BC#5 - Week of 10718Comm Man #7&8, FFP Lofts, , AUC# 205,230,231,240,253&254, Dunn –Chap. 8, PAIDs 6-70, 6-72, 1-77, 1-08 & 208, BISP – Res Guide – Ref. 2.1, 2.1A, 2.2 BC Barvels Flashcards

1
Q

1) As a Battalion Chief, it is important to be aware of the resources you may require at various incidents. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information? (Comm 7.1)A) An Incident Commander considering calling an additional Engine and Truck after a 7-5 signal must be aware of, and take into account, “Reflex Time”. This refers to the elapsed time from the recognition of the need for additional units to the time the requested units arrive on the scene and are in position to operate.B) Special calls for an additional Engine and Ladder after a Signal 7-5 are acceptable when the Incident Commander determines that additional units will be needed for fire duty and/or relief purposes.C) In all cases, once one additional Engine has been special called above a Signal 7-5, any additional Engine Companies must be obtained through the transmission of a higher alarm.D) Additional Ladder Companies may be special called for any situation status without the transmission of a higher alarm.

A
  1. C

Once one additional Engine has been special called above a Signal 7-5, and the status of the fire remains Doubtful, any additional Engine companies must be obtained through the transmission of a higher alarm. Once the fire is placed Probably Will Hold or Under Control, additional engine companies may be special called for relief purposes only without the transmission of a higher alarm.

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2
Q

2) As the Incident Commander of numerous FDNY operations, one of your responsibilities includes knowing the status of units under your command. Of the following, which choice contains incorrect information? (Comm 7.1)A) When dispatched to an incident with only two Engine Companies and two Ladder Companies, if you transmit a second alarm on arrival, the dispatcher shall provide the missing first alarm Engine and Ladder companies in addition to the companies required for the second alarm.B) When using “All Hands” at an operation and you immediately request an additional Engine and Ladder, if you later order a second alarm you will receive the entire second alarm assignment in addition to your full first alarm assignment and the additional Engine and Ladder already special called.C) When you report a fire “Under Control”, following your preliminary report at an “All Hands” fire, the dispatcher will inquire whether the additional units are required. If not, those units still en-route will be directed by the dispatcher to return to quarters, other duties, or to another response.D) As the Incident Commander of a Signal 7-5 “Doubtful” structural fire, you shall not release any units until the fire has been placed “Probably Will Hold” or “Under Control.”

A
  1. B If the Incident Commander has special called units above the normal assignment, and subsequently orders the next higher alarm, only the balance of the greater alarm assignment will be assigned.EXAMPLE: The IC reports using “All Hands” and requests an additional Engine and Ladder. If the IC later orders a second alarm, only the balance of the second alarm assignment will be assigned.
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3
Q

3) A Battalion Chief is expected to fulfill many roles at FDNY operations, depending on the incident type and when he/she is assigned. Of the following, which role is explained incorrectly? (Comm 7 p 6, 22)A) The Air Support Plan provides for the capability of placing a Battalion Chief (Air Recon Chief) in position above an operation for observation of conditions not readily observable from the ground. The Air Support Plan will be activated automatically upon transmission of a doubtful second alarm for a fire associated with a 10-76 or 10-77, upon transmission of a 10-60 code 1, and all doubtful third alarms.B) The Resources Unit Leader is responsible for maintaining status information of all resources allocated to the incident and is assigned on the transmission of a 10-60 and all second alarm and greater incidents.C) The Safety Battalion is assigned on all 2nd alarms, except for brush fires, and shall not be used for firefighting purposes.D) A Battalion Chief shall be special called by the dispatcher to perform the duties of “Safety Officer” at all second and greater alarms. This officer’s vital function is to assist the Incident Commander in minimizing the threat of death or injury to members and shall not be used for firefighting purposes prior to the arrival of the Safety Battalion unless the Incident Commander deems it necessary.

A
  1. D Safety Battalion Responses and duties:o All 2nd alarms (except for brush fires; response required on 3rd alarm) to assist the Incident Commander with all safety aspects of an operation. The Safety Chiefshall not be used for firefighting purposes.
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4
Q

4) The Department has many special resources that an Incident Commander may find to be beneficial at an operation. Of the following, which resources description is listed incorrectly? (Comm 7 p 9, 10)A) The Department’s Collapse PODS (Portable-On Demand Storage) Containers which contain shoring equipment may be used at large scale emergencies. Responses for these units will be by order of a Battalion Chief or higher rank only.B) Collapse Rescue Units are a 2nd piece of apparatus assigned to all Rescue Companies. These units respond with their associated Rescue Company as part of a Rescue Task Force. An Incident Commander may special call these units to an operation where a shoring operation may be needed.C) A Communications Unit will be assigned to respond to all 3rd Alarms, 10-60, 10-66, 10-75 for below grade incidents in facilities other than buildings, 10-76, 10-77 2nd Alarms, and when in the opinion of the Incident Commander they would be required. The IC should ensure from the Dispatcher the response of a Communications Unit to work in conjunction with the Field Communications Unit, if possible, when an auxiliary communications system (ARCS) is utilized.D) The Firefighter Assist and Search Team (FAST Unit) shall be assigned on transmission of Signals 10-60, 10-66, 10-75, 10-76 and 10-77. Once assigned and designated, the FAST Unit shall remain designated as such, unless otherwise directed by the Incident Commander.

A
  1. AResponses for these units will be by order of a Command Chief only.
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5
Q

5) With many units at an Incident Commander’s disposal, a knowledgeable Chief should know all of the following statements to be correct with the exception of? (Comm 7 p 13, 21, 23, 7.8)A) When assigned on the initial alarm for manhole fires, FireIce units shall respond with their associated apparatus which carries the product and equipment. These units may also be special called by the IC.B) Unless otherwise ordered, the responding Recuperation and Care (RAC) Unit shall not be directed to return to quarters on receipt of “Probably Will Hold” or “Under Control” from the Incident Commander.C) Unless otherwise ordered, responding Satellite Water System Units shall not be directed to return to quarters on receipt of “Probably Will Hold,” or “Under Control” from the Incident Commander.D) Since the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC) automatically requests the response of a NYC Department of Buildings representative when Fire Department operations involve a building collapse, the Incident Commander should notify the dispatcher when the assistance of that agency is NOT required.

A
  1. CUnless otherwise ordered, responding Satellite Water System Units shall be directed to return to quarters on receipt of “Probably Will Hold,” or “Under Control” from the Incident Commander.
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6
Q

6) Appropriate transmissions and incident reporting are an important responsibility of the Incident Commander. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information? (Comm 8.2.5, 8.2.6)A) The name or unit number of a member with a minor injury may be transmitted over the Department radio after requesting “Mixer off.”B) Initial notification of a fatality or serious injury to an on-duty member shall be made to the dispatcher via a “Mixer off” message and shall not include the name or unit number of the fatally or seriously injured member.C) The initial transmission to the dispatcher of a fatality or serious injury to an on-duty member over the Department Radio shall be followed immediately by a telephone notification with full particulars. As soon as possible thereafter, particulars shall also be telephoned to the Fire Department Operation Center (FDOC.)D) For an alarm system activation resulting from a utility power fluctuation, a 10-35 Code 4 shall be transmitted and a NYFIRS report must be completed setting forth the cause of the unnecessary alarm and the relevant particulars.

A
  1. D10-35 Unwarranted or Unnecessary Alarm System ActivationAny alarm system activation that is unwarranted or unnecessary, excluding a sprinkler system alarm (use 10-34 Code 1, 2 or 3) or an alarm system activationresulting from a utility power fluctuation (use 10-40 Code 2).
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7
Q

7) An experienced Battalion Chief should be familiar with established safety requirements when supervising communications. Of the following choices, which one contains incorrect information? (Comm 8.4.5, 8.4.6)A) Handie-Talkies, cell phones and Marine radios used 175 feet from vehicles transporting explosives, explosive magazines, or areas where blasting operations are in progress is acceptable.B) Apparatus and Post radios used 350 feet from vehicles transporting explosives, explosive magazines, or areas where blasting operations are in progress is acceptable.C) Handie-Talkies used in a building in which police personnel are searching for an explosive device is unacceptable.D) Apparatus radios are protected from the occurrence of a “stuck button”. If the transmitting button on the apparatus radio is depressed for longer than one minute, an audible signal will alert the user that the transmission has been automatically interrupted.

A
  1. A8.4.5 Handie-Talkies and cell phones shall not be used within 150 feet of vehicles transporting explosives, explosive magazines, or areas where blasting operationsare in progress. Apparatus, Post and Marine radios shall not be operated within 300 feet of such areas. Officers of all units shall familiarize themselves with locations where explosives are being transported, stored, or used within their administrative district and response areas.Units responding to emergencies for reported explosive devices shall follow the distance guidelines stated above. In addition, Handie-Talkies shall not be operatedin a building in which police personnel are searching for an explosive device.
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8
Q

8) When encountering an unwarranted or unnecessary alarm system activation, it is important for the Incident Commander to transmit the appropriate code. Of the following, which would be considered correct? (Comm 8 p 10)A) 10-35 Code 1 - low battery condition.B) 10-35 Code 2 - unnecessary activation caused by alarm system testing or servicing.C) 10-35 Code 4 - unnecessary alarm caused by construction activities.D) 10-35 Code 3 - unnecessary alarm caused by ordinary household activities (i.e. toast, steam, aerosol spray).

A
  1. DCodes 1-4 - Unnecessary alarm.Alarm device, equipment or system operating properly but unnecessarily activated by lack of due care. DO NOT use this code when there is a fire or othercondition warranting an emergency response.Code 1: Unnecessary alarm caused by alarm system testing or servicing.Code 2: Unnecessary alarm caused by construction activities.Code 3: Unnecessary alarm caused by ordinary household activities(toast, steam, aerosol spray).Code 4: Unnecessary alarm caused by other known cause.(e.g., alarms resulting from cigarette smoking in unauthorized areas). When this code is used, a NYFIRS report must be completed setting forth the cause of the unnecessary alarm and the relevant particulars.
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9
Q

9) Battalion Chiefs should know when a Fire Marshal investigation is required. Of the following choices, which code transmission is incorrect? (Comm 8 p 12)A) Transmit a 10-41 Code 1 when a Fire Marshal investigation is required for a structure (commercial, residential, public), or vehicle (car, bus or train) which is occupied at the time of the fire.B) Transmit a 10-41 Code 2 when a Fire Marshal investigation is required for a structure (commercial, residential, public), normally occupied which is unoccupied at the time of the fire.C) Transmit a 10-41 Code 4 when a Fire Marshal investigation is required for fire in a vacant apartment in an occupied building.D) Transmit a 10-41 Code 3 for a vehicle, (car, bus or train) with or without plates, which is unoccupied at the time of the fire.

A
  1. CCode 4: Vacant Structure, or Structures not intended for Dwelling Purposes.Examples include, but are not limited to the following:Vacant buildings, buildings under construction/demolition, detached garages, sheds or similar structures.Note: If any of the above are occupied at the time of the fire, transmit Code 1.
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10
Q

10) Occasionally, an Incident Commander may need to transmit a 10-41 Code 4. In which choice below would this transmission be incorrect? (Comm 8 p 12)A) Fire in a completely vacant building.B) Fire in an unoccupied building under construction/demolition.C) Fire in a shed where one person who was fixing his lawnmower was found unconscious.D) Fire in an unoccupied, detached garage.

A
  1. CCode 4: Vacant Structure, or Structures not intended for Dwelling Purposes.Examples include, but are not limited to the following:Vacant buildings, buildings under construction/demolition, detached garages, sheds or similar structures.Note: If any of the above are occupied at the time of the fire, transmit Code 1.
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11
Q

11) All Battalion Chiefs should be familiar with the proper procedures of appropriately transmitting signal 10-45. Each of the following choices contains correct information except? (Comm 8 p 13)A) Signal 10-45 shall be transmitted upon the discovery of a fatality inside of a completely burned vehicle during a vehicle fire operation.B) When receiving notification of a 10-45 at a fire operation, the Incident Commander shall have the 10-45 signal transmitted over the Department radio as soon as possible.C) Signal 10-45 shall be transmitted upon the discovery of a person who received chemical burns on a CFRD response.D) At a fire operation, the IC shall confirm that the number of patients and/or fatalities match the number of 10-45s transmitted. Once the status and number of fatalities and patients has been confirmed, the IC shall transmit the appropriate codes for each 10-45 transmitted, given to him/her by the Medical Group Supervisor or Branch Director.

A
  1. CAt the scene of fire operations, including vehicle fires, the signal 10-45 shall be transmitted upon the discovery of any fatality or injured civilians as a result of the fire operation. The Incident Commander shall then have this information transmitted over the Department radio as soon as possible.
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12
Q

12) The Bureau of EMS color tags their patients for treatment. After consultation with the Medical Group Supervisor at an “All Hands” fire where four victims were recovered, she tells you EMS designated a total of one red tag, one orange tag and two yellow tags. You would be correct to make which transmission? (Comm 8 p 13)A) “We have one 10-45 Code 1 and three 10-45 Code 3s.”B) “We have one 10-45 Code 2 and three 10-45 Code 3s.”C) “We have two 10-45 Code 2s and two 10-45 Code 3s.”D) “We have one 10-45 Code 1 and three 10-45 Code 2s.”

A
  1. BPatient Condition Color Tag Code TransmissionDeceased Black Code 1Life Threatening Injury Red/ Code 2Non-Life Threatening Injury Orange/Yellow Code 3Non-Serious Injury/Ambulatory Green Code 4
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13
Q

13) The Incident Commander has a number of decisions to make immediately upon arrival at an incident. One of these decisions is the number and type of units required. Of the following, which choice contains incorrect information? (Comm 8 p 14, 15, 18, 22)A) Transmit a 10-60 for a collapse of a private dwelling.B) Transmit a 10-60 for a derailment of a subway car.C) A Victim Removal Group is defined as 3 Engines, 2 Ladders and 1 Battalion Chief whose primary duty is the removal of victims via skeds, stokes, etc. The IC may choose to utilize these companies as individual resources.D) A 10-75 transmitted for incidents below grade in buildings and subways shall require the response of a Communications Unit.

A
  1. DNote: 10-75 transmitted for incidents below grade in facilities other than buildings (e.g. subway, tunnels, terminals, etc.) shall require the response of a Communications Unit.
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14
Q

14) Two recently promoted Battalion Chiefs were discussing the 10-66 signal. One made an incorrect comment found in which choice? (Comm 8 p 17)A) Transmission of signal 10-66 will automatically cause the response of the next higher full alarm assignment, and response of all of its associated resources.B) Two Battalion Chiefs will be assigned on the 10-66 in addition to those assigned as part of the extra alarm; the first Battalion Chief shall be designated as the FAST Group Supervisor and the second Battalion Chief shall be designated as the Firefighter Locator OfficerC) Acting Battalion Chiefs shall not be assigned to respond as a FAST Group Supervisor but may fill the role of FF Locator Officer.D) A “Rescue Task Force” includes 1 Rescue Company, 1 Collapse Rescue, 1 Squad Company with the 2nd Piece, 1 Haz Tac Officer, 1 Rescue Paramedic Unit and 1 SOC Support Ladder. When a Collapse Rescue is transported by a SSL, no additional SSL is required.

A
  1. CNote: These positions may already be filled by on-scene Chief Officers, in which case the IC may re-designate these additional BCs. Acting Battalion Chiefs shallnot be assigned to respond as a FAST Group Supervisor or FF Locator Officer.
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15
Q

1) Two Battalion Chiefs were having a friendly conversation about loft buildings found in NYC. The only correct statement made during this conversation can be found in which choice? (FFP Lofts 1.1, 2.2, 2.3)A) Lofts can be Class 1, 2, 4 or 6 constructions.B) Cast-Iron lofts are considered the least common type.C) Fireproof lofts are considered the newest and most common type.D) Fireproof lofts are typically located adjacent to waterways and rail lines.

A
  1. CLofts can be Class 1, 2, 3 or 6 constructions.2.2 Mill (Heavy Timber) constructed lofts are the least common type. Age and lack of maintenance have resulted in many of these buildings being demolished. Originally built for manufacturing and warehousing, they are typically located adjacent to waterways and rail lines. Some areas where they can be found include Chelsea, Downtown Brooklyn, Maspeth, and Hunts Point.2.3 During the 1880s, steel became more accessible. The use of steel columns, girders, and beams in conjunction with reinforced concrete introduced true fireproof construction into loft buildings. Fireproof lofts are the newest and most common type. Many of thesebuildings are well maintained and have not been altered. Fireproof lofts are found in many areas of the NYC including Bush Terminal, DUMBO (Down Under the Manhattan Bridge Overpass) Long Island City, South Bronx, and Midtown West (Hell’s Kitchen).
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16
Q

2) Which choice below contains all correct statements regarding Older Cast-Iron Lofts, built from the 1840s to the 1870s? (FFP Lofts 4.1.1, 4.1.2, 4.1.4)1. They are a maximum of 7 to 8 stories in height, having front and rear exterior walls of brick, stone or iron and side exterior walls of brick construction.2. Frontage is usually 25 feet (indicating the presence of interior columns) with depths reaching 200 feet and frontage on only one street.3. Larger dimensional buildings can be irregularly (L-shaped) constructed with frontage on two adjacent streets or 200 feet deep, with frontage on 2 parallel streets.4. Buildings with larger frontages (up to 50 feet) have wider windows and entranceways with cast-iron columns and arches to support heavy timber or iron girders.5. Many of these structures have first floor extensions protruding up to 10 feet beyond the upper floors of the building in the rear.6. These structures have two enclosed wooden stairs, often in a scissor configuration. Doors leading to these stairways can also be made of wood.7. Interior stairs leading to the cellar may be remote from the main interior stairway and of open, wooden construction.8. Fire escapes can be found on the front, rear, as well as the sides (corner buildings).A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5B) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8C) 1, 2, 5, 8D) 1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8

A
  1. D4.1.1 Maximum 7 to 8 stories in height having front and rear exterior walls of brick, stone or iron (Photo 1). Side exterior walls are of brick construction. Frontage is usually 25 feet (indicating no interior columns) with depths reaching 90 feet and frontage on only one street. Many of these structures have first floor extensions protruding up to 10 feet beyond the upper floors of the building in the rear.4.1.2 Larger dimensional buildings can be irregularly (L-shaped) constructed (Photo 2) with frontage on two adjacent streets or 200 feet deep, with frontage on 2 parallel streets. Buildings with larger frontages (up to 50 feet) have wider windows and entrance ways with cast-iron columns and arches to support heavy timber or iron girders. These girders may be supported by the rear wall and on flanges at the back of the cast-iron front wall. Ornamental cast-iron plating may also be found bolted into front facade masonry.4.1.4 The roof is built flat using wood rafters. Some top floors have dropped-ceilings below the roof creating cockloft areas. These structures have one unenclosed wooden stair, often winding around the elevator shaft or one straight run stair. Doors leading to the stairway can also be made of wood. Interior stairs leading to the cellar may be remote from the main interior stairway and of open, wooden construction. Fire escapes can be found on the front, rear, as well as the sides (corner buildings).
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17
Q

3) All of the following choices contain correct information regarding Newer Cast-Iron Lofts, built from the 1880s to 1901, except? (FFP Lofts 4.2.1, 4.2.2, 4.2.3)A) These type lofts have exterior walls made from brick, stone, framed wrought iron/cast-iron or steel. They may be built higher (8-12 stories) and wider than Older Cast-iron lofts with common dimensions being 50 feet wide by 90 feet deep.B) There are also larger irregularly (P-shaped) constructed buildings as well as buildings with conventional dimensions having up to 100 feet frontages and 200 feet depths.C) All exterior walls have a minimum 3 hour fire resistive rating. Various types of fire escapes can be located on all exterior sides of the building.D) Generally, there is only one interior stairway located inside enclosed walls having a 3 hour fire resistive rating.

A
  1. C4.2.2 Interior structural elements consist of protected cast-iron columns and wrought iron girders and beams supporting masonry or wooden floors. Generally, there are two interior stairways located inside enclosed walls having a 2 hour fire resistive rating.
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18
Q

5) Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding Fireproof Lofts? (FFP Lofts 4.4.1, 4.4.3)A) These buildings range from 10-15 stories in height.B) Rectangular dimensions are usually between 50 to 100 feet or more in width and from 75 to 200 feet deep. Some, however, can span an entire block.C) Interior stairs are open, except in fire towers which are provided in all Fireproof Lofts.D) They may have exterior screened stairways leading either to the front or rear of the building.

A
  1. C5) Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding Fireproof Lofts? (FFP Lofts 4.4.1, 4.4.3)A) These buildings range from 10-15 stories in height.B) Rectangular dimensions are usually between 50 to 100 feet or more in width and from 75 to 200 feet deep. Some, however, can span an entire block.C) Interior stairs are open, except in fire towers which are provided in all Fireproof Lofts.D) They may have exterior screened stairways leading either to the front or rear of the building.
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19
Q

6) Older Cast-Iron Lofts may have sidewalk vaults, an unusual feature members may not be familiar with. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these sidewalk vaults? (FFP Lofts 5.1.1)A) They are three-wall enclosures located under the front sidewalk. The vault can extend downward to all sub-levels of the building and may extend the full width of the sidewalk.B) An indicator of a “full” vault is the absence of granite stone covering the sidewalk to the curb line.C) The ceiling of the vault was originally constructed of a wrought-iron or cast-iron frame with small segmented fixed glass orbs (deadlights) to allow natural light to enter. The frame can span the entire width of the building and extend from the building wall to the street.D) Today, the glass (deadlights) may have been totally or partially replaced with diamond plate, cubed-glass, granite, stone, or concrete.

A
  1. BAn indicator of a “full” vault is a large piece ofgranite stone covering the sidewalk to the curb line.
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20
Q

7) All of the following choices contain correct information regarding elevators found in Older Cast-Iron Lofts except? (FFP Lofts 5.1.2)A) Passenger and freight elevators are normally located within the area of the front wall. They may be found on either side or in the middle of the building.B) If a loading dock is present, freight elevators may be found 20 feet inward from the front of the building. In residential conversions, freight elevators may have been removed to accommodate additional living space on each floor for the tenants.C) Frequently, freight elevator shafts were built using terra cotta tile which can be readily breached if needed.D) Freight elevators will often be installed with Firemen Service capabilities and may be initially used during fire operations when passenger elevators are not present.

A
  1. DFreight elevators will not be installed with Firemen Service capabilities. They are not initially used during fire operations due to their proximity to rubbish removal areas which are commonly fire origin locations. After evaluation and approval for use by the Incident Commander (IC), these elevators will allow for greater movement of members, tools and equipment due to their large size.
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21
Q

8) While attending drill at the quarters of a local fire unit, you observe two members discussing problems presented by elevator shafts in Older Cast-Iron Lofts. Which comment made was correct? (FFP Lofts 5.1.2)A) When elevator shafts face the street, any window serving the shaft is required to display a “SHAFTWAY” sign across the inner portion of the window that is clearly visible from the street.B) Avoid placing aerial or portable ladders to shaft windows or operating streams into them unless visible fire is extending up the shaft.C) Shaft windows may have boards across their upper portion, placed to serve as a warning of an open shaft. These windows are easily differentiated from the other windows in the front facade.D) In loft buildings, elevator doors will always slide into the Shaftway and are easily distinguished from apartment doors.

A
  1. BWhen elevator shafts face the street, any window serving the shaft is required to display a “SHAFTWAY” sign across the outer portion of the window that is clearly visible from the street (Photo 10).Shaft windows may have boards across their lowerportion, placed to serve as a warning of an open shaft. These windows will look identical to the other windows in the front façade.In many loft buildings, elevators doors can look like apartment entrance doors. Often, elevator doors do not slide into the shaftway but swing out onto the loft floor as two separate doors or as a single-hinged door.
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22
Q

9) FF Smith made a number of statements regarding features of Older Cast-Iron Lofts but was incorrect in one. Indicate the incorrect statement. (FFP Lofts 5.1.3, 5.1.5, 5.1.8, 5.1.9)A) A good place to locate an enclosed air / light shaft is inside the first floor bathroom.B) Some sub-level openings provide direct access to the lone below grade level of the building which can be more than 20 feet below the sidewalk.C) Gravity tank structural supports rust and rot away particularly at the point where I-beams penetrate walls.D) Iron Window Shutters were generally installed on the front and side walls of lofts.

A
  1. DIron Window Shutters - generally installed on the rear and side walls of lofts. They were mandated by law on loft buildings with plain glass windows situated less than 30 feet horizontally from another building or less than 50 feet vertically from the roof of an adjoining building. Originally, 6 inch round openings were cut into every third vertical row of iron shutters as well as shutters protecting windows on fire escapes, to assist firefighters in accessing the steel hook and catch to facilitate entry into the building. Today, these 6 inch openings are commonly covered over with steel plating (Photo 13). Iron windows shutters may have been completely removed during residential conversions or welded/bolted closed for security reasons in other type occupancies.
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23
Q

10) BC Green was questioning his officers about cast iron columns found in Older Cast-Iron Lofts. One officer made an incorrect comment which can be found in which choice? (FFP Lofts 5.1.10 C - F)A) Cast-iron columns are not designed to withstand an eccentric load.B) Even when properly cast, these structural members cannot withstand a great deal of thermal stress; cast-iron columns exposed to fire will shatter when cooled by a hoseline.C) When subjected to the heat from a fire for long periods of time, cast-iron columns can fracture and fail.D) At 1,100 degrees Fahrenheit, cast-iron loses 58% of its original strength. The strength lost is cumulative and is never regained.

A
  1. BE. When properly cast, these structural members will withstand a great deal of thermal stress. The statement that all cast-iron columns exposed to fire will shatter when cooled by a hoseline is a myth. However, if an improperly cast column is cooled by a hoseline it can contract disproportionately leading to potential failure.
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24
Q

11) DC Jones was lecturing an audience on some of the challenging features of Older Cast-Iron Lofts. Unfortunately, DC Jones was incorrect in which statement? (FFP Lofts 5.1.12, 5.1.13, 5.1.23)A) Loft buildings 100 feet in depth will have limited rear access and maneuverability for firefighting. Rear courtyards, some with fire escape access 3 stories below grade, add to the operational complexity.B) Lightweight sheds built to enclose depressed courtyards and provide natural light below grade were constructed using wire-glass on the roof. These glass roofs may be tarred or planked over for security reasons, creating what appears to be and mistaken for a weight-bearing roof. These shed roofs shall never be vented or removed.C) In some cases, straight run stairs do not go all the way to the rear wall. They terminate at an upper level floor where a more common return-type stair begins. This is the result of add-on floor construction.D) Quoins were used by architects to give the impression of strength and firmness to the outline of the building. They provide firefighters with a visual contrasting feature to neighboring buildings on Exposures 2 and 4, allowing members to accurately discern the width of the fire building.

A
  1. BThese shed roofs, once removed, may provide effectiveventilation points for sub-level and first floor fires.
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25
Q

12) Many of the construction features found in Older Cast-Iron Lofts can also be found in Newer Cast Iron Lofts. Of the features list below that are unique to Newer Cast-Iron buildings, which is listed incorrectly? (FFP Lofts 5.2.2-5.2.3)A) Segmental arch floors should not be breached unless protected by a charged hoseline.B) Wrought-Iron Girders/Beams/Lintels were used and unlike cast-iron, which is strong in compression but weak in tension, wrought-iron is equally strong in compression and tension.C) Like steel and cast-iron, wrought-iron when heated in a fire situation will elongate and lose strength. Both of these characteristics can lead to a collapse.D) Attempts to protect interior cast-iron columns against the effects of fire were through the use of a double shell. Exterior facade columns were not required to be protected.

A
  1. ASegmental arch floors should not be breached for fear of causing a general floor collapse spanning a wide area
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26
Q

13) Which construction feature found in Mill Lofts is described incorrectly? (FFP Lofts 5.3.1, 5.3.2, 5.3.3, 5.3.8)A) Wooden floor beams are fixed into cast-iron wall plates which are designed to allow the beams to collapse in a fire without pulling down the walls. Cast-iron wall plates tend to collect moisture leading to the deterioration of the wooden beams over a long period of time.B) Square columns (20% stronger than round ones of equal dimension) are used on the lower floors while round columns are reserved for the upper floors. Column dimensions decrease as load carrying requirements diminish at the upper floors of the building.C) A general rule of thumb for the run of the original hardwood finished flooring is from side to side of the building. A firefighter lost on a floor can utilize this knowledge to find a means of egress in the exposure 2 or 4 sides of the building.D) Steel Tension Cables/Rods have reinforcing plates, commonly in the shape of a star, which can be seen on exterior walls of the building. When installed during construction by design, this may be indicated by a uniform pattern and when put in post-construction due to age and deterioration; this may be indicated by an irregular pattern.

A
  1. CA general rule of thumb for the run of original hardwood finished flooring is from the front to rear of the building. A firefighter lost on a floor can utilize this knowledge to find a front or rear means of egress.
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27
Q

14) BC Charles was discussing the features of Fireproof Lofts with members at the kitchen table. He was correct in all comments except in which choice? (FFP Lofts 5.4.1, 5.4.3, 5.4.9, 5.4.12)A) Flat Slab “Mushroom” Floors are not unique to Fireproof loft buildings; they may be found in Cast-Iron and Mill Lofts as well. Often a portion of the floor slab at the column base is made thicker to enhance the load-bearing capacity of the column.B) Casement Windows are constructed of multiple glass panes placed in a wrought-iron or light steel frame. They provide an excellent point for horizontal ventilation. Access, egress, and the removal of victims will prove difficult, however, since they tilt open horizontally.C) Skywalks may interconnect adjoining buildings at one or more floors above ground level. Many are sealed closed at both ends or structurally unsound, negating their use for occupant egress and firefightingD) Loading Docks can provide firefighting units with excellent access points into the building. These openings are often protected by metal roll-down gates when not being utilized and during non-operational hours.

A
  1. AOften a portion of the floor slab at the column capital is made thicker
28
Q

15) Engine operations in Cast-Iron and Mill Lofts can be challenging. A capable and determined Incident Commander should know which choice below to be incorrect? (FFP Lofts 6.1.5, 6.1.8, 6.2.1 B, 6.2.3 B)A) Large fires may require two lines on the fire floor and the second hoseline is usually stretched by way of the interior stairs to the same floor as the first line for augmentation. If not needed on the original fire floor, the second line is then advanced to the floor above once the officer supervising the second hoseline is assured the first hoseline is making progress and is capable of handling the fire floor.B) Segmental arch floors exposed to fire can spall violently and units should not hesitate to cool these floors by operating the hoseline stream directly overhead.C) For a cellar/sub-cellar fire, the second engine company shall assist the first engine with the initial hoseline. In a building protected by a sprinkler system servicing the fire area, if the first engine has not supplied it, a supply line shall be stretched to feed this system.D) For upper floor fires in these buildings consider utilization of the high-rise nozzle (HRN).

A
  1. B6.1.8 Segmental arch floors exposed to fire can spall violently and possibly fail when struck by water from a hoseline below. Use the reach of the stream and do not operate the stream directly overhead.
29
Q

16) The Incident Commander should be aware of the location and activities of Ladder Companies at Cast-Iron and Mill Loft fires. At these operations, all of the following are correct with the exception of which choice? (FFP Lofts 7.1.1, 7.1.4, 7.1.16, 7.1.19)A) The first and second ladder companies shall always team up and be responsible for ventilation, entry and search (VES) of the fire floor. Later arriving units will conduct VES on the floors above.B) Improper apparatus positioning and tormentor placement have collapsed vaulted sidewalks. Vehicles falling through vaulted sidewalks could strike structural elements in sub-level areas leading to a building collapse.C) Indiscriminate overhauling on the underside of segmental arch floors can cause a localized collapse.D) Fire-vented windows where wind is blowing the fire back into the fire occupancy may require the deployment of KO curtain(s) and/or the fire window blanket.

A
  1. A7.1.1 The first ladder company is responsible for ventilation, entry and search (VES) of the fire floor. The second ladder company is responsible for VES of the floors above.
30
Q

17) An Incident Commander may have many concerns at a fire in a loft building. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information? (FFP 8.1.1, 8.1.2, 9.1.1)A) Large area lofts may require the utilization of the Post Radio.B) Rebreather Units may be required for extended, pre-fire control search operations over large floor areas and/or below grade levels.C) Examine adjoining buildings as fire and combustible gases can travel through crevices at beam ends seeping through brickwork.D) Wide-dimensional Cast-iron lofts having front and rear walls supporting girders pose catastrophic collapse potential should they be compromised.

A
  1. B Rebreather Units may be required for extended, post fire control search operations over large floor areas and/or below grade levels.
31
Q

18) Which “loft building” tactical consideration recently reviewed by a Battalion Chief was incorrect? (FFP 8.2.1, 8.2.2 A)A) Rear entrances may provide better access to sub-cellar areas.B) Never allow units to open up synthetic walls due to the extreme danger of collapse they present at cellar and sub-cellar fires.C) At lower and upper floor fires in loft buildings consider the necessity for ladder apparatus placement at each exterior building wall fronting on a street.D) The removal of deadlights and/or metal frame over a sidewalk vault can provide vertical ventilation at cellar and sub-cellar fires as well as insertion points for cellar pipes, sub-cellar pipes, distributors and foam generators.

A
  1. BB. Opening up synthetic walls may also provide an access point for entry and vertical ventilation of sub-level areas. It can additionally facilitate the use of fire extinguishing equipment during stubborn cellar or sub-cellar fires.
32
Q

1) Hydrants play an integral role in firefighting and their maintenance is key to successful operations. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding FDNY procedures and NYC hydrants? (AUC 205 5.2 6.4, 7.2, 8.2, 8.3)A) Units encountering low water pressure at fires shall advise the Incident Commander of the problem. The Incident Commander shall take all appropriate actions to remedy the problem and make notifications to the Borough Commander/Command Chief and request DEP.B) Within one hour of a Phase I (Water Pressure Alert) announcement, Battalion Chiefs shall leave quarters and physically survey their districts to observe and note the number and location of illegally opened hydrants. Battalion Chiefs may schedule units to assist in this survey.C) Every three hours during a Phase II Water Pressure Emergency, the Battalion Chief shall provide the administrative Deputy Chief with information received from units including the number of illegally opened hydrants, number of hydrants shut down, number of spray caps placed and any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressure that could adversely affect firefighting operations.D) An open fire hydrant discharges approximately 1,000 gallons of water per minute whereas a spray cap discharges 25 gallons per minute. DEP will deliver hydrant caps and spray caps to Divisions and units can request hydrant / spray caps through the chain of command.

A
  1. C8.1 Starting at 1000 hours each unit shall take and record the pressure on the hydrant nearest to quarters, every hour until 2200 hours. These readings shall be recorded in the Company Journal.
33
Q

2) Large padlocks with hardened shackles have been issued to Battalions to secure premises at which no owner or authorized representative is present. When the Battalion is ready to leave the scene of operations prior to the arrival of the Police Department, these locks may be used if all of the following factors are met with the exception of which choice? (AUC 231 2)A) It is a commercial occupancy where an emergency incident had occurred; these locks shall never be used when fire is encountered.B) Forcible entry was accomplished with minimal damage (padlocks removed, through the lock means, etc.) and there is no other damage to the entire perimeter of the premises.C) The original padlock hasp and/or staples are in place, or there is a folding gate, or similar devices that can be easily secured with a padlock.D) There is nothing abnormal or unusual apparent about the premises or its contents.

A
  1. C2.3 Very minor fire or emergency incident had occurred.
34
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3) The Battalion Chief shall determine if a premise requires securing with the Battalion-issued padlock. A reliable Battalion Chief would know all of the following statements to be true except? (AUC 231 3.2, 3.3, 5.6)A) Battalions shall carry locks and keys in the Battalion car. Keys and locks shall be properly tagged.B) The Battalion Chief shall issue a padlock and key to a company at the scene and direct the company to secure the premises.C) A second key shall be kept in the firehouse housewatch area that the Battalion is quartered with in event of loss of key carried in car.D) If the Company is at an extended operation or relocated when the lock is requested to be removed, the dispatcher shall notify the Battalion. The Battalion Chief shall take necessary action to see that lock is removed.

A
  1. C3.3 Battalions shall carry locks and keys in Battalion car. Second key shall be kept in Battalion office in event of loss of key carried in car or as per Section 5.6 Dispatcher Duties. Keys and locks shall be properly tagged.
35
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4) Two Battalion Chiefs assigned to Division 1 were discussing the Department’s policy on the evaluation of officers on probation. One Chief made an incorrect comment which can be found in which choice? (AUC 240 2.3, 3.10, 8.2.1, 8.2.2)A) The probationary period for all officers is one year, measured from the date of promotion.B) During their probationary period, newly promoted Officers will be evaluated at intervals of 3, 6, 9, and 11 months, measured from the date of promotion.C) Evaluation forms must be forwarded to the Division at least five days prior to the end of each period.D) When extension of probation or demotion is recommended, a copy of the evaluation must be forwarded to the Chief of Personnel.

A
  1. DWhen extension of probation or demotion is recommended, a copy of the evaluation must be forwarded to the Chief of Operations.
36
Q

5) You would be correct to submit an annual evaluation report for a tenured Lieutenant assigned to your Battalion to the Division by? (AUC 240 8.3.1)A) February 1B) June 1C) November 1D) January 1

A
  1. A8.3.1 Annual evaluation reports shall be submitted to appropriate Divisions by the firstof the months listed below:Lieutenants………………………..FebruaryCaptains……………………………JuneChiefs……………………………….November
37
Q

6) The Red Cross will provide fire verification and damage information to the Departments of Social Services and Relocation. Requests to the Fire Department from these agencies will be referred to the Red Cross. Which of the following choices contains correct information regarding the Department’s policy in dealing with the Red Cross? (AUC 253 2.3, 3.1 - 3.5)A) The Red Cross will provide response of their personnel to all 2nd or greater alarms in occupied, unoccupied or vacant buildings.B) A Red Cross Referral Slip shall only be given to persons needing relocation or assistance as a result of fire as it serves as verification of fire, damage or residence.C) Persons requiring assistance will make the necessary telephone call to the Red Cross per instructions on the Referral Slip. Under no circumstances shall FDNY members make these calls on their behalf.D) Referral slips need not be given if Red Cross personnel are on the scene.

A
  1. C3.4 The person(s) requiring assistance will make necessary telephone call to the Red Cross perinstructions on Referral Slip. An exception to procedure will be made if victim has no access to a telephone or when a severe language problem exists.
38
Q

7) An experienced Battalion Chief would know all of the following to be correct regarding Department chauffeur guidelines except? (AUC 254 1.3, 2.4, 2.7, 2.9, 2.10)A) Members must have three (3) years experience in the Fire Department to be considered for Chauffeur Training School. In unusual circumstances, exceptions to this policy will be granted with the approval of the Chief of Operations.B) Prior to attending Chauffeur Training School, each member must be given at least three (3) hours of driver training which may include emergency responses.C) Battalion Commanders shall forward Form CT-1A to their Administrative Division semi-annually by February 1st and August 1st.D) Prior to the start of any tour, Battalion Chiefs shall ensure that surplus school trained chauffeurs are utilized in preference to company trained chauffeurs in units within their Battalion.

A
  1. B2.4 Prior to attending Chauffeur Training School, each member must be given at least five (5) hours of driver training, not including emergency responses. To assure this, Company Commanders shall implement and maintain an ongoing program of developing and evaluating selected members by having them drive and/or operate the apparatus at drills, returning from alarms, on inspectional duties, etc.
39
Q

8) If a chauffeur is granted leave after the start of a tour, the officer on duty shall notify the administrative Battalion Chief who shall ensure all of the following except? (AUC 254 5.1)A) The unit shall remain in service with a school trained chauffeur or company trained chauffeur from the quarters the member was working in when the leave was granted.B) If a school trained chauffeur is required, the Battalion Chief shall detail a school trained chauffeur from any unit within the Battalion to cover the vacancy.C) If no school trained chauffeur is available from within the Battalion, DSCO shall be notified to detail a school trained chauffeur into the unit to cover the vacancy.D) If no school trained chauffeur is available citywide, the unit shall be placed out of service.

A
  1. D If no school trained chauffeur is available citywide, the unit shall remain in service with a company trained chauffeur.
40
Q

1) BC Smith was incorrect in which statement during a discussion about Compensatory Time Reimbursement? (PAID 6-70 1, 2, 4B)A) The rescheduling of adjusted tours does not apply to reimbursement quotas.B) Reimbursement allotments not used by a unit are transferable to another unit.C) In general, when granting compensatory time reimbursement, there is a quota of 1 firefighter per tour in all Battalions.D) Every effort shall be made to have all members seek an alternate tour for reimbursement as soon as the original request has been disapproved.

A
  1. Bb. After quotas are filled, Deputy Chiefs shall disapprove all subsequent requests and return such request to members involved. Reimbursement allotments notused by a unit (Division, Battalion, Company, etc.) are not transferable to another unit.
41
Q

2) Which of the following choices contains information that is in compliance with the Department’s mutual exchange policy? (PAID 6-72 1.1, 1.5, 1.7, 1.7)A) Mutual exchanges of tours shall be completed within a 15 day period subsequent to the first date involved.B) Application for mutual exchange of tours, below the rank of Lieutenant, may be submitted by members of equal rank assigned or detailed within their assigned Division.C) Application for mutual exchange of tours shall be submitted at least 1 day in advance of the first date involved.D) Approved mutual exchange of tours shall be voided if either member will be on any type of leave or detail for which the member has been notified more than 5 days prior to first date of mutual.

A
  1. D1.6 Mutual exchanges of tours shall be completed within a 30 day period subsequent to first date involved.1.1 Application for mutual exchange of tours, below the rank of Lieutenant, may be submitted by members of equal rank assigned or detailed within their assigned Battalion.1.5 Application shall be submitted at least 3 days in advance of first date involved.
42
Q

3) DC Richards called BC Long to review the Department’s mutual exchange guidelines. BC Long had to correct which incorrect statement made by the Deputy Chief? (PAID 6-72 1.9, 1.15, 2.1, 4 D)A) Under normal circumstances, members should not owe or be owed more than 8 mutual exchange of tours. This includes self-mutuals.B) Only under extremely unusual circumstances may variations to these procedures be approved by the administrative Battalion for firefighters.C) The Unit Staffing Log is an official Department record and only Company Officers are permitted to make entries in it.D) If a member received a tour off in a mutual, and subsequently is unable to work the scheduled payback tour due to a line of duty medical leave, the member is not required to pay back the required tour (maximum of one tour).

A
  1. A1.9 Under normal circumstances, members should not owe or be owed 8 or more mutual exchange of tours. This excludes self-mutuals.
43
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4) During roll call, a recently promoted BC has to correct a company officer when he made which incorrect comment while discussing mutual exchange guidelines? (PAID 6-72 4F, 4.1 C, D, E)A) Time due the Fire Department or a member, as a result of an incomplete mutual, shall be cleared up within thirty (30) days after the member becomes available.B) If there is inability on the part of an applicant or cooperating member to complete either portion of a mutual exchange of tours, the Battalion Chief, only after consultation with DSCO, is authorized to assign the member to a tour of duty within the Battalion to complete the obligation.C) Members unable to complete a mutual exchange of tours because of line of duty medical leave shall not be required to reimburse the City for such tour of duty, (maximum one tour).D) Incomplete mutuals not repaid within 30 days will be charged to vacation leave. If there is no remaining vacation leave for the present year, no vacation leave deduction from the member will be made.

A
  1. DE. Incomplete mutuals not repaid within 30 days will be charged to vacation leave. If there is no remaining vacation leave for present year, the deduction will be made from the following year’s leave.
44
Q

5) A knowledgeable BC should know that all of the following statements are correct regarding the Department’s Mutual Compliance Report except? (PAID 6-72 5.3-5.7)A) Any member who owes or is owed 8 or more mutual exchange of tours, as reflected on the most current bi-weekly printout, will be indicated by a single asterisk (*) on the Compliance Report.B) Any member who owes or is owed 8 or more mutual exchange of tours, as reflected on three (3) consecutive bi-weekly printouts, will be indicated on each printout sheet by a double asterisk ().C) Members with a double asterisk (), as reflected on the most current compliance report, may only work one additional mutual exchange of tours.D) All mutual tours owed must be paid back prior to retirement leaves. Any tours not paid back will be deducted from remaining leave balances.

A
  1. C5.6 Members with a double asterisk (**), as reflected on the most current compliance report, may not work mutual exchange of tours.
45
Q

6) It is October 12, 2018 and you are in quarters when you receive a call from a covering Captain working in your Battalion. The Captain is asking what action to take regarding the following mutual: (PAID 6-72 3 C, G)10/10/2018 0900 hours: FF Adams works a mx on the 9X6 tour for FF Batista10/10/2018 1800 hours: FF Batista was scheduled to work a mx on the 6X9 tour for FF Adams as part of the complete mx. FF Batista calls in sick from home at 1700 hours with the flu.Which choice below accurately reflects the correct answer you should provide to the Captain?A) FF Adams owes the Department a 6X9 tour.B) FF Batista does not owe the Department a tour due to his ML status (maximum one tour)C) FF Batista owes the Department a 6X9 tour.D) FF Batista owes the Department a 9X6 tour.

A
  1. CG. Tours owed because of an incomplete MX, shall be repaid with a similar tour(e.g. if member was not able to repay a 6x9 tour he/she shall owe a 6x9 tour).
46
Q

7) Each of the following choices contains correct information regarding Annual Education Day except? (PAID 1-08 2.4, 3.1, 3.3-3.5)A) All members shall report in wearing their work duty shirt and long pants. No bunker gear is required.B) Members shall not be permitted to work the 6x9 tour prior to, or the 6x9 tour following Education Day.C) Reimbursement leaves or school attendance variances will not be granted to members of a unit scheduled for Education Day without the approval of the Executive Officer of the Bureau of Training.D) Officers, and Firefighters 1st through 6th grade, who attended a periodic Education Day within six months of their scheduled date, shall not report with their company. These members shall be included in the Division/Battalion manpower and detailed for the 9x6 tour.

A
  1. D3.4 Firefighters 6th grade shall attend Education Day with their company when scheduled.3.5 Officers, and Firefighters other than 6th grade, who attended a periodic Education Day within six months of their scheduled date, shall not report with their company. These members shall be included in the Division/Battalion manpower and detailed for the 9x6tour.
47
Q

8) Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding “annual medicals”? (PAID 2-08 1.4, 1.6, 2.5.2, 2.5.3)A) All members, including 6th grade firefighters, who have not had an annual medical during the prior six months, shall report to the Bureau of Health Services when their group number is scheduled.B) Firefighters, including 6th grade firefighters, who have attended a medical or “5th grade medical” within six months of their scheduled date, shall not report with their company. These firefighters shall be included in the Battalion manpower and detailed for the 9x6 tour.C) On the scheduled date of their medical, the scheduled Battalion Chief and Battalion Firefighter shall report to the Bureau of Health Services from quarters with the Battalion Vehicle. Battalions should leave quarters promptly at 0900 hours.D) The scheduled Battalion Chief and Firefighter shall participate in a training program upon completion of their medical examination. The scheduled Battalion will be out-of-service for the duration of the medical examination and training session.

A
  1. B1.6 Firefighters, including 6th grade firefighters, who have attended a medical within six months of their scheduled date, shall not report with their company. These firefighters shall be included in the Battalion manpower and detailed for the 9x6 tour.Note: For the purpose of this document, 5th grade medicals shall not be consideredannual medicals.
48
Q

1) All of the following choices contain correct information regarding timber truss structures except? (Dunn Ch 8 p110-113)A) A bowstring truss roof has only two bearing walls.B) When receiving conflicting reports of fire conditions from members operating above and below the fire in a structure with a bowstring truss, the successful chief is guided by the report from above.C) In a timber truss building, the main fire will be in the roof structure, not in the content below.D) When web members are enclosed by fire-retarding materials such as drywall or plaster on one side, timber trusses will fail one at a time.

A
  1. A4 bearing walls front, rear, and side
49
Q

2) Which of the following is not a size-up indicator of a truss roof in a building? (Dunn Ch 8 p112)A) A large open space without columns.B) A mounded roof shape.C) Occupancy type (supermarket, bowling alley, garage, theater, place of worship, auto dealership, pier or armories)D) The presence of many large, cast-iron columns.

A
  1. D
50
Q

3) Dunn refers to firefighting strategy for timber trusses concealed by a ceiling. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? (Dunn Ch 8 p112-113)A) There can be no extinguishing a fire in a truss space from above.B) When fire extends to a timber truss attic space, prepare for a defensive outside attack and protect exposures. Order all firefighters above and below the attic space out of the building.C) A truss roof without a ceiling is much more dangerous to firefighters than a truss roof concealed by a ceiling.D) There can be no extinguishing a fire from below a burning truss through a trap door in the ceiling.

A
  1. CA truss roof concealed by a cieling is much more dangerous to firefighters than a truss roof without a cieling.
51
Q

4) A Chief in charge of firefighting strategy for timber trusses not concealed by a ceiling would know which point below to be incorrect? (Dunn Ch 8 p113)A) The first arriving Engine Company should attack the main body of fire directly with a large-diameter hoseline, capable of reaching 50 feet.B) If the first hoseline does not control the flames within the first few minutes of water discharge, and it appears that the fire will increase, additional lines should immediately be stretched into the building to extinguish the main body of fire.C) If the first hoseline is successful and controls the fire at floor level or in a single timber truss and it appears that the fire will not spread, a back-up, large diameter hoseline should be stretched into the building.D) The second hoseline should sweep the underside of the roof, if necessary, to extinguish any possible fire hidden behind the smoke and heat at ceiling level.

A
  1. BIf 1st hoseline does not control fire and it appears the fire will increase, interior firefighting should be discontinued.
52
Q

5) Roof venting at timber truss roof structures can be challenging. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Vincent Dunn’s strategy? (Dunn Ch 8 p114) A) In the early stages of a fire, where an interior attack has a chance for success and the first hoseline quickly controls the fire, smoke is not a factor in preventing firefighters from making a close approach. B) In a bowstring truss-roofed building which does not have web members enclosed with plasterboard, vent openings may be made in the front and rear sloping portions of the roof to provide horizontal ventilation of the entire roof space. C) To quickly determine if a fire has spread to the roof space of a bowstring truss, a triangular cut may be made in the sloping exposure 2 and 4 sides of the roof. D) If a small fire exists in a bowstring truss-roofed attic space concealed by a ceiling and an access ladder cannot be found, quick access can be obtained by making a roof cut opening at the sloping ends of the roof deck and a hose stream directed into the truss roof area through this opening.

A
  1. CRoofcut opening at the sloping ends of the roof deck
53
Q

6) Timber truss failure is a serious concern to any Incident Commander. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? (Dunn Ch 8 p115)A) During timber truss failure, a firefighter on the roof would be safer if he/she ran perpendicular to the failing truss instead of running parallel along the failing truss to the closest wall.B) During timber truss failure, a firefighter operating inside of the building would be safer if he/she ran parallel to the failing truss if it is closer to a bearing wall.C) Firefighters attempting the initial hoseline attack on a fire should be positioned behind a truss section next to the one involved in fire.D) Firefighters ordered to evacuate the roof of a bowstring timber truss building should retreat in a direction perpendicular to the roof trusses.

A
  1. Bperpendicular
54
Q

7) The large open space required in a place of worship usually indicates a timber truss roof. Often, a defensive outside attack with emphasis on protecting nearby exposures and preparing for collapse is recommended. According to Vincent Dunn, in what order are portions of a place of worship likely to collapse when exposed to shock (from most likely to collapse to least likely?) (Dunn Ch 8 p118)1. Non-bearing Walls2. Steeple3. Freestanding Parapet Walls4. Chimneys5. Bearing WallsA) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5B) 2, 4, 3, 1, 5C) 3, 4, 2, 1, 5D) 3, 1, 2, 4, 5

A
  1. B1. To wer / Steeple2. Chimney3. Freestanding Parapet Walls4. Non-bearing Walls5. Bearing Walls
55
Q

8) Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding fire suppression in places of worship? (Dunn Ch 8 p 118-119)A) The first Officer should locate and size-up the fire. If the fire is too big, an exterior defensive attack should be the initial strategy. If extinguishable, the first line is taken into the place of worship to the seat of the fire and the fire extinguished.B) When the first line enters a place of worship, a second, large-diameter hoseline should immediately back up the first line. As soon as the flames are knocked down, the walls and attic should be checked for concealed fire spread.C) If two hoselines do not extinguish a fire in a place of worship, firefighters should withdraw.D) When the Incident Commander arrives at a fire in a place of worship and the first and second hoselines have been stretched and supplied with water, the strategy is to stretch and charge additional hoselines to support the interior attack.

A
  1. DIf 2 hoselines do not extinguish, withdraw FF’s & fight fire from the outside.
56
Q

9) A house of worship may have a rose window, - a large stained-glass window at the upper reaches of the front of a church or temple. All of the following choices are correct regarding operating a master stream through this window with the exception of which choice? (Dunn Ch 8 p119)A) The first Ladder Company’s master stream should be positioned to operate through this window.B) The Ladder Company should be positioned in a corner safe area.C) Only a small corner of the rose window should be vented due to its value.D) In some instances, a choir loft structure or pipe organ at the front of the church will block a master stream coming through the window.

A
  1. Centire window to be vented
57
Q

10) Following the venting of the rose window at a house of worship fire, there are many operational considerations to take into account. Which of the following is incorrect according to Vincent Dunn? (Dunn Ch 8 p120)A) In many urban areas the rose window and side stained-glass windows are covered with unbreakable clear plastic which can create a major venting problem.B) After the initial master stream is positioned at the rose window, other master streams should be positioned around the structure parking lots and on roofs of adjoining buildings to protect exposures.C) If the interior of a house of worship must be vented for the advance of the first two hoselines, then the stained glass windows farthest from the fire on both sides should be vented first, working your way towards the fire location.D) To vent tall windows, ladders should be placed again the church sidewall, upwind of the stained-glass windows. Window venting should start near the top and work downward.

A
  1. Cnearest the fire on both sides…
58
Q

11) A knowledgeable BC should be able to point out which incorrect statement below, which is not in accordance with Vincent Dunn’s research on houses of worship? (Dunn Ch 8 p122-125)A) If fire reaches the attic spaces of most places of worship, it cannot be extinguished with handheld hoselines. Firefighters will have to be withdrawn and a defensive attack used.B) The exterior fire spread problem at a place of worship will be radiated heat coming through open stained-glass windows and a burning sky filled with airborne flying embers.C) A triforium is the space reserved for clergy that includes the altar and front choir area.D) The apse is the part of a church that is a semicircle or U shaped wall.

A
  1. CTriforium-middle floor of a church (side balconies)Chancel - space reserved for clergy that includes the altar and front choir area.
59
Q

1) The maximum permitted occupancy rule from the Housing Maintenance Code requires a livable area for persons in residential buildings. Regarding this rule, it would be accurate to state? (BISP Ch 3 Add 2 IG 8 p33)A) It applies to all Class A and Class B multiple dwellings and all private dwellings.B) Each person must have a livable area of not less than 100 square feet.C) When calculating floor areas, you should include kitchens, kitchenettes, private halls and bathrooms.D) A Living Room in a rooming unit may be occupied by not more than two persons if it has a minimum floor area not less than 110 square feet in a rooming house, or 130 square feet in an SRO.

A
  1. D• Every person occupying an apartment in a class A or class B multiple dwelling or in a tenant-occupied apartment in a one- or two-family dwelling shall have a livable area of not less than 80 square feet. The maximum number of persons who may occupy any such apartment shall be determined by dividing the total livable floor area of the apartment by 80 square feet. For every two persons who may lawfully occupy an apartment, one child under 4 may also reside therein, except that a child under four is permitted in an apartment lawfully occupied by one person. No residual floor area of less than 80 square feet shall be counted in determining the maximum permitted occupancy for such apartment.• The floor area of a kitchen or kitchenette shall be included in measuring the total livable floor area of an apartment but the floor area for private halls, foyers, bathrooms or water closets shall be excluded.• A living room in a rooming unit may be occupied by not more than two persons if it has a minimum floor area not less than 110 square feet in a rooming house, or 130 square feet in a single room occupancy.
60
Q

2) Which of the following is a legal occupancy in a Private Dwelling? (BISP Ch 3 Add 2 IG 8 p36)A) A basement in a 2-family PD rented to one adult male.B) A basement in a 1-family PD rented to a mother and her twin 5 year olds.C) A cellar in a 2-family PD rented to one adult male.D) A cellar in a 1-family PD rented to a mother and her 18 year old daughter.

A
  1. BAn apartment, in the basement of a one-family dwelling may be occupied, unless otherwise prohibited under the zoning resolution of the city of New York, if it meets the requirements of subdivision b and all of the following conditions:• Such basement occupancy is limited to one family which, for the purposes of this section, shall not include boarders.• Every room shall have a window complying with the requirements of section 27-2062 of article one of this subchapter.
61
Q

3) The Multiple Dwelling Law requires that an SRO comply with all of the following provisions except? (BISP Ch 3 Add 2 IG 8 p37-38)A) Every required means of egress within an apartment requires a sign marker “Fire Exit” and lighted in red at all times.B) Every SRO must be fully sprinklered in both the apartment areas and public hallway.C) Every SRO requires an adequate and reliable fire alarm system.D) Movable heating apparatus and movable cooking apparatus are not permitted in any sleeping room.

A
  1. B• In every such dwelling which is not fireproof, every hall or passage within an apartment shall be equipped with a sprinkler system, which shall be extended so as to have at least one sprinkler head in every room. The construction and arrangement of such sprinkler system shall comply with the requirements of the department.
62
Q

4) First alarm units respond to a fire in a Loft building where they see the following sign on the front of the building:A.I.R.3FRIn this situation, they should know that there is an artist in residence? (BISP Ch 3 Add 2 IG 8 p42)A) In apartment 3F, on the right side of the building.B) On the 3rd floor in the rear of the building.C) In apartment 3F, in the rear of the building.D) On the 3rd floor on the right side of the building.

A
  1. BThe sign specifications established by the Department of Buildings are as follows:• Sign must be of metal eight inches by ten.• Two inch black letters on white background.• Seven feet above sidewalk level.• As close as possible to the main entrance on front wall outside of building reading:A.I.R. Artist In Residence3 F Third FloorR Rear
63
Q

1) While assisting a unit on BISP, the officer asks you how many exits are required from each story of a multiple dwelling constructed in 2016 if the occupant load is listed as 400? (BISP Ch 3 Add 2 IG 8 pg 20)A) Minimum one exit.B) Minimum two exits.C) Minimum three exits.D) Minimum four

A
  1. BEgress from Stories2008 BC Table1018.12014 BC Table1021.1Number of required exits:• Minimum of two exits required for 1-500 occupant load.• Minimum of three exits required for 501-1000 occupant load.• Minimum of four exits required for more than 1000 occupant load.Action: Request Battalion ResponseDOB Referral Report (High Priority)Refer to SFO (EG-7)
64
Q

2) A wet standpipe system shall be installed throughout all of the residential structures listed below except? (BISP Ch 3 Add 2 IG 8 pg 23)A) A multiple dwelling built in 1975 that is 7 stories in height.B) A multiple dwelling built in 1968, 2 stories in height with a floor area of 10,000 square feet on the first floor and 7,000 square feet on the second floor.C) A multiple dwelling built in 1998, 5 stories in height and having an area of 8,000 square feet on every floor.D) A multiple dwelling built in 1980, 3 stories in height and having an area of 7,500 square feet on each floor.

A
  1. DBC27-932Wet standpipe systems shall be installed throughout the following buildings:In all buildings or portions thereof exceeding 6 stories or 75 feet in height.• In buildings 2 or more stories in height that have a floor area of 10,000 square feet or more on any floor.• In buildings exceeding 3 stories in height that have an area exceeding 7,500 square feet in area on any one floor. A non-automatic or automatic dry system may be used in lieu of a wet system when a system is not required by another provision.Action: Request Battalion ResponsePossible Vacate, See Chapter 4, Addendum 4DOB Referral Report (Normal Priority)
65
Q

3) The Battalion Chief on duty in Battalion 5 received an A-8 Fire Department Referral Report for “1 Main Street” along with an A-17 for the same address. This Chief was correct in all of the following actions except in which choice? (BISP Ch 5 Ref 2.1 1.4)A) The Battalion Chief opened the e-mail with the attached A-8 and saved a copy within the A-8 folder in the Battalion’s computer.B) The Battalion Chief evaluated the A-8 for appropriate enforcement action and endorsed the A-8 by simply typing her name in the appropriate box.C) After endorsing the A-8, the Battalion Chief again saved a copy of the form within the A-8 folder in the Battalion’s computer.D) Since an A-17 was attached to the e-mail with the A-8, both documents were reviewed, endorsed and sent to the administrative Division in separate emails, both listing “1 Main Street” in the subject line.

A
  1. DNote: If an A-17 is attached to the e-mail with the A-8, follow the same steps in sections 1.4.1 through 1.4.4. Both documents should be attached to a single e-mail andsent to the administrative division. Make note of the A-17 in the subject line of the e-mail.
66
Q

4) A DOB Referral Report designated as High Priority shall be considered when the severity of conditions is not extremely hazardous or immediate in nature and access issues are not present. An experienced BC should know which point below to be incorrect regarding a “High Priority Referral?” (BISP Ch 5 Ref 2.1 A 2.1, 2.2)A) The pre-printed High Priority referral items on the report are the only referral items that can be designated as High Priority.B) A separate DOB Referral Report marked for High Priority shall be prepared for each address or premise.C) A single DOB Referral Report marked for High Priority may be prepared for more than one high priority referral condition for the same address.D) A separate DOB Referral Report marked for High Priority shall be prepared when both a normal priority referral item and a high priority referral item exist at the same address or premise.

A
  1. C2. HIGH PRIORITY REFERRAL 2.1 A DOB Referral Report designated as High Priority shall be considered when the severity of conditions is not extremely hazardous or immediate in nature and access issues are not present. The pre-printed High Priority referral items on the report are the only referral items that can be designated as High Priority.2.1.1 A separate DOB Referral Report marked for High Priority shall be prepared:1. For each address or premise2. For each high priority referral condition for the same address3. When both a normal priority referral item and a high priority referral item exist at the same address or premise2.2 The administrative battalion chief should take digital photographs to document the condition when it is determined that a DOB Referral Report shall be forwarded for a High Priority referral item. Photographs are recommended whenever the condition can be captured in this manner.
67
Q

5) As a covering Battalion Chief working in Battalion 9, you would be most correct to approve and endorse which A-17 below? (BISP Ch 5 Ref 2.2)A) AB) BC) CD) D

A
  1. D20. Enter any additional information and/or actions taken as a result of the inspection.Also record:A. The number of any violation orders issued and the Standard Form of Orderitem numbers.