed lower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Section 83(b) election must be made within ____ days of receiving restricted stock.

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Upon the sale of common shares (converted from junior class shares), what is the tax basis?

A

The amount paid for the junior class shares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is an employee taxed when junior shares convert to common shares?

A

Nothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What option must all cafeteria plans offer?

A

Cash in lieu of benefits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

True or False:

Cafeteria plans are easy and inexpensive to administer

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

True or False:

Cafeteria plans help control employer costs by reducing the cost of provisions for benefits that employees do not need

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Key employee non-taxable benefits in a cafeteria plan cannot exceed ___% of the total nontaxable benefits provided under the plan to all employees

A

25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Cafeteria plans can cover what benefits?

AHDGH

A
Accident
Health
Dependent care
Group term life
HSAs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Cafeteria plans can NOT cover what benefits?

LSEFR

A
Long term care
Scholarships
Education
Fringe benefits
Retirement benefits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Employers with __#__ or fewer employees during either of the previous 2 years can adopt a SIMPLE cafeteria plan.

A

100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

A SIMPLE cafeteria plan in existence cannot exceed __#__ employees during the last year.

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Are nonemployees eligible for SIMPLE cafeteria plans?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Eligible employees for a SIMPLE cafeteria plan must have worked __#__ hours during the preceding year.

A

1,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Is an employee under 21 included in a SIMPLE cafeteria plan?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Is an employee with less than one year of service included in a SIMPLE cafeteria plan?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Is an employee who is a nonresident alien included in a SIMPLE cafeteria plan?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Is an employee covered under collective bargaining agreement included in a SIMPLE cafeteria plan?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

SIMPLE Cafeteria plan contribution requirements are one of the two following…

A

2% uniform of every employee’s compensation

OR

The lesser of 6% of the employee’s compensation or 200% of the employee’s salary reduction contributions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Are SIMPLE cafeteria plans subject to nondiscrimination rules?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the 2 types of FSAs?

A

Health FSA, Dependent care FSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the max amount available for reimburesment for a Health FSA plan per year?

A

$2,650

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the max amount available for reimburesment for a Dependent Care FSA plan per year?

A

$5,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

An employee who participates in Health and Dependent Care FSAs can have a total salary reduction of…

A

$7,650

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

How are FSA salary reduction contributions taxed?

A

Payroll, medicare, SS, and income tax free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Meals and lodging provided by the employer are excluded from income as long as that meet what two criteria?

A
  1. Meals are furnished by the employer, on the premises, for the employer’s convenience.
  2. Employee is required to accept lodging as a condition of employment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Are prepaid legal services as a benefit deductible by the employer?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Are prepaid legal services as a benefit included in the gross income of the employee?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Child and dependent care services provided by the employer to enable the employee to work are not included in gross income as long as it doesn’t exceed $XXX for MFJ and $XXX for single filers.

A

$5,000

$2,500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Is on premise gym access included in employee’s gross income?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Are dues paid to a gym/health club by the employer taxable to the employee?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The annual exclusion ceiling for qualified employer-provided educational assistance is…

A

$5,250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What are de minimis fringe benefits?

A

Benefits so small that it would impractical to account for them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is a Voluntary Employees’ Beneficiary Association? (VEBA)

A

Trust or corp set up as a welfare benefit plan. Deposits are made by the employer for specified future employee benefits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Short-term disability usually covers up to _____ years.

A

2

86
Q

Long-term disability covers until a certain age, usually ______.

A

65

87
Q

Which type of disability insurance is the most expensive?

A

Own occupation

88
Q

What is the difference between own occupation disability insurance and modified own occupation?

A

With modified own occupation, you cannot be working and receiving benefits at the same time, even if the job is different

89
Q

What is the difference between any occupation and modified any occupation disability insurance?

A

Modified is any reasonable occupation suited by education, experience, etc.

90
Q

SS definition of disability is it must have lasted for at least ____ months and last for a total of _____ months or result in death.

A

5, 12

91
Q

The type of disability policy rider that pays the difference between former pay and current pay is called…

A

Residual

92
Q

If disability benefits are received from a personally paid disability policy, are the benefits taxable income?

A

No

93
Q

If disability benefits are received from an employer-paid disability policy, are the benefits taxable income?

A

Yes, taxable income in lieu of wages

94
Q

Group disability benefits are includable in income to the extent of…

A

The employer pro rata share of premiums

95
Q

Earl is covered by a group long-term disability plan provided by his employer. The premium is $100 per month. Earl pays $25, his employer pays $75. The monthly benefit is $1,000. Earl is injured and receives disability benefits for 10 months. How much must he include as income?

A

$7,500

96
Q

Disability benefits are paid in arrears (end of the month). True or false?

A

True

97
Q

A client’s emergency fund should cover what time period for their disability insurance to kick in?

A

Elimination period plus 30 days, since the benefits are paid month end (in arrears)

98
Q
A. Noncancelable
B. Guaranteed Renewable
C. Conditionally Renewable
D. Single-Term
E. Cancelable 

Which type of policy guarantees the insured the right to renew until a specific age with no increase in premium?

A

A. Noncancelable

99
Q
A. Noncancelable
B. Guaranteed Renewable
C. Conditionally Renewable
D. Single-Term
E. Cancelable 

Which type of policy guarantees the right to renew, but the insurance company is allowed to adjust the premiums by policyholder class?

A

B. Guaranteed Renewable

100
Q
A. Noncancelable
B. Guaranteed Renewable
C. Conditionally Renewable
D. Single-Term
E. Cancelable 

Which type of policy can the insurance company terminate if certain conditions are met?

A

C. Conditionally Renewable

101
Q
A. Noncancelable
B. Guaranteed Renewable
C. Conditionally Renewable
D. Single-Term
E. Cancelable 

Which type of policy does not contain a renewability provision?

A

D. Single-Term

102
Q
A. Noncancelable
B. Guaranteed Renewable
C. Conditionally Renewable
D. Single-Term
E. Cancelable 

Which type of policy can be terminated at the insurance company’s discretion?

A

E. Cancelable

103
Q

The insured must notify the insurance company of a claim within _____ days after the occurrence.

A

20

104
Q

The insured must furnish written proof of loss within ___ days from date of loss.

A

90

105
Q

The time limit on certain defenses provision says what?

A

An insurance policy is incontestable after two years except for fraud

106
Q

Do all policies have a grace period?

A

Yes

107
Q

When are benefits payable by the insurance company?

A

Immediately upon proof of loss

108
Q

What are the two types of hospitalization insurance?

A

Expense reimbursement - a cash amount reimbursed for costs

Service contract - # of days of hospital services covered

109
Q

What is the difference between stop-loss limit on health insurance and max out of pocket?

A

Max out of pocket includes deductible.

Stop-loss is a max dollar amount that the coinsurance applies to after the deductible

110
Q

What is a health insurance policy breakpoint?

A

The stop loss plus the deductible. The insurer pays 100% after these are met.

111
Q

What is the difference between an HMO and a PPO?

A

HMO is in network only. PPO can go outside the network.

112
Q

What percentage of health insurance costs can self-employed people deduct from their gross income?

A

100%

113
Q

Employer paid health insurance premiums are taxable to the employee. T or F

A

False

114
Q

Employer paid health insurance premiums are deductible for the employer. T or F

A

True

115
Q

COBRA extends coverage for ____ months for employees and dependents for a reduction in hours.

A

18

116
Q

COBRA extends coverage for ____ months for employees and dependents for normal termination from work.

A

18

117
Q

COBRA extends coverage for ____ months if employee meets the Social Security definition of being disabled.

A

29

118
Q

COBRA extends coverage for ____ months for divorce.

A

36

119
Q

COBRA extends coverage for ____ months for death.

A

36

120
Q

COBRA extends coverage for ____ months for Medicare.

A

36

121
Q

COBRA has to be elected within _____ days of a qualifying event.

A

60

122
Q

COBRA applies for what 6 events?

D
T
S
D
C
M
A
Death
Termination (disability, lay off, voluntary included. Gross misconduct firing NOT included)
Status - to part time
Divorce
Child exceeds age of coverage
Medicare
123
Q

Can insurers rescind coverage if the insured gets sick?

A

No. Affordable Care Act 2010

124
Q

Can new Archer MSA accounts be opened?

A

No

125
Q

Can Archer MSA accounts be maintained?

A

Yes

126
Q

Can Archer MSAs be rolled into HSAs?

A

Yes

127
Q

Can employers and employees both contribute to an MSA?

A

No, one or the other in a given year

128
Q

Nonmedical expense distributions before the age of 65 in an MSA or HSA account causes how much of an excise penalty tax?

A

20%

129
Q

Are HSA contributions tax deductible for individuals?

A

yes, if they are in a high deductible plan

130
Q

20% penalty on nonmedical withdrawals from an HSA do not apply for what 3 conditions?

A
  1. Over the age of 65
  2. Disabled
  3. Death
131
Q

HSA catch up contributions are allowed between what two ages?

A

55 and 65

132
Q

HSA contributions cannot be made after age…

A

65

133
Q

What is the last month rule for HSAs?

A

If you are HSA eligible on Dec 1 of a given year, you can contribute the max for the entire year

134
Q

_____% excise tax applies to HSA contributions over the limit.

A

6%

135
Q

Are employer HSA contributions taxable income to the employee?

A

No, as long as they are a qualified individual

136
Q

HSA: What makes someone a qualified individual (3 things)

A
  1. Subject to high deductible plan
  2. Not eligible for Medicare
  3. Not claimed as a dependent
137
Q

Are HSAs subject to RMDs?

A

No

138
Q

Can IRAs be rolled into HSAs?

A

One-time. Only for the max annual contribution amount. Not deductible

139
Q

Can SEP or SMIPLE IRAs be rolled into HSAs?

A

No

140
Q

Who can contribute to HRAs?

A

Only employer

141
Q

The look back period for assets transferred for medicaid is ____ months.

A

60

142
Q

Chronically ill is defined as being unable to perform how many of the 6 activities of daily living (ADLs) for at least 90 days?

A

2

143
Q

What are the 6 ADLs?

A
  1. Eating
  2. Bathing
  3. Dressing
  4. Transferring from bed to chair
  5. Using the toilet
  6. Continence
144
Q

Chronically ill is defined as being unable to perform 2 of the 6 activities of daily living (ADLs) for at least ___ days?

A

90

145
Q

Can long-term care policies have exclusions?

A

No, except for pre-existing conditions

146
Q

What must a long-term care representative provide when communicating a recommendation?

A

Outline of coverage and a shopper’s guide

147
Q

Is there a ceiling on Medicare tax?

A

No

148
Q

How much is Medicare tax?

A

2.9%, half paid by employer, half by employee

149
Q

How much is the additional Medicare tax and who pays it?

A

0.9%, only paid by employee.

150
Q

If someone is working and covered under an employer health insurance plan, can they receive Medicare benefits?

A

They can be covered, but Medicare would be secondary and they would have to exhaust the employer benefits first.

151
Q

People age ____ and up are covered by Medicare Part A

A

65

152
Q

People under 65 can be covered by Medicare Part A under what two conditions?

A
  1. They have end-stage renal disease

2. They have been receiving SS disability benefits for 24 months

153
Q

Who is exempt from Part A premiums?

A

Any one or their spouse who has 40+ quarters of Medicare covered employment

154
Q

How much is the Part A monthly premium for people with 0-30 and 30-39 quarters of Medicare covered employment?

A

$422, $232

155
Q

Part B premium is ____ for 2018

A

$134

156
Q

What does Part A cover?

A
  1. Hospital
  2. Skilled nursing
  3. Hospice
  4. Home health care
157
Q

What does Part B cover?

A

Physician fees and outpatient services

158
Q

Part A covers up to _____ days of hospital services per benefit period

A

90

159
Q

A Part A benefit period resets when a patient has been out of the hospital for ____ days

A

60

160
Q

What is the lifetime reserve of additional hospital days covered by Part A once the 90 have been exhausted?

A

60

161
Q

What is the hospital deductible for Part A?

A

$1,340

162
Q

How many hospital days are covered in FULL for Part A?

A

60

163
Q

What is the coinsurance for Part A hospital days after 60 days?

A

$335

164
Q

Medicare Part A will pay for _____ days of skilled nursing care.

A

20

165
Q

Coinsurance for skilled nursing (Med Part A) lasts how many days?

A

21 - 100

166
Q

What is the coinsurance amount for Part A skilled nursing coverage?

A

$167.50/day

167
Q

Is Medicare Part A a sufficient substitute for long-term care insurance?

A

NO

168
Q

Part A home health benefits for equipment has what coinsurance split?

A

80/20

169
Q

Part A home health covers how many days?

A

100, must be ordered by a physician

170
Q

What is the day limit on Part A hospice care?

A

210

171
Q

How much is the Part B deductible?

A

$183

172
Q

What is the Part B coinsurance after the deductible?

A

80/20

173
Q

What is a package policy?

A

Combines two or more separate coverages into one policy

174
Q

What 3 things are combined in a homeowners policy?

A

Fire, theft, personal liability

175
Q

What are the 3 homeowners eligibility requirements?

A
  1. Must be an owner-occupied dwelling
  2. No more than 2 families occupying dwelling
  3. Each family may have a max of 2 boarders/roomers
176
Q

What are the 2 main levels of homeowners insurance?

A

Named perils coverage and Open perils coverage

177
Q

Which has higher premiums, Open perils coverage or Named perils coverage?

A

Open

178
Q

Which HO policies are open perils?

A

HO-3 and HO-5

179
Q

How many employees does a company have to have to qualify for COBRA?

A

20 or more

180
Q

What are the two ways to value a property loss?

A

Actual Cash Value and Replacement Cost

181
Q

Calculate ACV

A

ACV = Replacement Cost - Depreciation

182
Q

Does RC payment occur before or after repairs?

A

After, insurer will not pay more than ACV before the replacement or repair of damaged property

183
Q

How many perils does HO-2 cover?

A

18

184
Q

What is covered under HO-2?

A

Dwelling, structures, and personal property

185
Q

Is HO-2 broad form or special form?

A

Broad

186
Q

What is the difference between HO-2 and 3?

A

HO-3 is open perils, HO-2 is named

187
Q

Difference between open and named perils?

A

Open covers all but those excluded. Named only covers those specified.

188
Q

Does HO-3 cover open perils on personal property?

A

No, named

189
Q

What does HO-4 cover?

A

Residential and tenant - just like HO-2

190
Q

What does HO-5 cover?

A

Same as HO-3 but with open perils on personal property

191
Q

What does HO-6 cover?

A

Unit owners, condominium. Just like HO-2

192
Q

What does HO-8 cover?

A

Dwellings with a FMV below their replacement value (old homes)

193
Q
HO-2
HO-3
HO-4
HO-5
HO-6
HO-8
A

2 Named perils
3 Open perils, not for personal property
4 Residential and tenant named
5 Open perils for all including personal property
6 Named perils, condominiums
8 Houses with a FMV below their Replacement Value (old homes)

194
Q

What does Section I of a HO policy cover?

A

Property and the loss of use of property

195
Q

What does Section II of a HO policy cover?

A

Liability and medical expenses

196
Q

Does a homeowner’s deductible apply to loss of credit cards, counterfeit money, check forgery, or debit cards?

A

no

197
Q

Does a homeowner’s deductible apply to liability loss or medical payments?

A

no

198
Q

What are the 5 sections of Section I

A
A - Dwelling
B - Other structures
C - Personal Property
D - Loss of use
Additional Coverage - debris removal, tree damage, credit card loss
199
Q

How much homeowner’s insurance should a financial planner recommend in the event of a total loss?

A

100% of the replacement cost value of the home

200
Q

Should the value of land be included in the homeowner’s insurance calculation?

A

No

201
Q

What is the minimum homeowners coverage for a partial loss?

A

80%

202
Q

What is the max Coverage C for cash/notes/bullion/etc?

A

$200

203
Q

What are the two forms of Section II Coverage?

A

E - Personal Liability

F - Medical Payments to Others

204
Q

What does Coverage E entail?

A

Protects against claims from bodily injury and property damage that may occur on or off the premises because of negligence

205
Q

Does Coverage E cover personal injury?

A

No

206
Q

COBRA premium is due within _____ days of electing to receive coverage.

A

45

207
Q

How much does medicare part B cover after deductible?

A

80%

208
Q

Is worker’s comp taxed?

A

No

209
Q

If Debbie ends up qualifying for Social Security disability benefits, she will become eligible for Medicare benefits after receiving these benefits for at least _______ months.

A

24

210
Q

Which insurance rating agency uses public information AND interviews with management?

A

AM Best