Stroke Flashcards

1
Q

What is stroke?

A

The experience of persisting neurological complications of cardiovascular disease - it is NOT a diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3 broad categories of stroke?

A

Haemorrhage, infarct and subarachnoid haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What scoring system is used to diagnose stroke and what score would make a stroke the likely cause?

A

Rosier score, score of >0 makes stroke likely, score =0 makes stroke unlikely but not impossible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the features associated with total anterior circulation syndrome (TACS)?

A
  • Hemiplegia involving at least 2 of; face, arm and leg +/- hemisensory loss
  • Homonymous hemianopia
  • Cortical signs - dysphasia, neglect
  • Most severe type of stroke with only about 5% of patients independently living at 1 year
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the features associated with partial anterior circulation syndrome (PACS)?

A

2 out of 3 features present in a TACS (hemiplegia, homonymous hemianopia and cortical signs) or; Isolated cortical dysfunction such as dysphasia or pure motor/sensory signs less severe than in lacunar syndromes e.g. monoparesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is lacunar syndrome?

A

Lacunar infarcts are small infarcts in the deeper parts of the brain (basal ganglia, thalamus, white matter) and in the brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What causes lacunar syndrome and what are the features?

A
  • They are caused by occlusion of a single deep penetrating artery
  • Affect any 2 of face, arm and leg
  • Best prognosis of all the strokes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the features associated with posterior circulation syndrome (POCS)?

A
  • Cranial nerve palsies
  • Bilateral motor and/or sensory deficits
  • Conjugate eye movement disorders
  • Isolated homonymous hemianopia
  • Cortical blindness
  • Cerebellar deficits without ipsilateral motor/sensory signs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is usually affected in a cortical event in the dominant (left) hemisphere?

A

Language - major implications for rehabilitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What happens as a result of cortical events in the non-dominant (right) hemisphere?

A

Spatial awareness is affected - neglect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the causes of ischaemic cerebrovascular disease in order of commonness?

A

Atherothromboembolism (50%), intracranial small vessel disease (25%), cardiac source of embolism (20%), rare causes (5%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How is small vessel disease classified?

A

6 types:

  • Type 1 - arteriosclerotic (age/risk factor related)
  • Type 2 - sporadic and hereditary cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA)
  • Type 3 - genetic small vessel disease distinct from CAA Type 4 - inflammatory and immunologically mediated e.g. Churg-Strauss syndrome and Wegener’s granulomatosis
  • Type 5 - venous collagenosis
  • Type 6 - other small vessel disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Does atrial fibrillation increase or decrease the risk of stroke?

A

Increase - 5 fold! Around 1 in 6 strokes are due to AF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is haemorrahagic stroke classified?

A

Primary intracerebral and secondary intracerebral haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are causes of primary intracerebral haemorrhage?

A

Hypertension and amyloid angiopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are causes of secondary intracerebral haemorrhage?

A

Arteriovenous malformation, aneurysm, tumour

17
Q

How is stroke acutely managed?

A

Thrombolysis (e.g. alteplase)/thromectomy, imaging, swallow assessment, nutrition and hydration, antiplatelets, stroke unit care, DVT prophylaxis

18
Q

How can stroke be prevented (secondarily)?

A

Medication, lifestyle, carotid surgery

19
Q

What factors are taken into account when deciding whether to thrombolyse a patient or not?

A

Age, time since onset, previous intracerebral haemorrhage or infarct, atrophic changes, blood pressure, diabetes, potential benefit to be gained by thrombolysis

20
Q

What does the FAST acronym for recognising symptoms of stroke stand for?

A

Facial weakness, Arm weakness, Speech problems, Test all 3 symptoms

21
Q

In the hyperacute setting of a stroke what may a brain CT scan show?

A

May be essentially normal :( but may show hyperdense middle cerebral artery for example

22
Q

What used to be the ONLY proven treatment for acute ischaemic stroke?

A

IV tPA (tissue plasminogen activator) - limited to <4.5 hours from onset of symptoms, large and proximal clots less likely to re-canalise

23
Q

What is the difference between a cardioembolic and an atheroembolic stroke?

A

Cardioembolic - fibrin dependent ‘red thrombus’ Atheroembolic - platelet dependent ‘white thrombus’

24
Q

How is a stroke investigated?

A

Full lipid profile, blood pressure, carotid scan, ECG, consider 72 hour ECG and echo cardiogram

25
Q

What is the ABC of medical stroke prevention?

A
  • Antithrombotic therapy (antiplatelets, anticoagulants)
  • Blood pressure
  • Cholesterol
  • Diabetes + Don’t smoke
26
Q

What score is used to assess risk of stroke?

A

CHA2DS2VASc score

  • Congestive heart failure
  • Hypertension
  • Age>75 (2 points)
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Stroke/TIA/thrombo-embolism (2 points)
  • Vascular disease
  • Age 65-74
  • Sex category i.e. female

Maximum score is 9 points

27
Q

What drug based therapy has been proven to reduce the risk of stroke by up to 28%?

A

Perindopril based therapy

28
Q

How much of a risk reduction is associated with carotid endarterectomy?

A

Absolute risk reduction = 15.9%, depends on suitability of patient and expertise of surgical centre