ORTHO PEDO Sample Questions

Question 1

which of the following statements regarding crowding of the dentition is TRUE?
A. crowding of the primary dentition usually resolves as the permanent teeth erupt
B. spacing in the primary dentition usually indicates spacing will be present in the adult dentition
C. approximately 15% of adolescents have crowding severe enough to consider extraction of permanent teeth as part of treatment
D. lower incisor crowding is more common in african american individuals than white individuals

Answer 1

C

Question 2

bones of the cranial base include which of the following?
A. maxilla, mandible, and cranial vault
B. ethmoid, sphenoid, and occipital
C. palatal, nasal, and zygoma
D. frontal and parietal

Answer 2

B

Question 3

according to scammon’s growth curves, which of the following tissues has a growth increase that can be used to help predict timing of the adolescent growth spurt?
A. neural tissues
B. lymphoid tissues
C. reproductive tissues

Answer 3

C

Question 4

children in the primary dentition most often present with a(n) \_\_\_
A. increased overbite
B. decreased overbite
C. ideal overbite
D. significant open bite

Answer 4

B

Question 5

an adult patient with a class II molar relationship and a cephalometric ANB angle of 2 degrees has which type of malocclusion?
A. class II dental malocclusion
B. class II skeletal malocclusion
C. class I dental malocclusion
D. class I dental malocclusion

Answer 5

A

Question 6

which of the following reactions is LEAST likely to be observed during orthodontic treatment?
A. root resorption
B. devitalization of teeth that are moved
C. mobility of teeth that are moved
D. development of occlusal interferences

Answer 6

B

Question 7

doubling the force applied at the bracket of a tooth would have what effect on the moment affecting tooth movement?
A. the moment would decrease by 50%
B. the moment would not change
C. the moment would double
D. the moment would increase fourfold

Answer 7

C

Question 8

class II elastics are used by stretching an elastic between which of the two following points?
A. from the posterior to the anterior within the maxillary arch
B. from the posterior to the anterior within the mandibular arch
C. from the posterior of the maxillary arch to the anterior of the mandibular arch
D. from the posterior of the mandibular arch to the anterior of the maxillary arch

Answer 8

D

Question 9

when class III elastics are used, the maxillary first molars ___
A. move distally and intrude
B. move mesially and extrude
C. move mesially and intrude
D. move mesially only; there is no movement in the vertical direction

Answer 9

B

Question 10

what is the usual order of extraction of teeth if serial extraction is chosen as the treatment to alleviate severe crowding?
A. primary second molars, primary first molars, permanent first premolars, primary canines
B. primary canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars
C. primary first molars, primary second molars, primary canines
D. primary canines, permanent canines, primary first molars, permanent first premolars

Answer 10

B

Question 11

a 7-year old patient has a 4mm maxillary midline diastema. which of the following should be done?
A. brackets should be placed to close it
B. a radiograph should be taken to rule out the presence of a supernumerary tooth
C. nothing should be done. it will close on its own
D. nothing should be done. treatment should be deferred until the rest of the permanent dentition erupts

Answer 11

B

Question 12

reduction of overbite can be accomplished MOST readily by which of the following tooth movements?
A. intruding maxillary incisors
B. uprighting maxillary and mandibular incisors
C. using a high pull headgear to the maxillary incisors
D. using a lip bumper

Answer 12

A

Question 13

congenitally missing teeth are the result of failure in which stage of development?
A. initiation
B. morphodifferentiation
C. apposition
D. calcification

Answer 13

A

Question 14

during an emergency dental visit in which a tooth is to be extracted because of extensive pulpal involvement, a moderately developmentally challenged 5 year old child becomes physically combative. the parents are unable to calm the child. what should the dentist do?
A. discuss the situation with the parents
B. force the nitrous oxide nosepiece over the child’s mouth and nose
C. use the hand over mouth exercise (HOME)
D. use a firm voice control

Answer 14

A

Question 15

which of the following is the definition of conscious sedation?
A. a minimally depressed level of consciousness that retains the patient’s ability to maintain an airway independently and continuously and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal command
B. a significantly depressed level of consciousness in which the patient’s ability to maintain an airway independently and continuously and respond appropriately to physical stimulation or verbal command is retained
C. a minimally depressed level of consciousness in which the patient’s ability to maintain an airway independently and continuously is retained
D. a significantly depressed level of consciousness in which the patient’s ability to maintain an airway independently and continuously is retained

Answer 15

A

Question 16

the enamel rods in the gingival third of primary teeth sloped occlusally instead of cervically as in permanent teeth. the interproximal contacts of primary teeth are broader and flatter than the interproximal contact of permanent teeth.
A. both statements are true
B. the first statement is true, the second is false
C. the first statement is false, the second is true
D. both statements are false

Answer 16

A

Question 17

formocresol has been shown to have a very good success rate when used as a medicament for pulpotomy procedures. why is there continued interest to find another medicament that performs as well as or better than formocresol?
A. application of formocresol is a clinically time-consuming procedure
B. formocresol is toxic, and there is the possibility of blood-borne spread to vital organs
C. it has been demonstrated that formocresol may cause spontaneous abortion
D. it has been demonstrated that formocresol may cause failure to develop adequate lung capacity in children

Answer 17

B

Question 18

the following teeth are erupted in an 8-year old patient: 3, A, B, C, 7, 8, 9, 10, H, I, 14, 19, K, L, M, 23, 24, 25, 26, R, S, T, 30
what is the space maintenance of choice?
A. band and loop space maintainer
B. lower lingual holding arch
C. nance holding arch
D. distal shoe space maintainer

Answer 18

A

Question 19

the mother of a 5-year old patient is concerned about the child’s thumb-sucking habit. on examination 6 months ago, the patient had a 5mm overjet and a 3mm anterior open bite. today, the patient has a 10% overbite and a 3.5mm overjet. the mother says that the child only sucks his thumb every night when falling to sleep. which of the following is the best advice?
A. refer to a speech pathologist
B. recommend tongue thrust therapy
C. recommend a thumb sucking appliance
D. counsel the parent regarding the thumb sucking, and recall the patient in 3 months

Answer 19

D

Question 20

which of the following statements regarding orthodontic closure of a midline diastema in a patient with a heavy maxillary frenum is TRUE?
A. orthodontic closure is accomplished before frenum surgery
B. orthodontic closure is accomplished after frenum surgery
C. after orthodontic closure, frenum surgery is typically not indicated
D. after frenum surgery, orthodontic closure is typically not indicated

Answer 20

A

Question 21

in a 4-year old patient, tooth E was traumatically intruded, and approximately 50% of the crown is visible clinically. what is the treatment of choice?
A. reposition and splint
B. reposition, splint, and primary endodontics
C. reposition, splint, and formocresol pulpotomy
D. none of the above

Answer 21

D

Question 22

in a 4-year old patient, the maxillary right primary central incisor was traumatically avulsed 60 minutes ago. what is the treatment of choice?
A. replant, splint, and primary endodontics
B. replant, splint, and formocresol pulpotomy
C. replant, no splint, and primary endodontics
D. none of the above

Answer 22

D

Question 23

a young permanent incisor with an open apex has a pinpoint exposure as a result of a traumatic injury that occurred 24 hours previously. which of the following is the BEST treatment?
A. place calcium hydroxide on the pinpoint exposure
B. open the pulp chamber to find healthy pulp tissue and perform a pulpotomy
C. initiate a calcium hydroxide pulpectomy
D. initiate conventional root canal treatment with gutta percha

Answer 23

B

Question 24

a permanent incisor with an open apex is extruded 4mm following an injury 15 minutes ago. what is the treatment of choice?
A. no immediate treatment; monitor closely for vitality
B. reposition, splint, and monitor closely for vitality
C. reposition, splint, and initiate calcium hydroxide pulpotomy
D. reposition, splint, and initiate calcium hydroxide pulpectomy

Answer 24

B

Question 25

which of the following is the MOST likely cause of pulpal necrosis after trauma to a tooth?
A. ankylosis
B. calcific metamorphosis
C. pulpal hyperemia
D. dilaceration

Answer 25

C

Question 26

order the sequence of events that occur when heavy orthodontic forces are placed on teeth:
A. the PDL experiences compression on the side toward which the tooth is moving
B. the alveolar bone experiences undermining resorption
C. the PDL undergoes hyalinization
D. frontal resorption occurs at the surface of the alveolus

Answer 26

A, C, B, D

Question 27

which of the following orthodontic wire types would be the BEST choice for a patient with a known nickel allergy?
A. stainless steel
B. nickel titanium
C. beta titanium
D. multistranded cobalt chromium

Answer 27

C

Question 28

the nature of the bond between the enamel and the resin used to attach an orthodontic bracket is ___
A. chemical
B. mechanical
C. dependent on whether the resin used is light-cured or chemically cured
D. dependent on whether the surface preparation used is conventional etch or self-etch primer

Answer 28

B

Question 29

in general, the width of the incisors in the primary dentition is smaller than the width of their successors in the permanent dentition. this is called the “leeway space” and provides room for eruption of permanent incisors.
A. both statements are true
B. both statements are false
C. the first statement is true, second is false
D. the first statements is false, second is true

Answer 29

C

Question 30

a wire with a low load/deflection rate is capable of generating constant forces that do not depend much on the amount of activation. bending loops into an archwire reduces its load/deflection rate by increasing wire length.
A. both statements are true
B. both statements are false
C. the first statement is true, second is false
D. the first statements is false, second is true

Answer 30

A

Question 31

which of the following statements BEST describes the prognosis of a 12 year old boy with moderate mandibular anterior crowding whose permanent dentition is fully erupted?
A. crowding is likely to improve as the arches expand during the adolescent growth spurt
B. crowding is likely to improve as the mandible continues to grow anteriorly during the adolescent growth spurt
C. crowding is likely to improve as resorption of the anterior portion of the ramus occurs over time
D. crowding is not likely to improve over time

Answer 31

D

Question 32

match the exhibited behavior of a child dental patient with the classification of potentially cooperative patient:
A. gripping the arms of the chair very tightly
B. patient says “I don’t want to” and does not open the mouth
C. temper tantrum
D. shielding behavior
1. timid
2. defiant
3. tense-cooperative
4. uncontrolled

Answer 32

A3
B2
C4
D1

Question 33

order the four plateaus of stage I anesthesia (analgesia):
A. drift
B. paresthesia
C. dream
D. vasomotor

Answer 33

B, D, A, C

Question 34

which three of the following are characteristics of primary tooth anatomy?
A. occlusal table is wider
B. enamel is thinner
C. greater constriction at the cementoenamel junction
D. interproximal contacts are broader and flatter
E. enamel rods in gingival third slope cervically
R. pulp chamber is relatively smaller

Answer 34

B, C, D

Question 35

which three of the following are likely contraindications for performing a pulpotomy on a primary molar?
A. a patient requiring infective endocarditis antibiotic premedication
B. a 3-year old patient
C. swelling associated with the tooth
D. furcation radiolucency
E. marginal ridge breakdown owing to extensive decay
F. a patient with amelogenesis imperfecta
G. a 5-year old patient with a pinpoint carious pulp exposure

Answer 35

A, C, D